GI Pathology Flashcards
(313 cards)
1
Q
What is the main reason of a cleft palate to form?
A
failure of facial prominences to fold
2
Q
What is an aphthous ulcer?
A
painful, ulceration of oral mucosa
3
Q
What causes Behcet Syndorme?
A
immune complex vasculitis
4
Q
Begcet Syndrome is seen after what type of infection?
A
viral
5
Q
What are the three areas are effected by Behcet Syndrome?
A
aphthous ulcer, genital ulcers, uveitis
6
Q
Which HSV isotype causes oral herpes?
A
one
7
Q
Where does oral herpes remaini dormant?
A
ganglia of trigeminal nerve
8
Q
What are the two precursor lesions for squamous cell carcinoma (squamous cell dysplasia)?
A
leukoplakia and erythroplakia
9
Q
What are the two common risk factors for developing a squamous cell carcinoma?
A
tobacco and alcohol
10
Q
Does squamous cell carcinoma effect the floor or the roof of the mouth?
A
floor
11
Q
Oral hairy leukoplakia is indicative of what type of cancer?
A
squamous cell carcinoma
12
Q
Where on the tongue does oral hairy leukoplakia arise?
A
lateral side of the tongue
13
Q
In immunocompromised patients, what virus can drive oral hairy leukoplakia? What type of cellular change is this?
A
EBV
hyperplasia of squamous cells
14
Q
What gland does mumps infect?
A
parotid, bilateral
15
Q
What are three other presentations that may accompany a mumps infection?
A
orchitis, pancreatitis, aseptic meningitis
16
Q
What enzyme can be elevated due to mumps? What two glands could be responsible for this?
A
amylase
parotid or pancreas
17
Q
What is inflammation of the salivary gland caused?
A
sialadenitis
18
Q
What bacteria can often infect an obstructed salivary gland?
A
S. aureus
19
Q
What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland?
A
pleomorphic adenoma
20
Q
Is a pleomorphic adenoma benign or malignant?
A
benign
21
Q
What two types of tissue makes up a pleomorphic adenoma?
A
stromal and epithelial
22
Q
In what gland does a pleomorphic adenoma most often arise?
A
parotid
23
Q
How would one know that a pleomorphic adenoma is transforming into a carcinoma?
A
facial nerve damage
24
Q
What gland does a warthin tumor arise?
A
parotid
25
Are Warthins tumors benign or cystic?
benign
26
Warthins tumors are filled with what two constituents?
lymphocytes
germinal center
27
What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands?
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
28
What gland does a mucoepidermoid tumor most often arise?
parotid
29
What is the most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula?
atresia of proximal esophagus
distal esopagus arising from trachea
30
What constellation of symptoms does a tracheoesophageal fistula present with?
polyhydramnios
vomiting
abdominal distension
aspiration
31
Does an esophageal web arise in the upper of lower part of the esophagus?
upper
32
Does an esophageal web carry an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma?
squamous cell carcinoma
33
What is a Zenker Diverticulum? Acquired or congenital?
outpouching of pharyngeal mucosa
acquired
34
Is a Zenker DIverticulum a true or false diverticulum?
false
35
What exact location does a Zenker Diverticulum arise?
junction of esophagus and pharynx
36
What are the two common presentations with a Zenker-Diverticulum?
dysphagia and halitosis
37
What is Mallory-Weiss Synrome?
gastro-esophageal laceration
38
What causes Mallory-Weiss Synrome? Why?
severe vomiting
alcoholism or bulimia
39
Does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome present with painful or painless hematemesis?
painful hematemesis
40
What condition does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome have an increased risk of presenting with?
Boerhaave Syndrome
41
What is Boerhaave Syndrome? What can Boerhaave Syndrome result in?
esophageal rupture leading to air trapped in the mediastinum
subcutaneous emphysema
42
What vein normally drains the distal esophagus?
left gastric
43
How does esophageal varices clasically present?
PAINLESS hematemesis
44
What is the most common cause of death in liver cirrhosis?
esophageal varices rupture
45
What type of cell is damaged during achalasia? Which plexus?
ganglion
myenteric
46
What specific parasite can damage the myenteric plexus? What disease? What cells?
Trypanosoma cruzi
Chagas
ganglion
47
Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquid or both?
both
48
What is the characteristic sign of achalasia?
