Health Assessment And Physical Examination Flashcards

(107 cards)

1
Q

two types of data

A

subjective and objective

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2
Q

what the patient tells us about their world is what type of data

A

subjective

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3
Q

where nurse has results and data/vital signs is what type of data ____

A

objective

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4
Q

what are the methods of data collection?

A

interview, nursing health history, physical examination, and diagnostics/lab results

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5
Q

interview has 3 phases

A

orientation phase, working phase, and termination phase

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6
Q

types of physical assessment are ___

A

comprehensive, focused, system specific, and ongoing

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7
Q

head to toe, normal assessment is ___

A

comprehensive

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8
Q

if you have already done comprehensive, and going back to check on one area

A

focused

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9
Q

system specific

A

similar to focused

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10
Q

patient comes in often, do head to toe but assess the ongoing issues

A

ongoing

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11
Q

what’s been going on is the ____

A

baseline history

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12
Q

vital signs, inspection (looking), ausculation (listening), and palpation (feel) is what part of the assessment

A

examination

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13
Q

how do you assess a patient?

A

look, listen, feel

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14
Q

nursing process and physical assessment is done in what order?

A

assessment, outcome identification, planning, implementation, and evaluation

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15
Q

good lighting, expose all of part to be examined, use penlight for ears, eyes, and mouth. observe for color, shape/symmetry, position and movement is what technique of the assessment?

A

inspection

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16
Q

touch is what technique of assessment?

A

palpation

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17
Q

light palpation is how many cm or inch in depth?

A

1 cm or 0.5 inch

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18
Q

deep palpation is how many cm or inch in depth?

A

4 cm or 2 inch

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19
Q

listen, frequency (# of oscillations/sound waves) per second generated by vibrating object, loudness (amplitude of a sound wave), quality (descriptive), duration (length of time that sounds last- short, medium, long)

A

auscultation

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20
Q

smell, abnormal or normal

A

olfaction

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21
Q

_____ typically taken prior to exam and begin with general survey

A

health history

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22
Q

_____ is the single most important assessment component and often first clue of deteriorating conditon

A

level of conciousness

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23
Q

how do you test level of consciousness?

A

alert, lethargic, obtunded, stuporous/semi-comatose, and comatose

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24
Q

attentive, follows commands, if asleep-wakes up promptly and remains attentive

A

alert (LOC)

