High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

The round ligament of Teres was embryonically?

A

Umbilical vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The median umbilical fold houses what?

A

Obliterated urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The medial umbilical fold houses?

A

Obliterated umbilical arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lateral umbilical folds house what?

A

Inferior epigastric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The umbilical area lies at what dermatome?

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What dermatome is the epigastrium at?

A

T7-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What dermatome is the inguinal ligament at?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a minor duodenal papilla secrete?

A

Pancreatic juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Major duodenal papilla secretes?

A

Bile and pancreatic juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of ectopic tissues contained within a Meckel’s Diverticulum?

A

Stomach and pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Murphy’s Sign?

A

Under the right costal margin - shows inflammed gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Parasympathetic innervation is coordinated by what two areas?

A

Vagus nerve - foregut and midgut Pelvic splanchnic - hindgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What part of the duodenum is derived from foregut?

A

First and second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What organs are derived from foregut, midgut and hindgut?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the distribution of the femoral nerve?

A

anterior thigh muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the innervation of the adrenal gland.

A

No parasympathetic

Sym - pre gang to medulla secrete adrenalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristics of gastric lymphoma and GIST?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the characteristics of carcinoid tumor?

A

Clinically - facial flushing and tricuspid insufficiency

Secretion of serotonin and biogenic amines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a good biomarker for colonic cancer for follow up but not diagnosis?

A

CEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is secreted by carcinoid tumors?

A

POLYPEPTIDE biogenic amine

not steroidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cirrhosis can lead to what results?

A

Decreased albumin

Esophageal varicies

Decreased degradation of estrogen

decreased breakdown of ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the characteristics of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

AMA+

Lymphocytic cholangitis

Chronic bile duct disease

Women 90% of time

Increased alk phos and GGT

Florid duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the characteristics of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma

Men more than women

P-ANCA

Associated with UC

24
Q

What are the characteristics of cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Associated with PSC and thorotrast exposure

Adenocarcinoma - gland forming

25
Aflatoxin B puts a person at increased risk for what?
HCC
26
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is most often associated with what genetic mutation?
KRAS
27
HCC is most commonly associated with what genetic mutation?
B-catenin
28
Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with what exposure?
Thorotrast
29
Hep B has what type of transmission?
Vertical or blood
30
What is the most common risk for HepC?
IV droogs
31
Most common exposure for HepA?
Shellfish and fecal oral route
32
What bacteria is on poultry?
Salmonella
33
Taking a ton of asprin can put a person at risk for what?
Acute gastritis - PGE2 inhibitor
34
Lower 1/3rd of esophagus and associated GERD
Adenocarcinoma
35
Drinking and smoking associated with upper part of esophagus?
Squamous
36
What is type of person to be affected by hepatic adenoma?
Young women using oral contraceptives
37
Exposure to what can yield angiosarcoma?
Vinyl chloride and thorotrast
38
What does the urorectal septum do?
Divides the cloaca into the urogenital sinus and primitave "something"
39
Mallory bodies are derived from what?
Keratin intermediate filaments
40
Meissners plexus in the submucosa is in charge of what?
Luminal size and blood flow
41
Auerbachs plexus is in charge of what?
Peristalsis - ME
42
What are the characteristics of Sjorgerns syndrome?
Positive ANA and failure to reabsorb Na
43
What is the regulator of salivary secretions?
Autonomic nervous system
44
Left testicular vein drains into where?
Left renal vein
45
Right testicular vein drains into where?
IVC
46
Kufper cells come from where?
Mesoderm
47
What is the normal rotation of the midgut?
270 degrees counterclockwise
48
What sugar isnt sodium dependent?
Fructose
49
Saliva is what to plasma?
Hypotonic
50
What accounts for the LES state?
Tonic contraction due to intrinsic properties
51
Ileal inflammation leads to?
Decreased absorption of B12, fat and bile acid
52
Acid reflux can do what to the esophagus?
Secondary peristaltic contractions
53
What is the sodium-glucose transporter in the intestine?
SGLT1
54
Removal of the gut flora can do what?
Increase blood nitrogen
55
Intrinsic factor binds to B12 where?
Duodenum
56
What happens in dumping syndrome?
Too quick of release of contents from stomach - rapid insulin release and hypoglycemia
57
Lack of pancreatic lipase will have what affect?
Decreased absorption of fat soluble vitamins Steatorrhea