Haematology Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

What is Haemophilia A? What are the sub-categories?

A

Factor VIII Deficiency

Mild - surgical bleeding

Moderate - minor trauma bleeding

Severe: - spontaneous bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is haemophilia A transmitted?

A

X-linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does Von Williebrand disease present?

How is it transferred?

A

Mucosal Surface bleeding

Heavy periods

Woulds bleed heavily

*autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What other factor will be low in Von Williebrand disease, and why?

A

Factor VIII - it prolongs the half life of the factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name two severe platelet disorders and the underlying pathology:

How are these transferred?

A

Glansmanns Thrombasthemia:
- lack GP IIb/ IIIa

Bernard Soulier Syndrome:
- lack GPIb/ V/ IX

*autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In Lupus Anti-coagulant disease, what would you expect to see on tests, and how does this correlate to in the body?

A

Increased APTT time

Paradoxically increased thrombus formation in the body.

DRVVT pre-longed. fixed with excess phosoplipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathology of Lupus causing increased APTT?

A

Antiphospholipid antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much Fe2+ is in the R.E.S?

A

200-500mg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What disease may skew the serum ferritin results and why?

A

Inflammatory disease such as RA.

Because Serum ferritin is a inflammatory protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What “other” symptoms may be present in iron deficient anemia?

A

Koilonychia

Atrophic Glossitis

Angular Stomatitis

Oesophageal web

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If 200mg of ferrous sulphate is given, what is the elemental amount of iron absorbed?

A

60mg - 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why do people develop anaemia in pro-longed inflamamtion/ disease?

A

prolonged inflammation increases Hepcidin.
this reduces absorption and release from R.E.S

ILs released from inflammation may also shut down marrow activity.

EPO is also supressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In anaemia of chronic disease, what different lab findings would you have to iron deficient anaemia?

A

ESR will be raised

Ferritin levels will be raised

Total iron levels will be reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What receptors do B12 bind with in the gut and where are these predominantly found?

A

Cubulin

in the ileum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is B12 transported in the blood?

A

Transcobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some symptoms of B12 deficiency?

A

Anaemic symptoms

Mild jaundice - ineffective RBC production

Neurological disturbances - especially the posterior pyramidal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In megoblastic anaemia, what do the blood cells look like?

A

Macrocyctic

Very Red

HIgh MVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What chromosome is globin A made on?

A

Chromosome 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What chromsome is Globin B, Gamma and delta made on?

A

Chromosome 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many genes code for Alpha globin?

A

4 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If there is 1 gene missing from Alpha globin, what is the disease state?

A

Alpha thalassemia trait - mild microcytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If the person has 2 gene missing for alpha globin, what is the disease state?

A

Alpha Thalasemia minor

  • microcytosis
  • Low MVC
  • increased red count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If there is 3 genes missing from alpha globin, what is disease state?

A

Hb Disease

  • leads to haemolysis in spleen due to bizzare shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is it called when there is 4 genes missing from alpha genes?

A

Barts Hb.