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25
drowsy but awakens, slow to respond
lethargic
26
difficult to arouse, needs constant stimulation
obtunded
27
arouses only to vigorous/noxious stimuli, may only withdraw from pain
stuporous/semi-comatose
28
no response to verbal or noxious stimuli, no movement
comatose
29
pt oriented to person, place, and town, also known as mentation
cognitive awareness
29
how do you test cognitive awareness?
name, DOB, where are they right now, what year/day it is, and what brought you in
29
PERLA is testing on what cranial nerves?
cranial nerves III, IV, and VI
30
examine size and shape of pupils and compare to scale
pupil response
31
PERLA stands for _____
pupils, equal, react to, light, and accommodation
32
using the tip of unlit penlight and have pt follow with eyes only and about 9-12 inches from face in "H" motion is called ____
cardinal gaze
33
ask patient to smile and show teeth, wrinkle forehead or raise eyebrows, looking for symmetry is testing what cranial nerves
cranial nerve VII
34
ask patient to touch roof of mouth with tongue, protrude tongue out of mouth and side to side is testing what cranial nerve?
cranial nerve XII
35
place hands on patient shoulders lightly and ask pt to shrug shoulders is testing what cranial nerve?
cranial nerve XI
36
BUE means
bilateral upper extremities
37
BLE means
bilateral lower extremities
38
crackles or rales, rhonchi, wheezes, and pleural friction rub are what?
abnormal or adventitious sounds of lungs
39
can be fine or course at the base of the lungs-high pitching popping sounds
crackles or rales
40
can be cleared with coughing typically, over the trachea and bronchial area (wet sounds ,roaring)
rhonchi
41
airways get restricted/narrowed, air passing through the tube fast
wheezes
42
lining around lungs and has fluid here, if lining gets dry, it is rubbing tissue on tissue
pleural friction rub
43
abnormally slow, under 12 RR
bradypnea
44
greater than 20
tachypnea
45
absence of respirations, no respirations or period of apnea
apnea
46
high respirations
hyperpnea
47
rapid, deep breathing at a constant rate
kussmaul's
48
depth and rate are irregular with periods of apnea
cheyne-stokes
49
anterior and posterior lung sounds and clubbing of fingers
respiratory components of assessment
50
systole or S1 and is the sound associated with the closing of the mitral/tricuspid valves
"LUB" sound
51
diastole or S2 and is the sound associated with the closing of the aortic/pulmonic valves
"DUB" sound
52
when is there a longer pause between what heart sounds?
S2 and S1
53
location of the heart sounds
aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, and mitral
54
aortic location
right base, second intercostal space to the right of the sternal border
55
pulmonic location
left base, second intercostal space to the left of the sternal border
56
tricuspid location
left lateral sternal border, 5th intercostal space to the left of the sternal border
57
mitral location
midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space
58
swelling in the extremities is ____
edema
59
most often on feet and ankles, older adults and standing
dependent edema
60
venous insufficiency or heart failure; fluid in tissues
pitting edema
61
heart sounds, cartoid pulses, radial pulses, pedal pulse, capillary refill, assess for edema
cardiac components of assessment
62
neck ROM, BUE ROM, BLE ROM, HGTW, flexion/extension BUE/BLE are ____
musculoskeletal components of assessment
63
hydration, temperature, color, texture, rashes, lesions and cracking are assessment of ___
skin
64
pale or ashen gray
pallor
65
redness r/t vasodilation (a lot of blood flow to area)
erythemea
66
yellow, impaired liver (can see in sclera of eye)
juandice
67
bluish, decreased circulation or oxygenation of blood
cyanosis
68
____ test is elasticity of skin related to hydration
turgor
69
caused by kidney or heart failure and leads to excess fluid collection in skin tissue
pitting edema
70
nails should be ____
transparent, smooth, rounded, convex, and hygienic
71
patent nares means:
the nostrils are open
72
excretion of waste products from kidneys and intestines
elimination
73
process of elimination waste
defecation
74
semisolid mass of fiber, undigested food, inorganic matter
feces
75
observe size, shape, contour, skin integrity of abdomen
inspection
76
bowel size, four quadrants, normal hypoactive, hyperactive- start in RLQ, RUQ, LUQ, LLQ
auscultation
77
palpate for tenderness, pain, and masses of the abdomen
palpation
78
inability to control urine or feces
incontinence
79
to urinate
void
80
to urinate
micturate
81
painful or difficult urinating
dysuria
82
blood in the urine
hematuria
83
frequent night urination
nocturia
84
large amounts of urine
polyuria
85
voiding at intervals
urine frequency
86
the need to void all at once
urinary urgency
87
presence of large protein in urine
proteinuria
88
leakage of urine despite voluntary control of urination
dribbling
89
accumulation of urine in bladder without the ability to completely empty
retention
90
urine remaining post void >100 mL
residual
91
primary regulators of fluid and acid-base balance
kidneys
92
tubule structures that enter into the bladder
ureters
93
urine traveling through ureters is typically _____
sterile
94
ureters enter bladder ____ & ______ to prevent reflux
obliquely and posteriorly
95
in women the uretha is short, ___ to ____ inches
1.5 inches to 2.5 inches
96
in men, the uretha is ___ inches, serves in both the GI and reproductive systems
8 inches
97
in men, the ____ lies against the anterior wall of rectum
bladder
98
in women, the ___ rest against anterior walls of uterus and vagina
bladder
99
normal bladder is ____ mL
500
100
bladder can extend to ____ mL
1000
101
What are normal sounds of the lungs?
Vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial
102
Filter and regulate, remove waste from blood to form urine
Kidneys
103
Transport urine from kidneys to bladder
Ureters
104
Reservoir for urine until the urge develops
Bladder
105
Urine travels from bladder and exits through urethral meats
Urethra