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Flashcards in GI Pathology Deck (313)
1

What is the main reason of a cleft palate to form?

failure of facial prominences to fold

2

What is an aphthous ulcer?

painful, ulceration of oral mucosa

3

What causes Behcet Syndorme?

immune complex vasculitis

4

Begcet Syndrome is seen after what type of infection?

viral

5

What are the three areas are effected by Behcet Syndrome?

aphthous ulcer, genital ulcers, uveitis

6

Which HSV isotype causes oral herpes?

one

7

Where does oral herpes remaini dormant?

ganglia of trigeminal nerve

8

What are the two precursor lesions for squamous cell carcinoma (squamous cell dysplasia)?

leukoplakia and erythroplakia

9

What are the two common risk factors for developing a squamous cell carcinoma?

tobacco and alcohol

10

Does squamous cell carcinoma effect the floor or the roof of the mouth?

floor

11

Oral hairy leukoplakia is indicative of what type of cancer?

squamous cell carcinoma

12

Where on the tongue does oral hairy leukoplakia arise?

lateral side of the tongue

13

In immunocompromised patients, what virus can drive oral hairy leukoplakia? What type of cellular change is this?

EBV

hyperplasia of squamous cells

14

What gland does mumps infect?

parotid, bilateral

15

What are three other presentations that may accompany a mumps infection?

orchitis, pancreatitis, aseptic meningitis

16

What enzyme can be elevated due to mumps? What two glands could be responsible for this?

amylase

parotid or pancreas

17

What is inflammation of the salivary gland caused?

sialadenitis

18

What bacteria can often infect an obstructed salivary gland?

S. aureus

19

What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland?

pleomorphic adenoma

20

Is a pleomorphic adenoma benign or malignant?

benign

21

What two types of tissue makes up a pleomorphic adenoma?

stromal and epithelial

22

In what gland does a pleomorphic adenoma most often arise?

parotid

23

How would one know that a pleomorphic adenoma is transforming into a carcinoma?

facial nerve damage

24

What gland does a warthin tumor arise?

parotid

25

Are Warthins tumors benign or cystic?

benign

26

Warthins tumors are filled with what two constituents?

lymphocytes

germinal center

27

What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands?

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

28

What gland does a mucoepidermoid tumor most often arise?

parotid

29

What is the most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula?

atresia of proximal esophagus

distal esopagus arising from trachea

30

What constellation of symptoms does a tracheoesophageal fistula present with?

polyhydramnios

vomiting

abdominal distension

aspiration

31

Does an esophageal web arise in the upper of lower part of the esophagus?

upper

32

Does an esophageal web carry an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma?

squamous cell carcinoma

33

What is a Zenker Diverticulum? Acquired or congenital?

outpouching of pharyngeal mucosa

acquired

34

Is a Zenker DIverticulum a true or false diverticulum?

false

35

What exact location does a Zenker Diverticulum arise?

junction of esophagus and pharynx

36

What are the two common presentations with a Zenker-Diverticulum?

dysphagia and halitosis

37

What is Mallory-Weiss Synrome?

gastro-esophageal laceration

38

What causes Mallory-Weiss Synrome? Why?

severe vomiting

alcoholism or bulimia

39

Does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome present with painful or painless hematemesis?

painful hematemesis

40

What condition does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome have an increased risk of presenting with?

Boerhaave Syndrome

41

What is Boerhaave Syndrome? What can Boerhaave Syndrome result in?

esophageal rupture leading to air trapped in the mediastinum

subcutaneous emphysema

42

What vein normally drains the distal esophagus?

left gastric

43

How does esophageal varices clasically present?

PAINLESS hematemesis

44

What is the most common cause of death in liver cirrhosis?

esophageal varices rupture

45

What type of cell is damaged during achalasia? Which plexus?

ganglion

myenteric

46

What specific parasite can damage the myenteric plexus? What disease? What cells?

Trypanosoma cruzi

Chagas

ganglion

47

Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquid or both?

both

48

What is the characteristic sign of achalasia?

Birds beak

49

Does achalasia cause an increased risk of developing from squamous cell or adenocarcinoma?

squamous cell

50

New onset asthma as an adult is indicative of what disease?