Birds beak
49
Does achalasia cause an increased risk of developing from squamous cell or adenocarcinoma?
squamous cell
50
New onset asthma as an adult is indicative of what disease?
GERD
51
What is the exact metaplasia of Barrett's esoophagus?
stratified squamous epithelium to nonciliated columnar with goblet cells
52
What type of cancer can Barrett's esophagus progress to?
adenocarcinoma
53
Does esophageal cancer present late or early? What does this mean?
late
poor prognosis
54
What type of dysphagia does esophageal cancer present with?
progressive (liquids to solids)
55
Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?
cervical
56
Which lymph nodes would cancer from the middle 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?
mediastinal or tracheobronchial
57
Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?
celiac and gastric
58
What is gastroschisis?
congenital malformation leading to exposure of abdominal contents
59
Is gastroschisis covered by peritoneum?
no
60
What is omphalocele covered by?
by peritoneum and amnion
61
Is pyloric stenosis more common in males or females?
males
62
Clasically, how long after birth does pyloric stenosis present?
two weeks
63
What type of vomiting does pyloric stenosis present with?
non-bilious
64
What type of cells produce mucin in the stomach?
foveolar cells
65
What type of gastric ulcer will develop after a severe burn?
Curling ulcer
66
What type of ulcer arises due to increased intracranial pressure? Why?
Cushing
increased vagal tone leads to increased acid secretion
67
What is Cushing's Triad?
wide pulse pressure
bradycardia
irregular respiration
68
What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells located?
fundus and body
69
What type of gastric adenocarcinoma does H. pylori cause?
intestinal
70
Achlorhydria due to gastric chronic gastric inflammation present with what two symtoms?
increased gastrin levels
G-cell hyperplasia
71
What is the most common site of H. pylori infection in the stomach?
antrum
72
What two types of cancer does chronic H. pylori infection present with?
gastric adenocarcinoma
MALT Lymphoma
73
What is the reason for almost all duodenal ulcers? What else is a less common but possible cause?
H. pylori
ZE syndrome
74
What is the classic presentation for a duodenal ulcer?
epigastric pain that improves with meals
75
What gland hypertrophies during a duodenal ulcer?
Brunner glands
76
Are duodenal ulcer more common in the anterior or posterior portion of the duodenum?
anteior
77
What two things can happen if a duodenal ulcer is in the posterior portion of the duodenum?
eat away at gastroduodenal artery
acute pancreatitis
78
What is the classic presentation for a gastric ulcer?
pain the worsens with meals
79
Where are gastric ulcers most commonly located?
lesser curvature of the antrum
80
Rupture of an ulcer in the lesser curvature of the antrum can lead to increased bleeding from what vessel?
left gastric
81
Are duodenal ulcer commonly malignant or benign?
almost never malignant
82
What type of cancer is gastric cancer most commonly?
adenocarcinoma
83
What type of gastric carcinoma is more common, intestinal or mucosal type?
intestinal
84
Where does the intestinal type of gastric carcinoma normally arise?
lesser curvature of antrum
85
What type of cell is found in a diffuse gastric carcinoma?
signet ring cells
86
What do signet ring cell do to the gastric wall? What two things is this called?
thicken it
linitis plastica and desmoplasia
87
Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with nitrosamines? Where are nitrosamines found? What country?
intestinal
smoked food
Japan
88
Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with H. pylori infection?
intestinal
89
Which blood type is associated with Intestinal Gastric Carcinoma?
Blood A
90
Which lymph nodes does gastric carcinoma spread to?
Virchows
91
What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?
gastric carcinoma invading periumbilical region
92
Which type of gastric carcinoma can produce a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?
intestinal type
93
Where does gastric carcinoma most commonly metastisize?
liver
94
Where does a Krukenberg tumor metastisize? Is this associated with intestinal or diffuse type of gastric carcinoma?
bilateral ovaries
diffuse
95
What type of intestinal carcinoma metastisizes to the ovaries?
diffuse
96
What condition is duodenal atresia associated with?
Downs Syndrome
97
What feature would suggest duodenal atresia in utero?
polyhydramnios
98
What sign does duodenal atresia produce on Xray?
double bubble
99
Is Meckel's a true or false diverticulum? What makes it this way?
true
outpouching of all three layers
100
Meckel's diverticulum results in a failure of what duct to retract fully? What is another name for this duct?
