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Flashcards in GI Pathology Deck (313)
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1
Q

What is the main reason of a cleft palate to form?

A

failure of facial prominences to fold

2
Q

What is an aphthous ulcer?

A

painful, ulceration of oral mucosa

3
Q

What causes Behcet Syndorme?

A

immune complex vasculitis

4
Q

Begcet Syndrome is seen after what type of infection?

A

viral

5
Q

What are the three areas are effected by Behcet Syndrome?

A

aphthous ulcer, genital ulcers, uveitis

6
Q

Which HSV isotype causes oral herpes?

A

one

7
Q

Where does oral herpes remaini dormant?

A

ganglia of trigeminal nerve

8
Q

What are the two precursor lesions for squamous cell carcinoma (squamous cell dysplasia)?

A

leukoplakia and erythroplakia

9
Q

What are the two common risk factors for developing a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

tobacco and alcohol

10
Q

Does squamous cell carcinoma effect the floor or the roof of the mouth?

A

floor

11
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia is indicative of what type of cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

12
Q

Where on the tongue does oral hairy leukoplakia arise?

A

lateral side of the tongue

13
Q

In immunocompromised patients, what virus can drive oral hairy leukoplakia? What type of cellular change is this?

A

EBV

hyperplasia of squamous cells

14
Q

What gland does mumps infect?

A

parotid, bilateral

15
Q

What are three other presentations that may accompany a mumps infection?

A

orchitis, pancreatitis, aseptic meningitis

16
Q

What enzyme can be elevated due to mumps? What two glands could be responsible for this?

A

amylase

parotid or pancreas

17
Q

What is inflammation of the salivary gland caused?

A

sialadenitis

18
Q

What bacteria can often infect an obstructed salivary gland?

A

S. aureus

19
Q

What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

20
Q

Is a pleomorphic adenoma benign or malignant?

A

benign

21
Q

What two types of tissue makes up a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

stromal and epithelial

22
Q

In what gland does a pleomorphic adenoma most often arise?

A

parotid

23
Q

How would one know that a pleomorphic adenoma is transforming into a carcinoma?

A

facial nerve damage

24
Q

What gland does a warthin tumor arise?

A

parotid

25
Q

Are Warthins tumors benign or cystic?

A

benign

26
Q

Warthins tumors are filled with what two constituents?

A

lymphocytes

germinal center

27
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

28
Q

What gland does a mucoepidermoid tumor most often arise?

A

parotid

29
Q

What is the most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

atresia of proximal esophagus

distal esopagus arising from trachea

30
Q

What constellation of symptoms does a tracheoesophageal fistula present with?

A

polyhydramnios

vomiting

abdominal distension

aspiration

31
Q

Does an esophageal web arise in the upper of lower part of the esophagus?

A

upper

32
Q

Does an esophageal web carry an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

33
Q

What is a Zenker Diverticulum? Acquired or congenital?

A

outpouching of pharyngeal mucosa

acquired

34
Q

Is a Zenker DIverticulum a true or false diverticulum?

A

false

35
Q

What exact location does a Zenker Diverticulum arise?

A

junction of esophagus and pharynx

36
Q

What are the two common presentations with a Zenker-Diverticulum?

A

dysphagia and halitosis

37
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss Synrome?

A

gastro-esophageal laceration

38
Q

What causes Mallory-Weiss Synrome? Why?

A

severe vomiting

alcoholism or bulimia

39
Q

Does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome present with painful or painless hematemesis?

A

painful hematemesis

40
Q

What condition does Mallory-Weiss Syndrome have an increased risk of presenting with?

A

Boerhaave Syndrome

41
Q

What is Boerhaave Syndrome? What can Boerhaave Syndrome result in?

A

esophageal rupture leading to air trapped in the mediastinum

subcutaneous emphysema

42
Q

What vein normally drains the distal esophagus?

A

left gastric

43
Q

How does esophageal varices clasically present?

A

PAINLESS hematemesis

44
Q

What is the most common cause of death in liver cirrhosis?

A

esophageal varices rupture

45
Q

What type of cell is damaged during achalasia? Which plexus?