GERD

51

What is the exact metaplasia of Barrett's esoophagus?

stratified squamous epithelium to nonciliated columnar with goblet cells

52

What type of cancer can Barrett's esophagus progress to?

adenocarcinoma

53

Does esophageal cancer present late or early? What does this mean?

late

poor prognosis

54

What type of dysphagia does esophageal cancer present with?

progressive (liquids to solids)

55

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

cervical

56

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the middle 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

mediastinal or tracheobronchial

57

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

celiac and gastric

58

What is gastroschisis?

congenital malformation leading to exposure of abdominal contents

59

Is gastroschisis covered by peritoneum?

no

60

What is omphalocele covered by?

by peritoneum and amnion

61

Is pyloric stenosis more common in males or females?

males

62

Clasically, how long after birth does pyloric stenosis present?

two weeks

63

What type of vomiting does pyloric stenosis present with?

non-bilious

64

What type of cells produce mucin in the stomach?

foveolar cells

65

What type of gastric ulcer will develop after a severe burn?

Curling ulcer

66

What type of ulcer arises due to increased intracranial pressure? Why?

Cushing

increased vagal tone leads to increased acid secretion

67

What is Cushing's Triad?

wide pulse pressure

bradycardia

irregular respiration

68

What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells located?

fundus and body

69

What type of gastric adenocarcinoma does H. pylori cause?

intestinal

70

Achlorhydria due to gastric chronic gastric inflammation present with what two symtoms?

increased gastrin levels

G-cell hyperplasia

71

What is the most common site of H. pylori infection in the stomach?

antrum

72

What two types of cancer does chronic H. pylori infection present with?

gastric adenocarcinoma

MALT Lymphoma

73

What is the reason for almost all duodenal ulcers? What else is a less common but possible cause?

H. pylori

ZE syndrome

74

What is the classic presentation for a duodenal ulcer?

epigastric pain that improves with meals

75

What gland hypertrophies during a duodenal ulcer?

Brunner glands

76

Are duodenal ulcer more common in the anterior or posterior portion of the duodenum?

anteior

77

What two things can happen if a duodenal ulcer is in the posterior portion of the duodenum?

eat away at gastroduodenal artery

acute pancreatitis

78

What is the classic presentation for a gastric ulcer?

pain the worsens with meals

79

Where are gastric ulcers most commonly located?

lesser curvature of the antrum

80

Rupture of an ulcer in the lesser curvature of the antrum can lead to increased bleeding from what vessel?

left gastric

81

Are duodenal ulcer commonly malignant or benign?

almost never malignant

82

What type of cancer is gastric cancer most commonly?

adenocarcinoma

83

What type of gastric carcinoma is more common, intestinal or mucosal type?

intestinal

84

Where does the intestinal type of gastric carcinoma normally arise?

lesser curvature of antrum

85

What type of cell is found in a diffuse gastric carcinoma?

signet ring cells

86

What do signet ring cell do to the gastric wall? What two things is this called?

thicken it

linitis plastica and desmoplasia

87

Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with nitrosamines? Where are nitrosamines found? What country?

intestinal

smoked food

Japan

88

Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with H. pylori infection?

intestinal

89

Which blood type is associated with Intestinal Gastric Carcinoma?

Blood A

90

Which lymph nodes does gastric carcinoma spread to?

Virchows

91

What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

gastric carcinoma invading periumbilical region

92

Which type of gastric carcinoma can produce a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

intestinal type

93

Where does gastric carcinoma most commonly metastisize?

liver

94

Where does a Krukenberg tumor metastisize? Is this associated with intestinal or diffuse type of gastric carcinoma?

bilateral ovaries

diffuse

95

What type of intestinal carcinoma metastisizes to the ovaries?

diffuse

96

What condition is duodenal atresia associated with?

Downs Syndrome

97

What feature would suggest duodenal atresia in utero?

polyhydramnios

98

What sign does duodenal atresia produce on Xray?

double bubble

99

Is Meckel's a true or false diverticulum? What makes it this way?

true

outpouching of all three layers

100

Meckel's diverticulum results in a failure of what duct to retract fully? What is another name for this duct?

