Internal Medicine Boards and Wards Flashcards
(278 cards)
0
Q
______________ is considered hypertensive urgency
A
220/110 without end-organ damage is considered hypertensive urgency
1
Q
Most cases of HTN are considered __________
A
Most cases of HTN are considered essential HTN
2
Q
______________ is considered hypertensive emergency
A
220/110 with end-organ damage is considered hypertensive emergency
3
Q
____________ causes HTN in arms with decreased blood pressure in legs
A
Coarctation of the aorta causes HTN in arms with decreased blood pressure in legs
4
Q
_________ causes wide pulse pressure
A
Aortic regurgitation causes wide pulse pressure
5
Q
Causes of secondary hypertension _________
A
Causes of secondary hypertension:
Cardiovascular: Aortic regurgation and Coarctation of the aorta
Renal: Glomerular disease, renal artery stenosis, polycystic kidneys
Endocrine: Hypersteroidism (Cushing’s or Conn’s), Pheochromocytoma, Hyperthyroidism
Drug induced: OCPs, Glucocorticoids, Phenylephrine, NSAIDs
6
Q
Treatment for hypertensive emergency is _________, but ____________
A
Treatment for hypertensive emergency is nitroprusside, but do not lower BP more than 1/4 within the first hour or the pt may stroke
7
Q
Lifestyle changes for patient with HTN include ________
A
Lifestyle changes for patient with HTN include:
Weight loss
Exercise
Salt restriction
Quitting alcohol and smoking can each lower BP
8
Q
________ decrease Calcium excretion
A
Thiazide diuretics decrease Calcium excretion
9
Q
First line treatment for Prinzmetal’s angina is _____
A
First line treatment for Prinzmetal’s angina is CCB
10
Q
First line treatment for atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter is __________
A
First line treatment for atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter is diltiazem or verapamil
11
Q
Betablockers are contraindicated with _________
A
Betablockers are contraindicated with COPD, due to bronchospasm
12
Q
ACEIs are contraindicated with _________
A
ACEIs are contraindicated with pregnancy due to teratogenicity, renal artery stenosis due to precipitation of acute renal failure, renal failure due to hyperkalemia mobility
13
Q
K+ sparing diuretics are contraindicated with ___________
A
K+ sparing diuretics are contraindicated with renal failure due to hyperkalemia mobility
14
Q
Diuretics are contraindicated with _______
A
Diuretics are contraindicated with gout
15
Q
Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated with _____________
A
Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated with CHF due to depression of contractility
16
Q
Diagnosis of ACS is based on _______
A
Diagnosis of ACS is based on H&P, Cardiac enzymes, and EKG
17
Q
Indications for coronary artery bypass graft include _________
A
Indications for coronary artery bypass graft include:
Failure of medical treatment
3-vessel CAD
2-vessel CAD in DM
18
Q
First line treatment for cholesterol reduction is __________
A
First line treatment for cholesterol reduction is HMG-CoA reductase inhibtors
19
Q
Side effect of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors is __________
A
Side effect of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors is muscle injury
20
Q
First line treatment for raising HDL levels are __________
A
First line treatment for raising HDL levels are Fibric acid derivatives
21
Q
Best for decreasing triglyceride levels and increasing HDL levels is _________
A
Best for decreasing triglyceride levels and increasing HDL levels is Nicotinic acid
22
Q
Cautions for nicotinic acid include _________
A
Cautions for nicotinic acid include:
Nicotinic flush
Can worsen gout
Can worsen diabetic control
23
Q
Isolated hypertriglyceridemia treated with ________
A
Isolated hypertriglyceridemia treated with gemfibrozil
24
If within 6 hours of myocardial infarction, _________
If within 6 hours of myocardial infarction, initiate heparin and thrombolytics
25
Priority treatments with an MI include ________
Priority treatments with an MI include Aspirin (#1) and Beta-blockers (#2)
26
Diagnostic findings of Prinzmetal's angina include __________
Diagnostic findings of Prinzmetal's angina include ST elevation, but negative cardiac enzymes
27
Treatment for Prinzmetal's angina is _______
