HIV Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What is HIV?

A

Retrovirus
HIV-2 originated in West African Sootey mangabey
Less virulent
HIV-1 originated in Central/West African chimpanzees: HIV1 group M responsible for global pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the target site for HIV?

A

CD4+ receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What cells are CD4+ receptors found on?

A

T helper lymphocytes
Dendritic cells
Macrophages
Microglial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do CD4+Th lymphocytes do?

A
Essential for induction of adaptive immune response 
Recognition of MHC2 APC
Activation of B cells
Activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T cells
CK release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What effect does HIV infection have on immune response?

A

Sequestration of cells in lymphoid tissues
-Reduced circulating CD4+ cells
Reduced proliferation of CD4+ cells
Reduction CD8+ (cytotoxic) T cell activation
-Dysregulated expression of cytokines
-Increasing susceptibility to viral infections (including HIV)
Reduction in antibody class switching
-Reduced affinity of antibodies produced
Chronic Immune Activation (microbial translocation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does HIV increase susceptibility to?

A

Viral infections
Fungal infections
Mycobacterial infections
Infection-induced cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what CD4+Th count is there a risk of opportunistic infection?

A

<200cells/mm3

Normal is 500-1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe HIV viral replication

A

Rapid in very early and very late infection

New generation every 6-12hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does HIV spread in the body?

A

Infection of mucosal CD4 cell (Langerhans/dendritic)
Transport to RLNs
Infection established within 3 days of entry
Dissemination of virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is the usual onset of HIV?

A

2-4wks after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the common symptoms of primary HIV infection?

A
Fever
Rash (maculopapular)
Myalgia
Pharyngitis
Headache/aseptic meningitis
Up to 80% present with symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens during the asymptomatic HIV infection?

A

Ongoing replication
Ongoing CD4 count depletion
Ongoing immune activation
Risk of onward transmission if remains undiagnosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an opportunistic infection?

A

An infection caused by a pathogen that does not normally produce disease in a healthy individual. It uses the “opportunity” afforded by a weakened immune system to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What organism causes pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Insidious onset
SOB
Dry Cough
Exercise desaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is pneumocystis pneumonia diagnosed?

A

CXR: May be normal, interstitial infiltrates, reticulonodular markings
BAL and immunofluorescence +- PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment and prophylaxis for pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Rx- High dose co-trimoxazole (+- steroid)

Proph: Low dose co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What tuberculosis infections/conditions are more common in HIV+ than HIV- individuals?

A
Symptomatic primary infection
Reactivation of latent TB
Lymphadenopathies
Miliary TB
Extrapulmonary TB
Multi-drug resistant TB
Immune reconstitution syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organism causes cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens in cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

Reactivation of latent infection

Multiple cerebral abscess (chorioretinitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the symptoms/signs in cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A
Headache
Fever
Focal neurology
Seizures
Reduced consciousness
Raised intracranial pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does CMV cause?

A

Retinitis, colitis, oesophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does CMV present?

A
Reduced visual acuity
Floaters
Abdo pain
Diarrhoea
PR bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What skin infections can be due to HIV?