Omphalomesenteric

Vitelline

101

What are the four 'twos' of Meckels Diverticulum?

two years old

two inches long

two percent of population

two feet from ileocecal valve

102

What is a volvulus?

twisting of bowel along the mesentery

103

What does a volvulus result in?

infarction

104

Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the elderly?

sigmoid

105

Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the young?

cecum

106

What is intussusception?

when a proximal portion of the bowel telescopes into a forward part

107

What pulls the telescoped section forward during intussusception? What does this result in?

peristalsis

infarction

108

In children what is the most common cause of intussusception? What cause this?

lymphoid hyperplasia

rotavirus

109

What section of the GI tract are involved with the most common cause of intussesception?

ileum into cecum

110

What is the most common cause of intussesception in adults?

tumor

111

What does the stool look like in intussusception?

red currant jelly

112

What two HLA haplotypes are associated with Celiac Disease?

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

113

What is the most potent component of gluten?

gliadin

114

What sort of enzymatic processing happens to gliadin? What enzyme?

Deamidation

tissue transglutaminase

115

Which MHC molecule presents gliadin?

MHC II

116

What skin lesion can form from celiac disease?

dermatitis herpetiformis

117

What specific structure of the skin is involved in dermatitis herpetiformis? Which immunogloulin?

dermal papillae

IgA

118

What three proteins have antibodies against them in celiac disease? Which immunoglobulin?

gliadin, endomysium and tTP

IgA

119

What section of the GI tract is most severly effected by celiac disease?

Duodenum

120

What two cancers can arise due to long-term celiac disease?

small bowel carcinoma

T-cell lymphoma

121

What two sections of the GI tract are most affected by tropical sprue?

jejunum and ileum

122

When does tropical sprue arise? What does tropical sprue respond to?

after diarrhea

antibiotics

123

What species causes Whipple Disease?

Tropheryma whippeli

124

What cell gets infected during Whipple disease?

macrophages

125

Where is the classic layer of involvement of Whipple Disease?

small bowel lamina propria

126

Why does Whipple Disease present with Steatorrhea?

swollen macrophages compress lacteals and fat cant be absorbed through lymphatics

127

What occupation type most often presents with Whipple Disease?

Farmers

128

Abetalipoproteinemia presents with deficiency in what two proteins?

B48 and B100

129

What type of cells give rise to a carcinoid tumor?

neuroendocrine

130

Since a carcinoid tumor arise from neuroendocrine cells. what would be the IHC stain?

Chromogranin

131

Where is the most common site for a carcinoid tumor?

small bowel

132

What hormone is often released by carcinoid tumors?

serotonin

133

In a carcinoid tumor, what metabolite will be found in the urine?

5-HIAA

134

Where does a carcinoid tumor have to metastisize to in order to produce symptoms?

liver

135

What are the three symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?

flushing

diarrhea

bronchospasm

136

What two factors often precipitate carcinoid syndrome?

alcohol and emotional stress

137

What is carcinoid syndrome causing heart disease characterized by? What is deposited?

right sided valvular fibrosis

collagen

138

What two valvular issues does carcinoid heart lead to?

tricuspid regurgitation

pulmonary valve stenosis

139

Why does carcinoid syndrome not cause left heart failure?

presence of MAO in lung

140

What obstructs the appendix in children?

lymphoid hyperplasia

141

What obstructs the appendix in adults?

fecalith

142

What two populations have the highest incidence of IBS?

caucasians

eastern european jews

143

What two parts of the GI tract are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?

rectum and distal sigmoid

144

What other disease is Hirschprung disease highly associated with?

Down Syndrome

145

What two plexuses are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?

Myenteric

Submucosal

146

What type of cells fail to migrate in Hirschprung disease? What structure are these cells derived from?

ganglion

neural crest

147

Which layers of the GI tract are involved in UC?

mucosal and submucosal

148

Which layers of the GI tract are involved in Chrons?

all layers

149

Where does UC always begin? Where can UC progress to?

rectum

cecum

150

Where is the most common site for Crohns to arise?

terminal ileum

151

Would UC or crohns present with LLQ pain?

UC

152

Would UC or crohns present with RLQ pain?

Crohns

153

What is the key inflammatory structure of UC? What cell type?

Crypt abscess

Neutrophils

154

What is the inflammatory structure of Crohns? What cell type?