A

ganglion

myenteric

46
Q

What specific parasite can damage the myenteric plexus? What disease? What cells?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

Chagas

ganglion

47
Q

Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquid or both?

A

both

48
Q

What is the characteristic sign of achalasia?

A

Birds beak

49
Q

Does achalasia cause an increased risk of developing from squamous cell or adenocarcinoma?

A

squamous cell

50
Q

New onset asthma as an adult is indicative of what disease?

A

GERD

51
Q

What is the exact metaplasia of Barrett’s esoophagus?

A

stratified squamous epithelium to nonciliated columnar with goblet cells

52
Q

What type of cancer can Barrett’s esophagus progress to?

A

adenocarcinoma

53
Q

Does esophageal cancer present late or early? What does this mean?

A

late

poor prognosis

54
Q

What type of dysphagia does esophageal cancer present with?

A

progressive (liquids to solids)

55
Q

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

A

cervical

56
Q

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the middle 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

A

mediastinal or tracheobronchial

57
Q

Which lymph nodes would cancer from the upper 1/3 of the esophagus drain into?

A

celiac and gastric

58
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

congenital malformation leading to exposure of abdominal contents

59
Q

Is gastroschisis covered by peritoneum?

A

no

60
Q

What is omphalocele covered by?

A

by peritoneum and amnion

61
Q

Is pyloric stenosis more common in males or females?

A

males

62
Q

Clasically, how long after birth does pyloric stenosis present?

A

two weeks

63
Q

What type of vomiting does pyloric stenosis present with?

A

non-bilious

64
Q

What type of cells produce mucin in the stomach?

A

foveolar cells

65
Q

What type of gastric ulcer will develop after a severe burn?

A

Curling ulcer

66
Q

What type of ulcer arises due to increased intracranial pressure? Why?

A

Cushing

increased vagal tone leads to increased acid secretion

67
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A

wide pulse pressure

bradycardia

irregular respiration

68
Q

What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells located?

A

fundus and body

69
Q

What type of gastric adenocarcinoma does H. pylori cause?

A

intestinal

70
Q

Achlorhydria due to gastric chronic gastric inflammation present with what two symtoms?

A

increased gastrin levels

G-cell hyperplasia

71
Q

What is the most common site of H. pylori infection in the stomach?

A

antrum

72
Q

What two types of cancer does chronic H. pylori infection present with?

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

MALT Lymphoma

73
Q

What is the reason for almost all duodenal ulcers? What else is a less common but possible cause?

A

H. pylori

ZE syndrome

74
Q

What is the classic presentation for a duodenal ulcer?

A

epigastric pain that improves with meals

75
Q

What gland hypertrophies during a duodenal ulcer?

A

Brunner glands

76
Q

Are duodenal ulcer more common in the anterior or posterior portion of the duodenum?

A

anteior

77
Q

What two things can happen if a duodenal ulcer is in the posterior portion of the duodenum?

A

eat away at gastroduodenal artery

acute pancreatitis

78
Q

What is the classic presentation for a gastric ulcer?

A

pain the worsens with meals

79
Q

Where are gastric ulcers most commonly located?

A

lesser curvature of the antrum

80
Q

Rupture of an ulcer in the lesser curvature of the antrum can lead to increased bleeding from what vessel?

A

left gastric

81
Q

Are duodenal ulcer commonly malignant or benign?

A

almost never malignant

82
Q

What type of cancer is gastric cancer most commonly?

A

adenocarcinoma

83
Q

What type of gastric carcinoma is more common, intestinal or mucosal type?

A

intestinal

84
Q

Where does the intestinal type of gastric carcinoma normally arise?

A

lesser curvature of antrum

85
Q

What type of cell is found in a diffuse gastric carcinoma?

A

signet ring cells

86
Q

What do signet ring cell do to the gastric wall? What two things is this called?

A

thicken it

linitis plastica and desmoplasia

87
Q

Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with nitrosamines? Where are nitrosamines found? What country?

A

intestinal

smoked food

Japan

88
Q

Which form of gastric carcinoma is associated with H. pylori infection?