Omphalomesenteric
Vitelline
101
What are the four 'twos' of Meckels Diverticulum?
two years old
two inches long
two percent of population
two feet from ileocecal valve
102
What is a volvulus?
twisting of bowel along the mesentery
103
What does a volvulus result in?
infarction
104
Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the elderly?
sigmoid
105
Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the young?
cecum
106
What is intussusception?
when a proximal portion of the bowel telescopes into a forward part
107
What pulls the telescoped section forward during intussusception? What does this result in?
peristalsis
infarction
108
In children what is the most common cause of intussusception? What cause this?
lymphoid hyperplasia
rotavirus
109
What section of the GI tract are involved with the most common cause of intussesception?
ileum into cecum
110
What is the most common cause of intussesception in adults?
tumor
111
What does the stool look like in intussusception?
red currant jelly
112
What two HLA haplotypes are associated with Celiac Disease?
HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8
113
What is the most potent component of gluten?
gliadin
114
What sort of enzymatic processing happens to gliadin? What enzyme?
Deamidation
tissue transglutaminase
115
Which MHC molecule presents gliadin?
MHC II
116
What skin lesion can form from celiac disease?
dermatitis herpetiformis
117
What specific structure of the skin is involved in dermatitis herpetiformis? Which immunogloulin?
dermal papillae
IgA
118
What three proteins have antibodies against them in celiac disease? Which immunoglobulin?
gliadin, endomysium and tTP
IgA
119
What section of the GI tract is most severly effected by celiac disease?
Duodenum
120
What two cancers can arise due to long-term celiac disease?
small bowel carcinoma
T-cell lymphoma
121
What two sections of the GI tract are most affected by tropical sprue?
jejunum and ileum
122
When does tropical sprue arise? What does tropical sprue respond to?
after diarrhea
antibiotics
123
What species causes Whipple Disease?
Tropheryma whippeli
124
What cell gets infected during Whipple disease?
macrophages
125
Where is the classic layer of involvement of Whipple Disease?
small bowel lamina propria
126
Why does Whipple Disease present with Steatorrhea?
swollen macrophages compress lacteals and fat cant be absorbed through lymphatics
127
What occupation type most often presents with Whipple Disease?
Farmers
128
Abetalipoproteinemia presents with deficiency in what two proteins?
B48 and B100
129
What type of cells give rise to a carcinoid tumor?
neuroendocrine
130
Since a carcinoid tumor arise from neuroendocrine cells. what would be the IHC stain?
Chromogranin
131
Where is the most common site for a carcinoid tumor?
small bowel
132
What hormone is often released by carcinoid tumors?
serotonin
133
In a carcinoid tumor, what metabolite will be found in the urine?
5-HIAA
134
Where does a carcinoid tumor have to metastisize to in order to produce symptoms?
liver
135
What are the three symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?
flushing
diarrhea
bronchospasm
136
What two factors often precipitate carcinoid syndrome?
alcohol and emotional stress
137
What is carcinoid syndrome causing heart disease characterized by? What is deposited?
right sided valvular fibrosis
collagen
138
What two valvular issues does carcinoid heart lead to?
tricuspid regurgitation
pulmonary valve stenosis
139
Why does carcinoid syndrome not cause left heart failure?
presence of MAO in lung
140
What obstructs the appendix in children?
lymphoid hyperplasia
141
What obstructs the appendix in adults?
fecalith
142
What two populations have the highest incidence of IBS?
caucasians
eastern european jews
143
What two parts of the GI tract are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?
rectum and distal sigmoid
144
What other disease is Hirschprung disease highly associated with?
Down Syndrome
145
What two plexuses are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?
Myenteric
Submucosal
146
What type of cells fail to migrate in Hirschprung disease? What structure are these cells derived from?
ganglion
neural crest
147
Which layers of the GI tract are involved in UC?
mucosal and submucosal
148
Which layers of the GI tract are involved in Chrons?
all layers
149
Where does UC always begin? Where can UC progress to?
rectum
cecum
150
Where is the most common site for Crohns to arise?
terminal ileum
151
Would UC or crohns present with LLQ pain?
UC
152
Would UC or crohns present with RLQ pain?