Lymphoid aggregates

Granulomas

155

What is lost during UC? What radiological sign would this present with?

Haustra

lead pipe sign

156

What does the bowel mucosa look like during Crohns? How would this appear on radiology?

Cobble stone

String sign

157

What are the two complications of Ulcerative Colitis?

toxic megacolon

carcinoma

158

Which IBS disease can present with kidney stones? What type of stone? Why?

Crohns

calcium oxalate

Crohns increases oxalate absorption

159

What is p-ANCA?

perinuclear Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody

160

What two layers of the GI tract out pouch during a colonic diverticula?

mucosa and submucosa

161

What specific location do colonic diverticula arise?

where vasa recta traverse muscularis propria

162

Which form of IBS does smoking protect against?

UC

163

What two locations does angiodysplasia often arise?

cecum and ascending colon

164

What is the mode of inheritance for hereditary telangiectasia?

autosomal dominant

165

Where are the two most common locations for hereditary telangiectasia?

mouth and GI tract

166

What is the most common location for Ischemic Colitis? Why?

splenic flexure

watershed of SMA/IMA

167

What is the most classic presentation of Ischemic Colitis? Why?

post-prandial pain

increased energy require of colon exacerbates oxygen deficiency

168

What layer of the GI tract is raised in a polyp?

mucosa

169

What structure undergoes hyperplasia to give rise to a hyperplastic polyp?

hyperplasia of glands

170

At what junction do colonic polyps most commonly arise?

sigmo-rectal junction

171

What gives rise to a adenomatous polyp?

neoplastic proliferation of glands

172

What chromosome is APC on?

five

173

What mutation (not APC) is implicated in the formation of a polyp?

k-Ras

174

A mutation in what gene and increased expression of what gene contribute to the adenoma-carcinoma cycle?

p53 = mutated

COX = over-expressed

175

What drug can impede the progression from a colonic adenoma to a carcinoma?

aspirin

176

What are the three risks of polyps that can contribute to their pathogenicity?

greater than 2cm

sessile growth

villious histology

177

What does sessile growth mean?

grows off colonic wall w/o a stalk

178

What is the mode of inheritance for FAP?

autosomal dominant

179

What is Gardner Syndrome?

FAP with fibromatosis and osteomas

180

Where does the fibromatosis of Gardner Syndrome arise?

retroperitoneum

181

Where does the Osteoma arise during Gardner Syndrome?

skull

182

What are the two characteristics of Turcot Syndrome?

FAP with CNS tumors

183

What are the two types of CNS tumors found in Turcot Syndrome?

medulloblastoma

glial tumors

184

What is the mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?

autosomal dominant

185

What does Peutz-Jeghers syndrome produce in the GI tract?

Hamartomous Polyps

186

What three locations does Peutz-Jeghers produce hyperpigmentation?

lips, oral mucosa and genitals

187

What three cancers does a patient with Peutz-Jeghers have a higher risk of developing?

colorectal, breast and gynecological

188

What does microsatellite instability indicate?

defective DNA repair mechanisms

189

What are microsatellites?

repeating sequences of non-coding DNA

190

HNPCC is a result in a defect in what type of enzymes?

DNA mismatch repair enzymes

191

Patients with HNPCC have an increased risk for what three types of cancer?

colorectal, ovarian and endometrial

192

How does colorectal cancer arise in patients with HNPCC? From a polyp?

de novo

no

193

What are two ways to describe the appearance of a left sided carcinoma?

napkin ring

apple core sign

194

How does the stool look in a left sided carcinoma?

blood streaked stool

195

How does a right sided colon cancer usually present?

iron deficiency anemia

196

How does a right sided colonic carcinoma grow?

raised lesion

197

Colon cancer carries a risk to develop endocarditis of what strain?