A

Herpes Zoster: Multidermatomal, Recurrent
Herpes Simplex: Extensive, Hypertrophic, Aciclovir resistant
Human papilloma virus: Extensive, Recalcitrant, Dysplastic
Penicilliosis
Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What causes HIV-associated neurocognitive impairment?
HIV-1
26
How does HIV-associated neurocognitive impairment present?
Reduced STM | +- motor dysfunction
27
What causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus | Reactivation of latent infection
28
How does progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy present?
Rapidly progressing Focal neurology Confusion Personality change
29
What are some other neurological presentations of HIV?
``` Distal sensory polyneuropathy Mononeuritis multiplex Vacuolar myelopathy Aseptic meningitis Guillan-Barre syndrome Viral meningitis (CMV, HSV) Cryptococcal meningitis Neurosyphilis ```
30
What causes HIV-associated wasting aka Slim's Disease?
Metabolic (chronic immune activation) Anorexia (multifactorial) Malabsorption/diarrhoea Hypogonadism
31
What causes Kaposi's sarcoma?
Human herpes virus 8 (HHV8)
32
What is the basic pathology of Kaposi's sarcoma?
Vascular tumour
33
How does Kaposi's sarcoma present?
Cutaneous Mucosal Visceral- pulmonary, GI
34
What is the treatment for Kaposi's sarcoma?
HAART Local therapies Systemic chemotherapy
35
What causes Non-Hodgkins lymphoma?
EBV (Burkitt’s lymphoma, primary CNS lymphoma)
36
How does Non-Hodgkins lymphoma present?
``` More advanced B symptoms Bone marrow involvement Extranodal disease Increased CNS involvement ```
37
What should be offered to all with complicated HPV disease?
HIV testing
38
How can cervical cancer present?
Recalcitrant warts | High grade CIN, VIN, AIN, PIN
39
What are the clinical features of non-OI symptomatic HIV?
``` Mucosal candidiasis Seborrhoeic dermatitis Diarrhoea Fatigue Worsening psoriasis Lymphadenopathy Parotitis Epidemiologically linked conditions: STIs, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C ```
40
What are some haematologic manifestations of HIV?
Anaemia | Thrombocytopenia
41
What are the modes of transmission of HIV?
Sexual Parenteral Mother to Child
42
What factors increase transmission risk of HIV in sex?
Anoreceptive sex Trauma Genital ulceration Concurrent STI
43
How does parenteral transmission of HIV occur?
Injection drug use (sharing 'works') Infected blood products Iatrogenic
44
How does MTCT of HIV occur?
In utero/trans-placental Delivery Breast-feeding
45
What is the sex ratio of HIV?
2.1:1 M:F
46
What risk group has the highest proportion of HIV in the UK?
MSM
47
What services include an opt-out HIV test?
``` TOP services GUM Drug dependency services Antenatal services Assisted conception services ```
48
What high risk groups should regular HIV screening be carried out on?
``` MSM Female partners of bisexual men IVDU Partners of people living with HIV Adults, children, sexual partners, and people with history of iatrogenic exposure from/in an endemic area ```
49
What are the high prevalence areas of HIV?
Sub-Saharan Africa Caribbean Thailand
50
When HIV falls within the DDx what should be performed regardless of risk factors?
HIV test | Risk assessment not necessary
51
What is important when taking an HIV test of an incapacitated person?
Only test if in patients best interest Consent from relative not required If safe, wait until patient regains capacity Obtain support from HIV team if required
52
Which markers of HIV are used by labs to detect infection?
``` RNA (viral genome) Envelope proteins (gp120) Capsule protein (p24) ```
53
What do 3rd generation HIV tests detect?
HIV 1+2 antibody IgM IgG
54
What is the window period of 3rd generation HIV tests?
Avg. 20-25 days
55
What do 4th generation HIV tests detect?
Combined antibody and antigen (p24)
56
What is the window period of 4th generation HIV tests?
14-28 days
57
What is the recent infection testing algorithm?
Can be used to identify if an infection occurred within the preceding 4-6months
58
How does RITA work?
Measure different types of antibodies or strength of antibody binding- HIV1, subtype B
59
What are the targets for anti-retroviral drugs?
``` Reverse transcriptase Integrase Protease Entry: fusion, CCR5 receptor Maturation ```
60
What was shown to have in vitro activity against HIV?
Nucleotide analogues reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) e.g. zidovudine
61
What is highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)?
A combination of three drugs from at least 2 drug classes to which the virus is susceptible
62
What is most important in preventing drug resistance in HIV?
Adherence
63
What are the S/Es of HAART?
GI S/Es (protease inhibitors), transaminitis, fulminant hep (nevirapine, most others) Skin: rash, HS, SJS (abacavir, nevirapine) CNS: mood, psychosis (efavirenz) Renal: proximal renal tubulopathies (tenofovir, atazanavir) Bone: osteomalacia (tenofovir) CVS: increased MI risk (abacavir, lopinavir, maraviroc) Haematology: anaemia (zidovudine)
64
What enzymes do protease inhibitors interact with?
Liver enzyme inhibitors
65
What enzymes do NNRTIs interact act with?
Liver enzyme inducers
66
Describe partner notification and disclosure in HIV
Voluntary process- may takes weeks, months, years | Duty of care to a known third party
67
How can you prevent onward HIV sexual transmission?
``` Condom use HIV treatment STI screening and treatment Sero-adaptive sexual behaviours Disclosure Post-exposure prophylaxis Pre-exposure prophylaxis ```
68
What are conception options for an HIV+ male, HIV- female?
Timed unprotected sex with HAART | Treatment as Prevention
69
What are conception options for an HIV+ female, HIV-male?
? Self-insemination Timed unprotected sex with HAART Treatment as Prevention
70
How can you prevent mother to child transmission?
``` HAART during pregnancy Vaginal delivery if undetected viral load Caesarean section if detected viral load 4/52 PEP for neonate Exclusive formula feeding ```