A

intestinal

89
Q

Which blood type is associated with Intestinal Gastric Carcinoma?

A

Blood A

90
Q

Which lymph nodes does gastric carcinoma spread to?

A

Virchows

91
Q

What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

A

gastric carcinoma invading periumbilical region

92
Q

Which type of gastric carcinoma can produce a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

A

intestinal type

93
Q

Where does gastric carcinoma most commonly metastisize?

A

liver

94
Q

Where does a Krukenberg tumor metastisize? Is this associated with intestinal or diffuse type of gastric carcinoma?

A

bilateral ovaries

diffuse

95
Q

What type of intestinal carcinoma metastisizes to the ovaries?

A

diffuse

96
Q

What condition is duodenal atresia associated with?

A

Downs Syndrome

97
Q

What feature would suggest duodenal atresia in utero?

A

polyhydramnios

98
Q

What sign does duodenal atresia produce on Xray?

A

double bubble

99
Q

Is Meckel’s a true or false diverticulum? What makes it this way?

A

true

outpouching of all three layers

100
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum results in a failure of what duct to retract fully? What is another name for this duct?

A

Omphalomesenteric

Vitelline

101
Q

What are the four ‘twos’ of Meckels Diverticulum?

A

two years old

two inches long

two percent of population

two feet from ileocecal valve

102
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

twisting of bowel along the mesentery

103
Q

What does a volvulus result in?

A

infarction

104
Q

Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the elderly?

A

sigmoid

105
Q

Where does a volvulus commonly arise in the young?

A

cecum

106
Q

What is intussusception?

A

when a proximal portion of the bowel telescopes into a forward part

107
Q

What pulls the telescoped section forward during intussusception? What does this result in?

A

peristalsis

infarction

108
Q

In children what is the most common cause of intussusception? What cause this?

A

lymphoid hyperplasia

rotavirus

109
Q

What section of the GI tract are involved with the most common cause of intussesception?

A

ileum into cecum

110
Q

What is the most common cause of intussesception in adults?

A

tumor

111
Q

What does the stool look like in intussusception?

A

red currant jelly

112
Q

What two HLA haplotypes are associated with Celiac Disease?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

113
Q

What is the most potent component of gluten?

A

gliadin

114
Q

What sort of enzymatic processing happens to gliadin? What enzyme?

A

Deamidation

tissue transglutaminase

115
Q

Which MHC molecule presents gliadin?

A

MHC II

116
Q

What skin lesion can form from celiac disease?

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

117
Q

What specific structure of the skin is involved in dermatitis herpetiformis? Which immunogloulin?

A

dermal papillae

IgA

118
Q

What three proteins have antibodies against them in celiac disease? Which immunoglobulin?

A

gliadin, endomysium and tTP

IgA

119
Q

What section of the GI tract is most severly effected by celiac disease?

A

Duodenum

120
Q

What two cancers can arise due to long-term celiac disease?

A

small bowel carcinoma

T-cell lymphoma

121
Q

What two sections of the GI tract are most affected by tropical sprue?

A

jejunum and ileum

122
Q

When does tropical sprue arise? What does tropical sprue respond to?

A

after diarrhea

antibiotics

123
Q

What species causes Whipple Disease?

A

Tropheryma whippeli

124
Q

What cell gets infected during Whipple disease?

A

macrophages

125
Q

Where is the classic layer of involvement of Whipple Disease?

A

small bowel lamina propria

126
Q

Why does Whipple Disease present with Steatorrhea?

A

swollen macrophages compress lacteals and fat cant be absorbed through lymphatics

127
Q

What occupation type most often presents with Whipple Disease?

A

Farmers

128
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia presents with deficiency in what two proteins?

A

B48 and B100

129
Q

What type of cells give rise to a carcinoid tumor?

A

neuroendocrine

130
Q

Since a carcinoid tumor arise from neuroendocrine cells. what would be the IHC stain?

A

Chromogranin

131
Q

Where is the most common site for a carcinoid tumor?

A

small bowel

132
Q

What hormone is often released by carcinoid tumors?

A

serotonin

133
Q

In a carcinoid tumor, what metabolite will be found in the urine?

