incorrect deck 2 Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria dx?

A

Flow cytometry for CD59 + 55

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2
Q

Subunits of troponin?
troponin C?: binds to calcium ions
troponin T?: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin I?: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place

A

troponin C: binds to calcium ions
troponin T: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin I: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place

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3
Q

Factor 8 and 9 blood results?

A

8 - raised PT
9 - raised APTT

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4
Q

Pseudogout crystals?

A

Weakly positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

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5
Q

Most common cause of antithrombin C def?

A

CKD

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6
Q

Acoustic neuromas seen in which pathology?

A

NF2

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7
Q

Renal angiomyolipoma seen where?

A

TS

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8
Q

Low leucocyte alk phos score seen where?

A

Pernicious anaemia, PNH, CML, Mono

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9
Q

Young woman develops AKI post ACEi?

A

Fibromusc dysplasia

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10
Q

LOC - rapid interval, long interval?

A

EDH, SDH

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11
Q

Type 1 and 2 HRS?

A

Type 1 - rapid onset
Type 2 - slower onset, more gradual decline in renal function and is generally associated with refractory ascites

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12
Q

Baclofen mechanism?

A

GABA agonist

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13
Q

Linezolid works on which bugs?

A

VRE + MRSA

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14
Q

Osmotic demyelination syndrome develops secondary to?

A

Astrocyte apoptosis

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15
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, occurs following occlusion of the? Signs?

A

Post inf cerebellar artery
Cerebellar signs, contralateral sensory loss & ipsilateral Horner’s

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16
Q

Phenomena exhibited by carbamazepine?

A

Autoinduction

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17
Q

What type of receptor does insulin bind to?

A

Tyrosine kinase

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18
Q

What type of receptor does epinephrine bind to?

A

Beta 1

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19
Q

GI Hormones:
Gastrin?
Secretin?
VP?
CCK?
Somatostatin?

A

G cells - stomach
S cells - small intestine
Pancreas and small intestine
I cells - small intestine
D cells - pancreas + stomach

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20
Q

Gilberts syndrome inheritance?

A

Autosomal recessive

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21
Q

Pain worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended?

A

Lat epicondylitis

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22
Q

Features of ToF?

A

Defective septum, RVH, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis

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23
Q

Cryoglobulinaemia - type 1 2 3?

A

1 - raynauds
2 - sjogrens
3 - ra

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24
Q

Most common and severe form of renal disease in SLE patients?