Crohns
153
What is the key inflammatory structure of UC? What cell type?
Crypt abscess
Neutrophils
154
What is the inflammatory structure of Crohns? What cell type?
Lymphoid aggregates
Granulomas
155
What is lost during UC? What radiological sign would this present with?
Haustra
lead pipe sign
156
What does the bowel mucosa look like during Crohns? How would this appear on radiology?
Cobble stone
String sign
157
What are the two complications of Ulcerative Colitis?
toxic megacolon
carcinoma
158
Which IBS disease can present with kidney stones? What type of stone? Why?
Crohns
calcium oxalate
Crohns increases oxalate absorption
159
What is p-ANCA?
perinuclear Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody
160
What two layers of the GI tract out pouch during a colonic diverticula?
mucosa and submucosa
161
What specific location do colonic diverticula arise?
where vasa recta traverse muscularis propria
162
Which form of IBS does smoking protect against?
UC
163
What two locations does angiodysplasia often arise?
cecum and ascending colon
164
What is the mode of inheritance for hereditary telangiectasia?
autosomal dominant
165
Where are the two most common locations for hereditary telangiectasia?
mouth and GI tract
166
What is the most common location for Ischemic Colitis? Why?
splenic flexure
watershed of SMA/IMA
167
What is the most classic presentation of Ischemic Colitis? Why?
post-prandial pain
increased energy require of colon exacerbates oxygen deficiency
168
What layer of the GI tract is raised in a polyp?
mucosa
169
What structure undergoes hyperplasia to give rise to a hyperplastic polyp?
hyperplasia of glands
170
At what junction do colonic polyps most commonly arise?
sigmo-rectal junction
171
What gives rise to a adenomatous polyp?
neoplastic proliferation of glands
172
What chromosome is APC on?
five
173
What mutation (not APC) is implicated in the formation of a polyp?
k-Ras
174
A mutation in what gene and increased expression of what gene contribute to the adenoma-carcinoma cycle?
p53 = mutated
COX = over-expressed
175
What drug can impede the progression from a colonic adenoma to a carcinoma?
aspirin
176
What are the three risks of polyps that can contribute to their pathogenicity?
greater than 2cm
sessile growth
villious histology
177
What does sessile growth mean?
grows off colonic wall w/o a stalk
178
What is the mode of inheritance for FAP?
autosomal dominant
179
What is Gardner Syndrome?
FAP with fibromatosis and osteomas
180
Where does the fibromatosis of Gardner Syndrome arise?
retroperitoneum
181
Where does the Osteoma arise during Gardner Syndrome?
skull
182
What are the two characteristics of Turcot Syndrome?
FAP with CNS tumors
183
What are the two types of CNS tumors found in Turcot Syndrome?
medulloblastoma
glial tumors
184
What is the mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
autosomal dominant
185
What does Peutz-Jeghers syndrome produce in the GI tract?
Hamartomous Polyps
186
What three locations does Peutz-Jeghers produce hyperpigmentation?
lips, oral mucosa and genitals
187
What three cancers does a patient with Peutz-Jeghers have a higher risk of developing?
colorectal, breast and gynecological
188
What does microsatellite instability indicate?
defective DNA repair mechanisms
189
What are microsatellites?
repeating sequences of non-coding DNA
190
HNPCC is a result in a defect in what type of enzymes?
DNA mismatch repair enzymes
191
Patients with HNPCC have an increased risk for what three types of cancer?
colorectal, ovarian and endometrial
192
How does colorectal cancer arise in patients with HNPCC? From a polyp?
de novo
no
193
What are two ways to describe the appearance of a left sided carcinoma?
napkin ring
apple core sign
194
How does the stool look in a left sided carcinoma?
blood streaked stool
195
How does a right sided colon cancer usually present?
iron deficiency anemia
196
How does a right sided colonic carcinoma grow?
raised lesion
197
Colon cancer carries a risk to develop endocarditis of what strain?