A

5-HIAA

134
Q

Where does a carcinoid tumor have to metastisize to in order to produce symptoms?

A

liver

135
Q

What are the three symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?

A

flushing

diarrhea

bronchospasm

136
Q

What two factors often precipitate carcinoid syndrome?

A

alcohol and emotional stress

137
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome causing heart disease characterized by? What is deposited?

A

right sided valvular fibrosis

collagen

138
Q

What two valvular issues does carcinoid heart lead to?

A

tricuspid regurgitation

pulmonary valve stenosis

139
Q

Why does carcinoid syndrome not cause left heart failure?

A

presence of MAO in lung

140
Q

What obstructs the appendix in children?

A

lymphoid hyperplasia

141
Q

What obstructs the appendix in adults?

A

fecalith

142
Q

What two populations have the highest incidence of IBS?

A

caucasians

eastern european jews

143
Q

What two parts of the GI tract are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?

A

rectum and distal sigmoid

144
Q

What other disease is Hirschprung disease highly associated with?

A

Down Syndrome

145
Q

What two plexuses are most affected by Hirschsprung Disease?

A

Myenteric

Submucosal

146
Q

What type of cells fail to migrate in Hirschprung disease? What structure are these cells derived from?

A

ganglion

neural crest

147
Q

Which layers of the GI tract are involved in UC?

A

mucosal and submucosal

148
Q

Which layers of the GI tract are involved in Chrons?

A

all layers

149
Q

Where does UC always begin? Where can UC progress to?

A

rectum

cecum

150
Q

Where is the most common site for Crohns to arise?

A

terminal ileum

151
Q

Would UC or crohns present with LLQ pain?

A

UC

152
Q

Would UC or crohns present with RLQ pain?

A

Crohns

153
Q

What is the key inflammatory structure of UC? What cell type?

A

Crypt abscess

Neutrophils

154
Q

What is the inflammatory structure of Crohns? What cell type?

A

Lymphoid aggregates

Granulomas

155
Q

What is lost during UC? What radiological sign would this present with?

A

Haustra

lead pipe sign

156
Q

What does the bowel mucosa look like during Crohns? How would this appear on radiology?

A

Cobble stone

String sign

157
Q

What are the two complications of Ulcerative Colitis?

A

toxic megacolon

carcinoma

158
Q

Which IBS disease can present with kidney stones? What type of stone? Why?

A

Crohns

calcium oxalate

Crohns increases oxalate absorption

159
Q

What is p-ANCA?

A

perinuclear Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody

160
Q

What two layers of the GI tract out pouch during a colonic diverticula?

A

mucosa and submucosa

161
Q

What specific location do colonic diverticula arise?

A

where vasa recta traverse muscularis propria

162
Q

Which form of IBS does smoking protect against?

A

UC

163
Q

What two locations does angiodysplasia often arise?

A

cecum and ascending colon

164
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for hereditary telangiectasia?

A

autosomal dominant

165
Q

Where are the two most common locations for hereditary telangiectasia?

A

mouth and GI tract

166
Q

What is the most common location for Ischemic Colitis? Why?

A

splenic flexure

watershed of SMA/IMA

167
Q

What is the most classic presentation of Ischemic Colitis? Why?

A

post-prandial pain

increased energy require of colon exacerbates oxygen deficiency

168
Q

What layer of the GI tract is raised in a polyp?

A

mucosa

169
Q

What structure undergoes hyperplasia to give rise to a hyperplastic polyp?

A

hyperplasia of glands

170
Q

At what junction do colonic polyps most commonly arise?

A

sigmo-rectal junction

171
Q

What gives rise to a adenomatous polyp?

A

neoplastic proliferation of glands

172
Q

What chromosome is APC on?

A

five

173
Q

What mutation (not APC) is implicated in the formation of a polyp?

A

k-Ras

174
Q

A mutation in what gene and increased expression of what gene contribute to the adenoma-carcinoma cycle?

A

p53 = mutated

COX = over-expressed

175
Q

What drug can impede the progression from a colonic adenoma to a carcinoma?

A

aspirin

176
Q

What are the three risks of polyps that can contribute to their pathogenicity?

