ID Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

gram positive anaerobes

A

CLAP

clostridium
lactobacillus
actinomyces
propionibacterium

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2
Q

MRSA is trested with

A

doxycycline
clindamycin
vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

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3
Q

what are ESBL

A

extended spectrum beta lactamase bacteria- they have become resistant to beta lactams

usually e coli or klebsiella

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4
Q

difference between gram pos and neg

A

pos= have a peptidoglycan cell wall

neg= no cell wall

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5
Q

gram positive rods

A

corny mikes list of basic cars

cornybacteria
mycobacteria
listeria
bacillus
nocardia

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6
Q

general escalation of hospital abx

A

amoxicillin- covers strep, listeria and enterococcus
co amoxiclav- covers staph, haem and e coli
piptaz- covers pseudomonas
meropenem- covers ESBLs
teicoplanin/vanc- covers MRSA
clarith/doxy- covers atypicals

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7
Q

what is septic shock

A

when blood pressure remains low despite fluid resus

this causes hypoperfusion and anaerobic respiration so lactate rises

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8
Q

how is septic shock diagnosed

A

low MAP despite fluid resus
raised lactate

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9
Q

NEWS2 components

A

blood pressure
heart rate
temp
o2 sats
resp rate
consciousness level

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10
Q

pyelonephritis triad

A

fever
loin pain
nausea/vomitting

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11
Q

urine dip UTI results

A

nirates or leukocytes plus RBC= likely UTI

only leukocytes= send to lab

only nitrates= treat as UTI

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12
Q

what type of bacteria is e coli

A

gram negative anaerobic rod

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13
Q

avoid nitrofurantoin in

A

patients with an eGFR <45
pregnant women near term

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14
Q

abx for pyelonephritis in community

A

cefalexin 7-10 days

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15
Q

what does use of nitrofurantoin in the 3rd trimester cause

A

neonatal haemolysis

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16
Q

what dopes use of trimethoprim in the 1st trimester cause

A

NTDs

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17
Q

in cellulitis what indicates a staph aureus infection

A

a golden yellow crust

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18
Q

common bacteria associated with cellulitis

A

staph aureus
group A strep
group C strep

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19
Q

abx for cellulitis near eyes or nose

A

co amoxiclav

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20
Q

bacterial tonsillitis common bacteria

A

group A strep (strep pyogenes)

if not then usually strep pnuemoniae

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21
Q

what centor score warrants use of abx

A

3 or more

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22
Q

centor score components

A

fever over 38 degrees
tender cervical lymphadenopathy
tonsillar exudates
absence of cough

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23
Q

first line abx tonsillitis

A

penicillin V for 10 days
clarithromycin if allergic to penicillin

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24
Q

complications of tonsillitis

A

quinsy
otitis media
scarlet fever
rheumatic fever
post strep glomerulonephritis

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25
otitis media abx
amoxicillin 5-7 days 1st line clarithromycin if allergic erythromycin if pregnant and allergic
26
sinusitis mx
10 days conservative mx high dose steroid nasal spray 14 days back up abx if not improving
27
chronic sinusitis mx
saline nasal irrigation steroid nasal spray
28
septic arthritis most common organism
staph aureus nisseria gonorrhoea if young
29
pseudogout crystals are made of
calcium pyrophosphate
30
septic arthritis abx
empirical IV abx for 4-6 weeks fluclox usually 1st line
31
what type of virus is influenza
RNA
32
medications for flu
olsetamivir zanamivir
33
what medication increases risk of HUS
antibiotics- avoid use if e coli gastroenteritis is suspected
34
gastroentertitis stay off work/school rules
till 48 hrs after sx resolve
35
abx that cause c diff
clindamycin cipro cephalosporins carbapenams
36
c diff recurrence rate
high
37
complications of c diff
toxic megacolon pseudomembranous colitis bowel perforation sepsis
38
what type of bacteria is nisseria meningitis
gram negative diplococcus
39
most common cause of viral meningitis
enterovirus
40
how to test for kernigs sign
flex the hip and knee to 90 degrees while keeping the hip flexed straighten the knee pain or resistance to movement indicates meningitis
41
how to test for brudzinskis sign
lift head and neck off bed when patient is lying flat involuntary flexion of hip and knees is positive
42
CSF protein in bacterial meningitis
high
43
CSF protein in viral meningitis
slightly raised or normal
44
high neutrophils in CSF indicates
bacterial cause
45
high lymphocytes in CSF indicates
viral cause
46
benzylpenicillin dosing in meningitis
under 1 yr- 300mg 1-9yrs- 600mg over 10yrs- 1200mg
47
what test should be done if meningococcus is suspected in meningitis
meningococal PCR
48
what tests can be done when examining a patient with suspected meningitis
brudzinski kernigs
49
meningitis abx
under 3 months- cefotaxime plus amoxicillin over 3 months- ceftriaxone
50
what can reduce neurological complications and hearing loss in meningitis
steroids
51
post exposure prophylaxis for meningitis contacts
single dose cipro
52
complications of meningitis
hearing loss seizures/epilpesy cognitive impairment focal neurological deficit eg limb weakness/spasticity
53
TB stain and result
zeihl neelsen turns bright red on a blue background
54
are people with latent tuberculosis infectious
no
55
what is potts disease
spinal tuberculosis
56
tests for immune response to TB
mantoux test IGRA (interferon gamma release assay)
57
mantoux test method and result
tuberculin is injected after 72hrs the induration is measured >5mm= positive
58
IGRA method and result
pt blood is mixed with TB antigens release of interferon gamma is positive- leukocytes that have been sensitised will release it
59
miliary TB on CXR
millet seed appearance- small nodules disseminated through the lung field
60
latent TB mx
isoniazid 6 months rifampicin and isoniazid for 3 months
61
what should be prescribed with isoniazid
pyroxidine/vitamin b6 this reduces peripheral neuropathy
62
what ventilation is used in rooms where patients are isolated with infectious disease that are aiborne
negative pressure
63
what enzyme does rifampicin affect and how
induces cytochrome p450 this enzyme metabolises medications like COCP so these become less effective
64
pyrazinamide side effects
gout kidney stones
65
what cells does HIV destroy
CD4 T helper cells
66
AIDS defining illnesses
kaposi sarcoma PCP cytomegalovirus candidiasis lymphoma TB
67
HIV blood test consent rules
in emergency departments there is assumed consent unless patients choose to opt out
68
lab test for HIV tests for
HIV antibodies p24 antigen
69
lab test for HIV has a reliable result after how many days
45
70
what CD4 count in HIV is high risk
<200 cells/mm3
71
what is given to high risk HIV pts
prophylactic co trimox for PCP
72
cervical smear frequency in HIV pts
yearly
73
delivery plan for HIV pts
viral load <50= normal vaginal possible viral load >400= c section recommended 50-400= consider c section IV zidovudine during labour and delivery and to babies
74
PEP drugs and duration
truvada and raltegravir for 28 days
75
PrEP drugs
truvada
76
most common malaria type
plasmodium falciparum
77
most severe malaria type
plasmodium falciparum
78
what is tertian fever
fever every 48 hrs associated w p vivax and o ovale
79