Get Through Mock 7 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Ix for ?urethral diverticulum

A

MR urethra pre and post void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of right tracheal wall indentation

A

Double aortic arch,
Right arch with aberrant left subclavian,
Left arch with aberrant right subclavian with PDA,
Common origin of innominate and left common carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Uniformly enhancing retro-orbital mass in child, progressive exophthalmos

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cobra shaped pelvic mass/abscess, long standing IUCD

A

Actinomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Biggest risk factor for pulmonary haemorrhage & pneumothorax in lung biopsy

A

Depth of lesion (deeper is worse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heel-toe maneuvre on US improves picture by…

A

Minimising anisotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stable sized adnexal cystic lesion over months

A

Paraovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pancreatic transplant performed usually with which procedure1

A

Simultaneous renal transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Post-menopausal, Low T1 and T2

A

Ovarian Fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

Ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Previous endometriosis, bright on T1 and T1 fat sat, enhancing nodules

A

Clear cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Previous endometriosis associated with

A

Clear cell carcinoma,
Endometrioid carcinoma (no enhancing solid nodules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SAH within 4th ventricle, responsible vessel

A

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Non-cyanotic child, mild cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascularity

A

VSD or ASD (VSD is more common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary nodules with endobronchial abnormality

A

Amyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lung amyloid features

A

Parenchymal - recurrent infections, peripheral tree-in-bud.
Bronchial - Mass like lesions arising from internal walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compressive vertebral haemangiomas distribution

A

Most commonly in thoracic spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common cause of oesophageal rupture

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Commonest location of traumatic (blunt) oesophageal rupture (& associated hydrothorax)

A

Upper third, causing right sided hydrothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acute congestive heart failure and joint pain, recent infection (child)

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common causes of basal ganglia calcification

A

Hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism,
idiopathic,
Normal variant,
Ageing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endometrial thickening & ovarian mass in postmenopausal woman

A

Granulosa cell tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lytic lesion with cortical expansion and lack of sclerotic rim in spine

A

Spinal giant cell tumour

24
Q

Commonest location for spinal GCT

25
Filling defect in uterine fundus on HSG, low T2 mass abutting the junctional zone on MRI
Adenomyosis
26
Low T1/T2 ovarian lesion, with multilocular cystic lesion in same ovary
Brenner tumour, commonly associated with mucinous cystadenoma of same ovary
27
Cervical cancer with T1 high signal
Suggests haemorrhage
28
Cystic lesion in cervix with high T1, post radiotherapy for cervical ca
Cervical stenosis with haematometra
29
Liver biopsy indicated, pt is on anticoagulant and has acute liver failure
Transjugular biopsy
30
2YO, painless supraorbital fluctuant lump, scalloping of underlying bone and low internal echoes
Angular dermoid
31
Absolute contraindications to percutaneous vertebroplasty
Haemorrhagic diathesis Infection
32
Indications for percutaneous vertebroplasty
Symptomatic vertebral angioma Painful vertebral body tumours Painful osteoporosis with loss of height or compression fractures
33
Commonest cause of bone mets to preipheral bones
Lung cancer
34
Air embolus during dialysis line insertion - Rx
Left lateral position and high flow O2
35
LeFort fractures
All involve pterygoid plate LeFort 1 involves maxilla and nasal septum. LeFort 2 involves nasal bones, frontal process of maxilla, maxillary sinus, medial and inferior orbital wall LeFort 3 involves lateral orbital wall and zygomatoco-frontal suture LeFort 2 = Pyramidal fracture
36
Thickening and clumping of cauda equina nerve roots
Arachnoiditis
37
Similar to HOA, autosomal dominant
Pachydermoperiostosis
38
High pressure chronic retention
Caused by prostatic hypertrophy usually. Rx is catheter and possible TURP, not nephrostomy
39
Testicular vein rupture during coiling, Rx
Conservative management
40
Liver mets resectability criteria
No strict number of mets, but more than 6 is unlikely. At least 3 segments spared. No nodal involvement. At least one hepatic and portal vein branch spared
41
Most specific CT sign for mesenteric injury and associated bowel wall ischaemia
Decreased or absent enhancement
42
Neonate, HIDA scan shows no tracer in bowel at 24hrs. Normal GB on US
Biliary atresia
43
Angiographic signs of active bleeding
Contrast extravasation, Vessel spasm, Vessel cut-off, Early venous filling
44
MRI signal in brain swelling
Can be normal
45
Scaphoid fractures distribution
Waist 70%, proximal pole 20%, distal pole 10%.
46
Scaphoid AVN
Proximal pole is at more risk
47
Focal dissection at site of angioplasty, next step
Is usually normal, measure pressure gradient, should be <10mmHg
48
Endotracheal tube correct location
Should be at least 5cm above the carina
49
Intra-aortic counter pulsation balloon location
Proximal aspect distal to arch vessels
50
DISH extraspinal manifestations
Calcification of enthesis and hypertrophic bone changes, commonly involving olecranon, patella, calcaneum
51
Stable low T2 and diffusion restriction in peripheral prostate. Firm nodule on DRE
Granulomatous prostatitis
52
Gout erosion location
Typically extra-articular
53
MCUG, child already on prophylactic Abx, what to do with Abx
Take 3 day course of treatment dose Trimethoprim, starting on day of procedure
54
Heterogenous, hemispheric mass with necrosis, haemorrhage and enhancement
PNET
55
Enhancing intravascular mass with flow voids and hydrocephalus
Choroid plexus papilloma
56
Urothelial vs squamous cell bladder Ca
Squamous cell is sessile, rather than papillary, and doesn't demonstrate pure intraluminal growth