A

greater than 2cm

sessile growth

villious histology

177
Q

What does sessile growth mean?

A

grows off colonic wall w/o a stalk

178
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for FAP?

A

autosomal dominant

179
Q

What is Gardner Syndrome?

A

FAP with fibromatosis and osteomas

180
Q

Where does the fibromatosis of Gardner Syndrome arise?

A

retroperitoneum

181
Q

Where does the Osteoma arise during Gardner Syndrome?

A

skull

182
Q

What are the two characteristics of Turcot Syndrome?

A

FAP with CNS tumors

183
Q

What are the two types of CNS tumors found in Turcot Syndrome?

A

medulloblastoma

glial tumors

184
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant

185
Q

What does Peutz-Jeghers syndrome produce in the GI tract?

A

Hamartomous Polyps

186
Q

What three locations does Peutz-Jeghers produce hyperpigmentation?

A

lips, oral mucosa and genitals

187
Q

What three cancers does a patient with Peutz-Jeghers have a higher risk of developing?

A

colorectal, breast and gynecological

188
Q

What does microsatellite instability indicate?

A

defective DNA repair mechanisms

189
Q

What are microsatellites?

A

repeating sequences of non-coding DNA

190
Q

HNPCC is a result in a defect in what type of enzymes?

A

DNA mismatch repair enzymes

191
Q

Patients with HNPCC have an increased risk for what three types of cancer?

A

colorectal, ovarian and endometrial

192
Q

How does colorectal cancer arise in patients with HNPCC? From a polyp?

A

de novo

no

193
Q

What are two ways to describe the appearance of a left sided carcinoma?

A

napkin ring

apple core sign

194
Q

How does the stool look in a left sided carcinoma?

A

blood streaked stool

195
Q

How does a right sided colon cancer usually present?

A

iron deficiency anemia

196
Q

How does a right sided colonic carcinoma grow?

A

raised lesion

197
Q

Colon cancer carries a risk to develop endocarditis of what strain?

A

Strep. bovis

198
Q

Gastric cancer most oftenly invades what organ?

A

liver

199
Q

What is the most common cause of Aphthous Ulcer?

A

stress

200
Q

What does an Aphthous ulcer look like?

A

gray base surrouned by ring of erythema

201
Q

What is the gray base of an Aphthous ulcer composed of?

A

granulation tissue

202
Q

What is more suggestive of dysplasia, erythroplakia or leukoplakia?

A

erythroplakia

203
Q

Where does a pleomorphic adenoma often arise?

A

angle of mandible

204
Q

Lets say a parotid tumor was removed but kept coming back, what type of tumor could it by? Why?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

incomplete margins

205
Q

What two cell types are found in a mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

A

mucinous and squamous

206
Q

What salivary gland tumor most often involves the facial nerve?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

207
Q

Esophageal webs are a protrusion of what part of the GI tract?

A

mucosa

208
Q

What two esophageal issues arise during achalasia?

A

loss of esophageal motility

inability to relax LES

209
Q

Does achalasia present with dysphagia for solids, liquids or both?

A

both

210
Q

What type of hernia can produce bowel sounds in the lower lung fields?

A

paraesophageal

211
Q

What are the two long-term complications of GERD?

A

ulceration with stricture

Barretts

212
Q

What type of cancer could develop from Barretts esophagus?

A

adenocarcinoma

213
Q

What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the lower third of the esophagus?

A

adenocarcinoma

214
Q

What type of esophageal cancer would arise in the upper two thirds of the esophagus?

A

squamous

215
Q

What type of dysphagia does esophageal carcinoma present with? What does this mean?

A

Progressive

liquids to solids

216
Q

Does esophageal carcinoma present early or late?

A

late

217
Q

Which type of esophageal carcinoma can irritate the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

squamous

218
Q

Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?

A

no

219
Q

Which GI disease can present with visible peristalsis?

A

pyloric stenosis

220
Q

What is acute gastritis?

A

acidic damage to stomach

221
Q

Why does a Curling ulcer happen?

A

poor blood flow doesnt remove enough acid

222
Q

Why are most patients in ICU placed on PPIs?