A

Diffuse proliferative

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25
Painful and painless genital ulcers?
Painful - bechets and herpes Painless - syphillis LGV donovanosis
26
FOB +ve pts with colorectal cancer?
5-15%
27
Mycoplasma rx?
Macrolide or doxy
28
DEXA in over 75s with fragility fracture?
No
29
Relationship between fluconazole + ciclosporin?
Flucon inhibits ciclo and can increase ciclo toxicity
30
IV rx for staph aureus endocarditis?
Fluclox + rifam + gent
31
Downward and upward dislocation of lens?
Downwards - Homocyst Upwards - Marfan's
32
Complication of acute pancreatitis?
ARDS
33
Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies association?
Idiopathic membranous glomnep
34
Test of choice in gestational diabetes?
OGTT
35
Necrolytic migratory erythema and? Erythroderma and? Acanthosis nigricans and? Sweet's syndrome and? Erythema gyratum repens and?
Glucagonoma Lymphoma GI cancer Myelodysplasia Lung ca
36
37
Toxic multinodular goitre rx?
Radioiodine
38
Acute and prophylactic rx for migraine?
Acute - NSAID triptan PCM Prop - topmate/propranolol
39
Following the application of a plaster cast patients should wait x hours before short flights (< 2 hours) and x hours before longer flights?
24, 48
40
Drugs exhibiting FPM?
aspirin isosorbide dinitrate glyceryl trinitrate lignocaine propranolol verapamil isoprenaline testosterone hydrocortisone
41
Which is least useful in assessing the severity of a patient with liver cirrhosis?
ALT
42
Antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?
Aspirin and LMWH
43
Genital warts - keratinised and non keratinised?
Keratinised - cryotherapy Non keratinised - topical podophyllum
44
When to organise haemodialysis for lithium toxicity?
Lithium >2.5
45
When to start warfarin after ischaemic stroke?
14 days
46
Most common glomerulonephropathy linked to renal vein thrombosis?
Membranous
47
Causes of upper and lower zone fibrosis?
Upper - coal worker's, hypersensi pneumonitis, ank spond, radiation, TB, silicosis/sarcoid Lower - most conn tissue disease, asbestosis, IPF, drug induced - methotrex, bleomycin, amiodarone
48
Heterophile test for which dx?
Infectious Mono
49
First and second line in pregnancy induced HTN?
1) labetalol 2) nifedipine
50
Katayama fever caused by which organism and when?
Schistosoma - few weeks after exposure
51
Progressive supranuclear palsy - vertical or horizontal gaze affected?
Vertical gaze
52
Drug classes in breast cancer: SERM? HER2? aromatase inhibitor?
tamoxifen, trastuzumab, anastrozole
53
Homo hemianopia defect? L sided?
R optic tract
54
Homo hemianopia: Incongruous defects = Congruous defects = Macula sparing =
Optic tract lesion Optic radiation lesion or occipital cortex Occ cortex
55
Bitemp hemianopia site of lesion? Upper quad defect? Lower quad defect?
Optic chiasm Upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour Lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma
56
Complete heart block following inferior/anterior MI?
Inferior - observation only Anterior - temp pacemaker
57
Main cause of hypercalcaemia in malignancy?
Parathyroid-hormone-related peptide release
58
First line medication for SIBO?
Rifaximin
59
Differentiating between anti phospholipid syndrome and activated protein c resistance?
APS - thrombocytopenia - not present in protein c resistance
60
Elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels, along with the low oestradiol level, are indicative of?
Primary ovarian insufficiency
61
First line medication for preventing TLS?
Rasburicase
62
Differentiating between homocystinuria and marfan's?
Homocyst - learning difficulties and downward lens dislocation Marfans - no learning difficulties and upward lens dislocation
63
Conn's syndrome features?
Hypertension and hypokalemia
64
Phaeochromocytoma features?
Hypokalemia and episodic hypertension
65
Which type of rheum conditions is Hep B associated with?
Polyarteritis nodosa
66
Is hypertension present in minimal change disease?
No - only 10%
67
If a patient with ulcerative colitis has had a severe relapse or >=2 exacerbations in the past year they should be given either?
Oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine
68
CKD on haemodialysis - most likely cause of death is?
IHD
69
STEMI management - if primary PCI cannot be offered within 120 mins of sx onset what should be given?
Fibrinolysis
70
Carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joint involvement is characteristic of?
Arthritis
71
Drug causes of SIADH?
Carbamazepine, SSRIs, TCAs, sulphonylureas
72
IgM and IgG?
IgM - primary immune response IgG - secondary immune response
73
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia inheritance?
Autosomal dominant
74
Hereditary spherocytosis test?
EMA binding
75
When to check MCT levels after anaphylaxis?
1-2 hours after event + 24 hours
76
First line for delirium tremens?
PO loraz
77
SGLT2 inhibitor works where?
PCT
78
TTP features?
Fever, anaemia (normocytic), thrombocytosis, renal involvement, neuro + raised LDH
79
ECG findings of a premature ventricular complex arising every other beat - first line rx?
Ventricular bigeminy, bisop
80
What is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin that causes secretary diarrhoea?
Increased adenylate cyclase activity within intestinal cells
81
Muscle involved in ankle clonus?
Gastrocnemius
82
Type of nystagmus in cerebellar lesion?
Downbeat
83
Pink rod shaped bacteria - UTI in young female?
E Coli
84
Sparkling on ECHO?
Amyloidosis
85
Cryptococcal meningitis rx?
Amphotericin B + flucytosine followed by oral fluconazole
86
Pity rosea?
Herald patch -> then spread
87
Bechet's associated with which reaction?
Pathergy - ulceration upon skin break
88
Pyloric stenosis acid base?
Hypokalemic alkalosis
89
Hemidesmosomes and desmosomes present in which pathology?
Hemi - bullous pemphigoid Desmo - pemp vulgaris
90
Hypotension, raised JVP and clear lung fields make up the classic triad of?
RV infarction
91
Differentiating primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Primary - low PTH Secondary - raised PTH
92
Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy as well as contralateral hemiparesis?
Weber's syndrome - midbrain lesion
93
Primary hyperaldosteronism, bilateral renal artery stenosis and Bartter syndrome?
Hypokalaemia and raised aldosterone