Hypersensitivity Allergiesvand Dental Care Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

Allergic diseases

A

Immunologic reaction to a non infectious foreign substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type I humoral hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgE mediated hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgG mediated cytotoxic (transfusion reaction of mismatched blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

A

Immune complex mediated (serum thickness, SLE, streptococcal glomerulinephritis, vasculitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type IV

A

Cell mediated hypersensitivity or delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of type I

A

Hay fever, asthma, urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List what happens during type I response

A

IgE —> mast cells —> histamine, leukotrienes, interlekins —> vascular dilation and endothelial leakage, smooth muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibiotics in dentistry associated with anaphylaxis

A

Penicillins, sulfonamides, cephalosporins, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Allergens or antigens

A

Foreign substances that trigger hypersensitivity reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe urticaria from type I

A
  • superficial skin lesions ( hives, itching, wheels)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common causes of urticaria in type I for children

A

Food and infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Common causes of urticaria in type I for adults

A

Drug reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe angioedema

A

In deeper skin layers
- Painless swelling
- Itching, burning
- Lasts 1-3 days
- Eyelids, lips, tongue, pharynx, larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acquired angioedema is allergic- Type I and occurs

A

soon after contact with antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Other type of acquired angioedema- not allergic includes

A

Drug induced (impaired bradykinin degradation)
- Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
- Angiotensin receptor blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Mild type I angioedema effect?

A

Eyelids, lips, NOT tongue, pharynx and larynx

No respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you manage Mild Type I angioedema?

A

50mg diphenhydramine (Benadryl) qid until resolves

18
Q

What does severe type I angioedema involve?

A

Tongue, pharynx, larynx

Causes respiratory distress

19
Q

How do you manage severe type I angioedema?

A
  • Emergency treatment: 0.5ml 1:1000 epi IM or SC and oxygen
  • Once immediate danger is over, 50mg benedryl qid
  • Call 911 if no response or severe resp distress
20
Q

Describe type I- anaphylaxis

A

Acute IgE mediated SYSTEMIC reaction
◦ Occurs within minutes of antigen exposure
◦ Acute respiratory compromise and cardiovascular collapse
◦ Respiratory – smooth muscle contraction of bronchi - bronchospasm
increased vascular permeability
◦ Cardiovascular – hypotension or shock from widespread vasodilation
◦ Skin – urticaria, angioedema
◦ GI – gastrointestinal and uterine contractions

21
Q

Why use epi in anaphylaxis?

A
  • Relaxes bronchial muscles
  • Improves cardiac output
  • Reduces vascular permeability
22
Q

Describe Type IV reaction

A
  • T cell mediated
  • No antibodies involved
  • Response not seen until 48-72 hrs later (delayed hypersensitivity)
23
Q

Examples of type IV hypersensitivities

A
  • Contact dermatitis (metal, perfumes, formaldehyde, latex)
  • TB test (autoimmune - DM-1, MS, RA)
  • Organ transplant rejection (Graft vs host post bone marrow transplant– looks like lichenoid lesions)
24
Q

Describe latex allergies

A
  • 1-6 general public
  • Most type IV
  • Rare Type I- those would be immediate
25
Common allergic drug reactions in dentistry
- Antibiotics - Local anesthetics - Analgesics- aspirin, NSAIDs - reactions to other ingrediants (coating of pills, local anesthetic preservatives (parabens, sulfites))
26
Antibodies produced against PCN cross-react with
synthetic penicillins (ampicillin, penicillinase, cloaxacillin, carbenicillin, methicillin)
27
If PCN allergy, what should you use instead?
Macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin) or clindamycin
28
Patients with history of PCN allergy have small risk of allergic reaction to
cephalosporins
29
Infective endocarditis prophylaxis - Use
cephalexin (Keflex), azithromycin, clarithromycin, doxycyclin
30
Do not use cephalexin if history of
anaphylaxis, angioedema or urticarial with PCN or ampicillin, potential for cross-reactivity
31
Vasoconstrictor effects (epi)
Tachycardia, apprehension, sweating, hyperactivity
32
Symptoms of a toxic reaction to local anesthetics
Talkativeness Slurred speech Dizziness Nausea Depression Euphoria Excitement Convulsions
33
Symptoms of allergic reaction to local anesthetics
Urticaria Swelling Skin rash Chest tightness Dyspnea, shortness of breath Rhinorrhea Conjunctivitis
34
Examples of esters
-Procaine (Novocain) - Tetracaine (pontocaine)
35
Procaine is highest rate of
allergic reactions among local anesthetics
36
What si the procaine metabolite?
PABA
37
What are examples of amides?
- Articaine - Bupivacaine - Lidocaine - Mepivacaine - Prilocaine
38
Cross reaction between methylparaben preservative in multidose vials of
lidocaine and procaine antibodies
39
Dental anesthetic single use cartridges no longer contain
methylparaben
40
How can antihistamine be used as anesthetic?
◦ Compounded by pharmacist ◦ 1-4 ml of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) with 1:100,000 epinephrine ◦ No methylparaben preservative ◦ Maximum dose 50 mg/appointment ◦ 30 min of anesthesia