Strep. bovis
198
Gastric cancer most oftenly invades what organ?
liver
199
What is the most common cause of Aphthous Ulcer?
stress
200
What does an Aphthous ulcer look like?
gray base surrouned by ring of erythema
201
What is the gray base of an Aphthous ulcer composed of?
granulation tissue
202
What is more suggestive of dysplasia, erythroplakia or leukoplakia?
erythroplakia
203
Where does a pleomorphic adenoma often arise?
angle of mandible
204
Lets say a parotid tumor was removed but kept coming back, what type of tumor could it by? Why?
pleomorphic adenoma
incomplete margins
205
What two cell types are found in a mucoepidermoid carcinoma?
mucinous and squamous
206
What salivary gland tumor most often involves the facial nerve?
pleomorphic adenoma
207
Esophageal webs are a protrusion of what part of the GI tract?
mucosa
208
What two esophageal issues arise during achalasia?
loss of esophageal motility
inability to relax LES
209
Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquids or both?
both
210
What type of hernia can produce bowel sounds in the lower lung fields?
paraesophageal
211
What are the two long-term complications of GERD?
ulceration with stricture
Barretts
212
What type of cancer could develop from Barretts esophagus?
adenocarcinoma
213
What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the lower third of the esophagus?
adenocarcinoma
214
What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the upper two thirds of the esophagus?
squamous
215
What type of dysphagia does esophageal carcinoma present with? What does this mean?
Progressive
liquids to solids
216
Does esophageal carcinoma present early or late?
late
217
Which type of esophageal carcinoma can irritate the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
squamous
218
Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?
no
219
Which GI disease can present with visible peristalsis?
pyloric stenosis
220
What is acute gastritis?
acidic damage to stomach
221
Why does a Curling ulcer happen?
poor blood flow doesnt remove enough acid
222
Why are most patients in ICU placed on PPIs?
shock can cause an ulcer
223
What are the two types of chronic gastritis?
autoimmune
H. pylori
224
What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells found?
fundus
body
225
Where in the stomach are the majority of G-cells located?
Antrum
226
Chronic autoimmune gastritis features antibodies against what two antigens?
parietal cells
intrinsic factor
227
Chronic gastritis can drive which type of cancer? Which type?
gastric adenocarcinoma
intestinal
228
Which form of gastric adenocarcinoma can H. pylori present with?
Intestinal
229
Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with H. pylori?
no
230
Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with metaplasia?
no
231
Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with nitrosamines?
no
232
Does gastric carcinoma present early or late ?
late
233
Though somewhat rare, where on the body can acanthosis nigricans present during gastric carcinoma?
axillary region
234
Would duodenal atresia has bilious or non-bilious vomiting?
bilious
235
What two sections of the GI tract become distended during duodenal atresia?
duodenum and stomach
236
What are the four ways that Meckels Diverticulum can present?
volvulus
intussusception
bleeding
obstructio (mimmics appendicitis)
237
What type of metaplastic cell can be found in Meckels Diverticulum? What can this lead to? Why?
gastric mucosa
bleeding
production of acid
238
Which layer of the GI tract is most susceptible to infarction during severe hypotension?
mucosa
239
What specific structure is destroyed during celiac disease?
Villi
240
What type of immune reaction is celiac disease?
hypersensitivity
241
What is THE MOST affected portion of the GI tract during celiac disease?
duodenum
242
What specific structure is destroyed during tropical sprue?
intestinal villi
243
What stain can be used to identify f Disease?
PAS
244
Other than GI symptoms, what other four symptoms can Whipple Disease produce?
arthritis, cardiac valve issues, lymph nodes and CNS
245
Is IBS more common in men or women?
women
246
What is produces continuous lesions, UC or Crohns?
UC
247
What involves the entire radius of the tube, UC or Crohns?
UC
248
What type of mucosa is seen during UC?
pseudopolyp
249
What are the two associated risks of UC developing into carcinoma?
length of colon involved
duration of involvement
250
What is the main complication of Crohns Disease?
Malabsorptive issues
251
What are the two extraintestinal complications of UC?
primary sclerosing cholangitis
p-ANCA positivity
252
What layer of the GI tract are affected by Crohns?
full thickness
253
What do the fissures look like in Crohns?
knife-like
254
Where is the least likely location of Crohns?
rectum
255
Which form of IBS can produce fistulas? Why?
Crohns
full thickness inflammation of wall
256
Which form of IBS presents with skeletal issues?
Crohns
257
Does smoking increase or decrease liklihood of Crohns?
increase
258
Which form of IBS can produce a stricture?
