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Phase 3 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the indications for SIRS?

A

Temp:
>38
<36

Heart rate:
>90

Tachypnoea
>20 bpm
<4.3kpa pCO2

White cell:
<4
>12

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2
Q

Define Sepsis:

A

Life threatening organ damage caused by dysregulated host response.

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3
Q

Define Severe Sepsis:

A

Sepsis + Organ Damage or hypo-tension

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4
Q

Define Septic Shock:

A 
Severe sepsis 
\+
<60mmHg (MAP)
\+ 
Serum Lactate >18mg/dl
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5
Q

What are the Sepsis 6:

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Cultures
  3. IV antibiotics
  4. Fluid Resuscitation
  5. Lactate
  6. Urine Output
    (7. Review)
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6
Q

What are the two types of Necrotising Fasciitis?

A

Type I: Synergestic

  • aneorobes
  • aerobes
  • affect old people

Type II:
Group A, Beta haemolytic Strep
*affects young

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7
Q

In Necrotising fasciitis, there is a discolouration that occurs under the skin due to bleeding, what is this called?

A

Ecchymosis

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8
Q

What organisms are usually implicated in Biliary sepsis

A

Coliforms - E.coli

Klebsiella

Enterobacter

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9
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous disease?

A

X-linked condition leading to defects in the NADPH oxidase

leukocytes can’t kill things

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10
Q

If there is spleen damage, what infection are people prone too?

A

Nisseria Meningitis

Haemophilus infleunza

Strep Pneumonia

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11
Q

In a solid organ transplant patient, what is the likely infections <1 month after procedure

A

C. Diff
MRSA
Gram Neg

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12
Q

In a solid organ transplant patient, what is the likely infections >6 month after procedure

A

Pneumococcus
Listeria
Salmonella
Legionella

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13
Q

What are common infections seen in immunosupressed individuals, especially after transplant?

A

Cytomegalovirus
- pneumonia

Candida infection

Pneumocystisi Jerovecii

Asprgillus
- common in marrow transplant

HSV

VZV

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14
Q

What does C. Diff grow in?

A

Brazier’s media

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15
Q

Name the slow-lactose fermenting gram negative bacteria

A

Serratia

Citrobacter

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16
Q

Name the coccobacilli gram negatives:

A

Bordetella

Haemophillus

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17
Q

Name the non-lactose fermenting gram negatives:

A

Pseudomonas

Proteus

Stenotrophomanas

Salmonella

Yersinia

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18
Q

What two bacterial infections are commonly associated with poultry?

A

Salmonella

Campylobacter

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19
Q

What are the two major bacterial causes of septic arthritis?

A

S. Aurues
- older

Nesiseria Gonorrhoeae
- younger females

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20
Q

What infections commonly cause vesicular rashes?

A

Herpes simplex

Varicella Zoster virus

Coxsackievirus (hand foot and mouth)

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21
Q

What virus is most commonly associated with hand foot and mouth disease? what are some other strains?

A

Coxsackievirus A16

A6
A10
Enterovirus 71

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22
Q

In the VZV, when are children ineffective by?

A

48hrs prior to rash onset.

~12day mark.

usually 1-2weeks of fever and malaise

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23
Q

What is it called when there is continual pain following zoster infection?

A

Post hepatic neuralgia

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24
Q

What are some complications to immunosupressed of VZV?

Study These Flashcards
A

Bacterial infection in the skin

Disseminated varicella

Haemorrhagic varicella

VZV pneumonitis

VZV encephalitis

25
What is reasonably unique symptom to Hand foot and mouth disease?
Herpangina - posterior oropharyngeal vesicualr rash - painful - ulcertation
26
What tests are performed when checking for STDs?
Blood test: - HIV - Syphilis - Hep B Swabs - Gonorrhoea - Chlamydia which used the Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
27
Whats the incubation time for gonorrhoea?
2-7 days
28
What's the treatment for Gonorrhoea?
``` Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin + Doxycycline (for chlamydia cover) ```
29
What's the incubation period for Chlamydia Trachomatis?
7-12 days
30
What's the treatment for Chlamydia?
Azithromycin
31
What is the incubation period for Treponema Pallidum? (Syphilis)
2 weeks
32
What is the offical name for syphilis
Trepnema Pallidum
33
What agar plate can be used for isolation of salmonella and shigella species? and what colour do the various pathogens produce?
Xylose Lysine Deocycholate Agar salmonella: red with black centres Shigella: Red with no black centres
34
What bacteria is commonly associated with toxic shock syndrome via its toxins?
Staph Aureus
35
Which bacteria is commonly associated with pharyngitis?
Strep Pyogenses - Group A. Beta Haemolytic
36
How is sepsis assessed at the bed side?
QSOFA - hypotensive <100mmHg systolic - Tachyponea >22 - Confusion, lowered GCS
37
Whats the most likely cause of meningitis in children aged between 1 month - late childhood
Meninigiococcus - nessiera meningitis
38
whats the most common cause of LRTIs in neonates?
Group B, Strep
39
Whats the most common cause of LTRIs in older children?
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
40
What the most common cause of meningitis in neonates?
Group B Strep
41
What makes up the vaccine for pneumococcal?
Capsular polysaccharides
42
What is the downside of polysaccharide vaccines?
They don't produce as much of a response against the antigen that protein derived types. thus conjugate proteins can be added sometimes
43
Outwith one's own immunity how can vaccines be useful?
Produce herd immunity
44
What the most common presentation of invassive Haemophilus Influenza?
meningitis
45
What is the under lying virus of Cytomegalovirus?
Human herpesvirus 5 HHV - 5 really hard to prevent transmission of this virus.
46
What is the underlying cause of kaposi tumour?
Human Herpvesvirus 8 HHV - 8
47
What are the waves of Pendemics?
1st wave: - high infection rates - low mortality 2nd wave: - higher infection rates - high death rate 3rd wave: - large population of world exposed - few people not exposed
48
What leads to epidemics?
Antigenic Drift
49
What leads to pandemics?
Antigenic Shift
50
Whats the two most common subtypes of Influenza Type A?
H1N1 H3N2
51
What kind of virus is influenza?
Segmented Negative stand RNA
52
What commonly causes Necrotising facititis in young people?
Strep Pyogenes group A which produces a supertoxin.
53
What produces scarlet fever?
Strep Pyogenes
54
Whats the major virulence factor in rheumatic fever?
M protein / found on the cell wall on the pyogenes. It promotes a very strong humoral response.
55
What common infections does S. Pneumonia cause?
MOPS - Meningitis - Otitis Medias - Pneuomnia - Sinusitis
56
What is the different between adult and child vaccines for S. Pneuomnia?
Adult - polysaccarihe - IgM - not long lasting Child - polysaccharide + conjugated protein = IgG - long lasting
57
What are the stages of epidemiology of infectious disease to susceptible host?
Reservoir - people - animals - phones Mode of transmission - airborne - contact - vector Susceptible host
58
What are the modes of transmission?
Direct - contact - droplet Indirect: - airborne - vehicle borne - water - vector borne - mechanical, biological
59
What are the standard precautions to infection control?
Hand hygiene PPE Cough Hygiene Prevention of needle sticks Waste disposal Environmental cleaning Gown wearing

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