Strep. bovis

198

Gastric cancer most oftenly invades what organ?

liver

199

What is the most common cause of Aphthous Ulcer?

stress

200

What does an Aphthous ulcer look like?

gray base surrouned by ring of erythema

201

What is the gray base of an Aphthous ulcer composed of?

granulation tissue

202

What is more suggestive of dysplasia, erythroplakia or leukoplakia?

erythroplakia

203

Where does a pleomorphic adenoma often arise?

angle of mandible

204

Lets say a parotid tumor was removed but kept coming back, what type of tumor could it by? Why?

pleomorphic adenoma

incomplete margins

205

What two cell types are found in a mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

mucinous and squamous

206

What salivary gland tumor most often involves the facial nerve?

pleomorphic adenoma

207

Esophageal webs are a protrusion of what part of the GI tract?

mucosa

208

What two esophageal issues arise during achalasia?

loss of esophageal motility

inability to relax LES

209

Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquids or both?

both

210

What type of hernia can produce bowel sounds in the lower lung fields?

paraesophageal

211

What are the two long-term complications of GERD?

ulceration with stricture

Barretts

212

What type of cancer could develop from Barretts esophagus?

adenocarcinoma

213

What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the lower third of the esophagus?

adenocarcinoma

214

What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the upper two thirds of the esophagus?

squamous

215

What type of dysphagia does esophageal carcinoma present with? What does this mean?

Progressive

liquids to solids

216

Does esophageal carcinoma present early or late?

late

217

Which type of esophageal carcinoma can irritate the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

squamous

218

Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?

no

219

Which GI disease can present with visible peristalsis?

pyloric stenosis

220

What is acute gastritis?

acidic damage to stomach

221

Why does a Curling ulcer happen?

poor blood flow doesnt remove enough acid

222

Why are most patients in ICU placed on PPIs?

shock can cause an ulcer

223

What are the two types of chronic gastritis?

autoimmune

H. pylori

224

What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells found?

fundus

body

225

Where in the stomach are the majority of G-cells located?

Antrum

226

Chronic autoimmune gastritis features antibodies against what two antigens?

parietal cells

intrinsic factor

227

Chronic gastritis can drive which type of cancer? Which type?

gastric adenocarcinoma

intestinal

228

Which form of gastric adenocarcinoma can H. pylori present with?

Intestinal

229

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with H. pylori?

no

230

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with metaplasia?

no

231

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with nitrosamines?

no

232

Does gastric carcinoma present early or late ?

late

233

Though somewhat rare, where on the body can acanthosis nigricans present during gastric carcinoma?

axillary region

234

Would duodenal atresia has bilious or non-bilious vomiting?

bilious

235

What two sections of the GI tract become distended during duodenal atresia?

duodenum and stomach

236

What are the four ways that Meckels Diverticulum can present?

volvulus

intussusception

bleeding

obstructio (mimmics appendicitis)

237

What type of metaplastic cell can be found in Meckels Diverticulum? What can this lead to? Why?

gastric mucosa

bleeding

production of acid

238

Which layer of the GI tract is most susceptible to infarction during severe hypotension?

mucosa

239

What specific structure is destroyed during celiac disease?

Villi

240

What type of immune reaction is celiac disease?

hypersensitivity

241

What is THE MOST affected portion of the GI tract during celiac disease?

duodenum

242

What specific structure is destroyed during tropical sprue?

intestinal villi

243

What stain can be used to identify f Disease?

PAS

244

Other than GI symptoms, what other four symptoms can Whipple Disease produce?

arthritis, cardiac valve issues, lymph nodes and CNS

245

Is IBS more common in men or women?

women

246

What is produces continuous lesions, UC or Crohns?

UC

247

What involves the entire radius of the tube, UC or Crohns?

UC

248

What type of mucosa is seen during UC?

pseudopolyp

249

What are the two associated risks of UC developing into carcinoma?

length of colon involved

duration of involvement

250

What is the main complication of Crohns Disease?

Malabsorptive issues

251

What are the two extraintestinal complications of UC?

primary sclerosing cholangitis

p-ANCA positivity

252

What layer of the GI tract are affected by Crohns?

full thickness

253

What do the fissures look like in Crohns?

knife-like

254

Where is the least likely location of Crohns?

rectum

255

Which form of IBS can produce fistulas? Why?

Crohns

full thickness inflammation of wall

256

Which form of IBS presents with skeletal issues?

Crohns

257

Does smoking increase or decrease liklihood of Crohns?

increase

258

Which form of IBS can produce a stricture?