Crohns
259
What biopsy is used to Dx Hirschsprung disease?
rectal suction
260
What is the definition of a colonic diverticulum?
outpouching of mucosa and submucosa through muscularis propria
261
What is believed to be the cause of colonic diverticula?
wall stress
262
What part of the GI tract is where colonic diverticula most commonly arise?
sigmoid
263
What are the three most common consequences of developing a colonic diverticula?
hematochezia
diverticulitis
fistula
264
What is the definition for Colonic Angiodysplasia?
acquired defects in the capillary beds of the mucosal and submmucosal layers
265
How does angiodysplasia present?
hematochezia
266
WHat does high stress in the right colon produce?
Angiodysplasia
267
What does high stress in the left colon produce?
diverticula
268
What change may improve the symptoms of IBS?
increased fiber in diet
269
What GI diseases improves with defecation?
IBS
270
What is fibromatosis? Where usually?
non-neoplastic proliferation of fibroblasts
retroperitoneum
271
What type of growth is a juvenile polyp?
Hamartomous
272
In what two locations does juvenile polypsosis usually present?
stomach and colon
273
What is the prototypic disease involving microsatellite instability? What process is hereditarily defective?
HNPCC
DNA repair mechanisms
274
Does HNPCC give rise to tumors on the left side or right side?
right side
275
Is the adenoma-carcinoma cycle more prevalent on left side or right side?
left side
276
Is the right or left side associated with microsatellite instability?
right
277
What is the T-stage based on?
depth of invasion
278
What is the N-stage based on?
regional lymph node spread
279
What tumor marker does colonic carcinoma present with?
CEA
280
What is CEA useful for?
treatment response
281
What is CEA not useful for?
screening
282
Mumps can lead to sterility in what patient group?
teenagers
283
At the lower esophageal sphincter, where specific layer are the ganglion cells located?
between IC and OL
284
What two tests confirm eradication of H. pylori infection?
negative urea breath test
negative stool antigen
285
What two signs of gastric carcinoma may be evident on physical examination?
Leser Trelat
Acanthosis
286
If a patient doesnt have IgA against gliadin does this mean they dont have celiac disease? Why?
no
might be IgG. IgA deficiency is more common in celiac patients
287
What are the three histological findings of celiac disease?
flattening of villi
hyperplasia of crypts
intraepithelial lymphocytes
288
What layer of the GI tract does a carcinoid tumor grow in?
submucosal
289
Which IBS can present with skin issues? What are the two issues?
Crohns
Erythema nodosum and proderma gangrenosum
290
Can one tell the difference between an adenomatous polyp and hyperplastic polyp on colonoscopy?
no
291
During FAP, are the polyps hyperplastic of adenomatous?
adenomatous
292
What kind of dysplasia is oral Leukoplakia?
squamous dysplasia
293
Between which two layers of the GI tract are the ganglion cells located?
inner circular and outer longitudinal
294
Which type of Hypersensitivity is Chronic Autoimmune Gastritis?
four
295
B48 is required for which lipid carrying molecule?
chylomicron
296
B100 is required for which two lipid carrying molecules?
VLDL and LDL
297
In a carcinoid heart, what molecule is present in the areas of fibrosis?
collagen
298
Does UC have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?
bloody
299
Does Crohns have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?
non-bloody
300
What is more suggestive of squamous cell dysplasia, leukoplakia or erythroplakia?
erythroplakia
301
Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?
no
302
Which prostaglandin promotes mucus secretion in the stomach?
PGE2
303
Ulcerative colitis progressing into carcinoma depends on what two factors?
extent of colon involved
length of disease
304
Is p-ANCA associated with UC or Crohns?
UC
305
Does Smoking protect or contribute to UC?
protect
306
Does Smoking protect or contribute to Crohns?
contribute
307
What is the only way Crohns can cause carcinoma?
colonic involvement
308
What disease is PUEA associated with?
Crohns
309
What does PUEA stand for?
pyoderma gangrenosum
uveitis
erythema nodosum
arthritis
310
How does Angiodysplasia present?
hematiochezia
311
What dietary modification can improve Irritable Bowel Syndrome?
increased fiber intake
312
What is the appearance of a Hyperplastic Colonic Polyp on microscopy?
'serrated'
313
What gene is deleted during Familial Adenomatous Polyposis?
APC