A

shock can cause an ulcer

223
Q

What are the two types of chronic gastritis?

A

autoimmune

H. pylori

224
Q

What two parts of the stomach are parietal cells found?

A

fundus

body

225
Q

Where in the stomach are the majority of G-cells located?

A

Antrum

226
Q

Chronic autoimmune gastritis features antibodies against what two antigens?

A

parietal cells

intrinsic factor

227
Q

Chronic gastritis can drive which type of cancer? Which type?

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

intestinal

228
Q

Which form of gastric adenocarcinoma can H. pylori present with?

A

Intestinal

229
Q

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with H. pylori?

A

no

230
Q

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with metaplasia?

A

no

231
Q

Is diffuse type gastric carcinoma associated with nitrosamines?

A

no

232
Q

Does gastric carcinoma present early or late ?

A

late

233
Q

Though somewhat rare, where on the body can acanthosis nigricans present during gastric carcinoma?

A

axillary region

234
Q

Would duodenal atresia has bilious or non-bilious vomiting?

A

bilious

235
Q

What two sections of the GI tract become distended during duodenal atresia?

A

duodenum and stomach

236
Q

What are the four ways that Meckels Diverticulum can present?

A

volvulus

intussusception

bleeding

obstructio (mimmics appendicitis)

237
Q

What type of metaplastic cell can be found in Meckels Diverticulum? What can this lead to? Why?

A

gastric mucosa

bleeding

production of acid

238
Q

Which layer of the GI tract is most susceptible to infarction during severe hypotension?

A

mucosa

239
Q

What specific structure is destroyed during celiac disease?

A

Villi

240
Q

What type of immune reaction is celiac disease?

A

hypersensitivity

241
Q

What is THE MOST affected portion of the GI tract during celiac disease?

A

duodenum

242
Q

What specific structure is destroyed during tropical sprue?

A

intestinal villi

243
Q

What stain can be used to identify f Disease?

A

PAS

244
Q

Other than GI symptoms, what other four symptoms can Whipple Disease produce?

A

arthritis, cardiac valve issues, lymph nodes and CNS

245
Q

Is IBS more common in men or women?

A

women

246
Q

What is produces continuous lesions, UC or Crohns?

A

UC

247
Q

What involves the entire radius of the tube, UC or Crohns?

A

UC

248
Q

What type of mucosa is seen during UC?

A

pseudopolyp

249
Q

What are the two associated risks of UC developing into carcinoma?

A

length of colon involved

duration of involvement

250
Q

What is the main complication of Crohns Disease?

A

Malabsorptive issues

251
Q

What are the two extraintestinal complications of UC?

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

p-ANCA positivity

252
Q

What layer of the GI tract are affected by Crohns?

A

full thickness

253
Q

What do the fissures look like in Crohns?

A

knife-like

254
Q

Where is the least likely location of Crohns?

A

rectum

255
Q

Which form of IBS can produce fistulas? Why?

A

Crohns

full thickness inflammation of wall

256
Q

Which form of IBS presents with skeletal issues?

A

Crohns

257
Q

Does smoking increase or decrease liklihood of Crohns?

A

increase

258
Q

Which form of IBS can produce a stricture?

A

Crohns

259
Q

What biopsy is used to Dx Hirschsprung disease?

A

rectal suction

260
Q

What is the definition of a colonic diverticulum?

A

outpouching of mucosa and submucosa through muscularis propria

261
Q

What is believed to be the cause of colonic diverticula?

A

wall stress

262
Q

What part of the GI tract is where colonic diverticula most commonly arise?

A

sigmoid

263
Q

What are the three most common consequences of developing a colonic diverticula?

A

hematochezia

diverticulitis

fistula

264
Q

What is the definition for Colonic Angiodysplasia?

A

acquired defects in the capillary beds of the mucosal and submmucosal layers

265
Q

How does angiodysplasia present?

A

hematochezia

266
Q

WHat does high stress in the right colon produce?

A

Angiodysplasia

267
Q

What does high stress in the left colon produce?

A

diverticula

268
Q

What change may improve the symptoms of IBS?