incompatible with life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is beta thalassaemia major?
both genes for beta globin missing. Symptoms appear after fetal globin is gone. Extra-medullary areas try and produce RBCs - especially skull
26
What is another complication of Beta thalassaemia?
Haemochromotosis - hepcidin is reduced in order to try and increased Fe2+ levels.
27
What is the genetic mutation in sickle cell disease?
Non conservative single base pair change to the Beta globulin chain. - thus affects children >6 months glutamie to valine.
28
What are some serious complication of sickle cell disease?
Vaso-occlusion - tissue hypoxia - stroke - infarction
29
What disease causing changes in the membrane leading to sphere like appearance and what is the protein defective?
Hereditary spherocytosis. Spectrin
30
What is the outcome of Hereditary spherocytosis?
haemolysis in the spleen. RBCs unable to fit through mesh.
31
What disease leads to RBCs being unable to cope with oxidative tress?
Glucose - 6 - Phosphate DEhydrogenase Deficiency. lack of Glutathione
32
What immunoglobulin is indicating in warm type haemolytic anaemia?
IgG
33
What immunoglobulin is indicated in cold type haemolytic anemia?
IgM
34
What is the initial treatment for warm haemolytic anaemia?
Steroids blood transfusion is patient is gravely ill and can't wait for steroids to work Splenectomy
35
What is the name of Glandular fever? and what virus causes it?
Infectious mononucleosis Epstein Barr virus
36
What two important LFT may be elevated in haemolysis of RBCs?
Bilirubin Lactate dehydrogenase
37
In Immunothrombocytopenia would you expect to see an enlarged spleen?
No - the platelets are too small
38
Can amoxicillin be given for Glandular fever?
No. causes bad rash. if antibiotics are needed then only Penicillin B
39
What factors are used up in Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?
Platelets
40
If the spleen is removed, what kind of RBCs may be seen that still contain their DNA?
Howell Jolly Body cells
41
Which disease is much more severe when the spleen is removed?
Malaria
42
If a person has sphere shaped RBCs and a coombes test is performed and it comes back negative, what does this mean?
means they don't have auto immune disease and that their sphere shaped cells is due to autosomal dominant sphereocytosis
43
What blood disease is associated with other autoimmune disease, and will cause CNS dysfunction?
Pernicious anemia
44
What is a paediatric vasculitis that causes strange rash formation?
Henoch Scholien
45
If there is a purpuric rash, what type of meningitis can this be a symptom off?
meningococcal sepsis
46
Thombophilia Inherited affects what? and how is it inherited?
Anti-thrombin Protein C Protein S Autosomal dominant
47
How is Beta thalaseamia inherited?
Autosomal recessive
48
Who is most likely to inherit Spherocytosis?
Northern Europeans - autosomal dominant
49
How is G-6-PD inherited and who is most likely to get it?
X-linked. Africans.
50
What activates protein C and protein S, and what does it need to bind with to be activated?
thrombo-modulin. Needs to be bound to IIa
51
What infections are of particular concern when a person has their spleen removed and how is this managed?
Nisseria Meningitis Haemophilus Influenza strep pneumonia Treated with prophylactic amoxicillin for life and vaccinations
52
What disease may Heinz bodies and bite cells be seen?
Glucose - 6 - dehydrogenase deficiency
53
What is something you must always ask a Sickle Cell patient?
Have they got chest pain, or cough. thinking about acute chest syndrome
54
What kind of haemolysis is sickle cell disease?
Intravascular
55
Where is an aspirate of bone marrow taken from?
Iliac Crest
56
Whats it called when CO2 dissolves into the RBC?
Chloride Shift
57
How do the macrophages of the RES get iron?
Break down of old RBCs
58
How much is each mmol of Ferritin inequivalent too of iron stores?
1mmol/L = 8mg of Iron
59
What is it called where there is a reduction in the RES Iron stores, but the bone marrow maintains a normocytic anaemia by using what there is?
Latent Iron Deficiency - 20% of females have this Low ferritin but normalcyctic cells
60
Whats the most common anaemia in hospital patients?
Anaemia of chronic disease
61
Generally speaking what does roulex in the RBCs mean?
High ESR but can be associated with myeloma
62
What are the key roles of B12?
Methylation of homocysteine to methionine Methylone isomerization of CoA
63
What skin conditions may need increase folate and B12 intake?
Psoriasis
64
If you have petechia, what is this suggestive off?
Small capillary bursts with platelet disorders
65
How do you treat platelet disorders?
Platelets transfusion - HLA matched Tranexamic Acid
66
What may someone have if they continually get DVTs?
Thrombophilia Deficiencies: Antithrombin *most common Protein C Protein S
67
Name the types of warm haemolytic anaemia, and the management of this:
Primary - idiopathic Secondary - acquired. SLE, CCL, Non-hodgkin lymphoma Steroids Blood transfusion - those that can't wait for steroids to work Folic Acid Splenectomy - S. Pneumoniae - H. Influ - N. Meningitis
68
What your investigations into Anaemia?
FBC Blood Film Iron Ferritin Transferrin/ TIBC B12 Folate LFTs - haemolytic causes Chest x-ray - suspicious of cancer *check for bleeding Serum electroplates if suspect Bence jones Comb's test if suspecting anything
69
What is the relationship between Ferritin and TIBC?
Indirect - as one goes up the other will go down. this is important to establishing between anaemia of chronic disease and iron loss anaemia