Crohns

259

What biopsy is used to Dx Hirschsprung disease?

rectal suction

260

What is the definition of a colonic diverticulum?

outpouching of mucosa and submucosa through muscularis propria

261

What is believed to be the cause of colonic diverticula?

wall stress

262

What part of the GI tract is where colonic diverticula most commonly arise?

sigmoid

263

What are the three most common consequences of developing a colonic diverticula?

hematochezia

diverticulitis

fistula

264

What is the definition for Colonic Angiodysplasia?

acquired defects in the capillary beds of the mucosal and submmucosal layers

265

How does angiodysplasia present?

hematochezia

266

WHat does high stress in the right colon produce?

Angiodysplasia

267

What does high stress in the left colon produce?

diverticula

268

What change may improve the symptoms of IBS?

increased fiber in diet

269

What GI diseases improves with defecation?

IBS

270

What is fibromatosis? Where usually?

non-neoplastic proliferation of fibroblasts

retroperitoneum

271

What type of growth is a juvenile polyp?

Hamartomous

272

In what two locations does juvenile polypsosis usually present?

stomach and colon

273

What is the prototypic disease involving microsatellite instability? What process is hereditarily defective?

HNPCC

DNA repair mechanisms

274

Does HNPCC give rise to tumors on the left side or right side?

right side

275

Is the adenoma-carcinoma cycle more prevalent on left side or right side?

left side

276

Is the right or left side associated with microsatellite instability?

right

277

What is the T-stage based on?

depth of invasion

278

What is the N-stage based on?

regional lymph node spread

279

What tumor marker does colonic carcinoma present with?

CEA

280

What is CEA useful for?

treatment response

281

What is CEA not useful for?

screening

282

Mumps can lead to sterility in what patient group?

teenagers

283

At the lower esophageal sphincter, where specific layer are the ganglion cells located?

between IC and OL

284

What two tests confirm eradication of H. pylori infection?

negative urea breath test

negative stool antigen

285

What two signs of gastric carcinoma may be evident on physical examination?

Leser Trelat

Acanthosis

286

If a patient doesnt have IgA against gliadin does this mean they dont have celiac disease? Why?

no

might be IgG. IgA deficiency is more common in celiac patients

287

What are the three histological findings of celiac disease?

flattening of villi

hyperplasia of crypts

intraepithelial lymphocytes

288

What layer of the GI tract does a carcinoid tumor grow in?

submucosal

289

Which IBS can present with skin issues? What are the two issues?

Crohns

Erythema nodosum and proderma gangrenosum

290

Can one tell the difference between an adenomatous polyp and hyperplastic polyp on colonoscopy?

no

291

During FAP, are the polyps hyperplastic of adenomatous?

adenomatous

292

What kind of dysplasia is oral Leukoplakia?

squamous dysplasia

293

Between which two layers of the GI tract are the ganglion cells located?

inner circular and outer longitudinal

294

Which type of Hypersensitivity is Chronic Autoimmune Gastritis?

four

295

B48 is required for which lipid carrying molecule?

chylomicron

296

B100 is required for which two lipid carrying molecules?

VLDL and LDL

297

In a carcinoid heart, what molecule is present in the areas of fibrosis?

collagen

298

Does UC have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

bloody

299

Does Crohns have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

non-bloody

300

What is more suggestive of squamous cell dysplasia, leukoplakia or erythroplakia?

erythroplakia

301

Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?

no

302

Which prostaglandin promotes mucus secretion in the stomach?

PGE2

303

Ulcerative colitis progressing into carcinoma depends on what two factors?

extent of colon involved

length of disease

304

Is p-ANCA associated with UC or Crohns?

UC

305

Does Smoking protect or contribute to UC?

protect

306

Does Smoking protect or contribute to Crohns?

contribute

307

What is the only way Crohns can cause carcinoma?

colonic involvement

308

What disease is PUEA associated with?

Crohns

309

What does PUEA stand for?

pyoderma gangrenosum

uveitis

erythema nodosum

arthritis

310

How does Angiodysplasia present?

hematiochezia

311

What dietary modification can improve Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

increased fiber intake

312

What is the appearance of a Hyperplastic Colonic Polyp on microscopy?

'serrated'

313

What gene is deleted during Familial Adenomatous Polyposis?

APC