A

increased fiber in diet

269
Q

What GI diseases improves with defecation?

A

IBS

270
Q

What is fibromatosis? Where usually?

A

non-neoplastic proliferation of fibroblasts

retroperitoneum

271
Q

What type of growth is a juvenile polyp?

A

Hamartomous

272
Q

In what two locations does juvenile polypsosis usually present?

A

stomach and colon

273
Q

What is the prototypic disease involving microsatellite instability? What process is hereditarily defective?

A

HNPCC

DNA repair mechanisms

274
Q

Does HNPCC give rise to tumors on the left side or right side?

A

right side

275
Q

Is the adenoma-carcinoma cycle more prevalent on left side or right side?

A

left side

276
Q

Is the right or left side associated with microsatellite instability?

A

right

277
Q

What is the T-stage based on?

A

depth of invasion

278
Q

What is the N-stage based on?

A

regional lymph node spread

279
Q

What tumor marker does colonic carcinoma present with?

A

CEA

280
Q

What is CEA useful for?

A

treatment response

281
Q

What is CEA not useful for?

A

screening

282
Q

Mumps can lead to sterility in what patient group?

A

teenagers

283
Q

At the lower esophageal sphincter, where specific layer are the ganglion cells located?

A

between IC and OL

284
Q

What two tests confirm eradication of H. pylori infection?

A

negative urea breath test

negative stool antigen

285
Q

What two signs of gastric carcinoma may be evident on physical examination?

A

Leser Trelat

Acanthosis

286
Q

If a patient doesnt have IgA against gliadin does this mean they dont have celiac disease? Why?

A

no

might be IgG. IgA deficiency is more common in celiac patients

287
Q

What are the three histological findings of celiac disease?

A

flattening of villi

hyperplasia of crypts

intraepithelial lymphocytes

288
Q

What layer of the GI tract does a carcinoid tumor grow in?

A

submucosal

289
Q

Which IBS can present with skin issues? What are the two issues?

A

Crohns

Erythema nodosum and proderma gangrenosum

290
Q

Can one tell the difference between an adenomatous polyp and hyperplastic polyp on colonoscopy?

A

no

291
Q

During FAP, are the polyps hyperplastic of adenomatous?

A

adenomatous

292
Q

What kind of dysplasia is oral Leukoplakia?

A

squamous dysplasia

293
Q

Between which two layers of the GI tract are the ganglion cells located?

A

inner circular and outer longitudinal

294
Q

Which type of Hypersensitivity is Chronic Autoimmune Gastritis?

A

four

295
Q

B48 is required for which lipid carrying molecule?

A

chylomicron

296
Q

B100 is required for which two lipid carrying molecules?

A

VLDL and LDL

297
Q

In a carcinoid heart, what molecule is present in the areas of fibrosis?

A

collagen

298
Q

Does UC have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

A

bloody

299
Q

Does Crohns have bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

A

non-bloody

300
Q

What is more suggestive of squamous cell dysplasia, leukoplakia or erythroplakia?

A

erythroplakia

301
Q

Is pyloric stenosis present at birth?

A

no

302
Q

Which prostaglandin promotes mucus secretion in the stomach?

A

PGE2

303
Q

Ulcerative colitis progressing into carcinoma depends on what two factors?

A

extent of colon involved

length of disease

304
Q

Is p-ANCA associated with UC or Crohns?

A

UC

305
Q

Does Smoking protect or contribute to UC?

A

protect

306
Q

Does Smoking protect or contribute to Crohns?

A

contribute

307
Q

What is the only way Crohns can cause carcinoma?

A

colonic involvement

308
Q

What disease is PUEA associated with?

A

Crohns

309
Q

What does PUEA stand for?

A

pyoderma gangrenosum

uveitis

erythema nodosum

arthritis

310
Q

How does Angiodysplasia present?

A

hematiochezia

311
Q

What dietary modification can improve Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

A

increased fiber intake

312
Q

What is the appearance of a Hyperplastic Colonic Polyp on microscopy?

A

‘serrated’

313
Q

What gene is deleted during Familial Adenomatous Polyposis?

A

APC