Treatment for Prinzmetal's angina is Nitroglycerin or Calcium Channel Blocker
28
Gold standard for diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome is ______
Gold standard for diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome is cardiac catheterization
29
Pathologic Q wave is _______
Pathologic Q wave is > 1 box or 0.04s
30
Characteristic features of LBBB are _______
```
Characteristic features of LBBB are:
Broad monophasic R in I and avL
Deep S in V1
RSR' in V5 and V6
QRS > 0.12ms
```
31
Characteristic features of RBBB are ______
Characteristic features of RBBB are:
QRS > 0.12ms
RSR' in V1 and V2
Deep S in lead I, avL,V5, V6
32
Characteristics of Junctional rhythm ________
Characteristics of Junctional rhythm:
Narrow QRS
Absent P waves
Rate of 40-60 bpm
33
Characteristics of Ventricular rhythm ______
Characteristics of Ventricular rhythm:
| Wide QRS
34
Multifocal atrial tachycardia refers to _________
Multifocal atrial tachycardia refers to more than 3 different p waves with a ventricular rate > 100
35
Diagnostic test to rule out SVT is __________
Diagnostic test to rule out SVT is failure to break SVT with adenosine
36
Asymptomatic and non-hypotensive patient who presents with Ventricular Tachycardia should be treated with __________
Asymptomatic and non-hypotensive patient who presents with Ventricular Tachycardia should be treated with Amiodarone or Lidocaine
37
First-line regimen for congestive heart failure includes _________
First-line regimen for congestive heart failure includes
ACEIs or ARBs
Beta-blockers (ONLY when pt is diuresed
Diuretics
38
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy ________
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy include:
Ischemia, Infection (Coxsackie, Chagas), Alcoholism
Systolic disease
ACEIs, BBs, Diuretics
39
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy _________
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy include:
Genetic myosin disorder
Diastolic disease
Treated with implanted defibrillator
40
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Causes, symptoms, and treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy:
Amyloidosis, Scleroderma, Hemachromatosis
Diastolic disease
Treat underlying disease
41
Diastolic apical rumble and opening snap suggests __________
Diastolic apical rumble and opening snap suggests mitral stenosis
42
Late systolic murmur with midsystolic click suggests __________
Late systolic murmur with midsystolic click suggests mitral valve prolapse
43
High pitched holosystolic apical murmur radiating to the axilla suggests ___________
High pitched holosystolic apical murmur radiating to the axilla suggests mitral regurgitation
44
Tricuspid mitral disorders are louder with __________
Tricuspid mitral disorders are louder with inspiration
45
Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur along R sternal border radiating into the carotids suggests __________
Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur along R sternal border radiating into the carotids suggests Aortic stenosis
46
Pulsus parvus at tardus is _________
Pulsus parvus at tardus is when peripheral pulses are delayed compared to heart sounds, suggestive of aortic stenosis
47
Murmurs seen in Aortic regurgitation include ________
Murmurs seen in Aortic regurgitation include:
- Blowing early diastolic at aorta and LSB
- Austin Flint = apical diastolic rumble like mitral stenosis but no opening snap
- Midsystolic flow murmur at base
48
Murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy increases with _________
Murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy increases with standing and valsalva
49
Classic signs of Aortic regurgitation include ________
Classic signs of Aortic regurgitation include:
Waterhammer pulse (wide pulse pressure with forceful arterial pulse upswing and rapid falloff)
Traube's sign (Pistol-shot bruit over femoral pulse)
Corrigan's pulse (Unusually large carotid pulsations)
Quincke's sign (Pulsatile blanching and reddening of fingernails with pressure)
de Mussett's sign (Head bobbing caused by carotid pulsations)
Muller sign (Pulsatile bobbing of uvula)
Duroziez's sign (To-and-fro murmur over femoral artery heard best with mild pressure applied to artery)
50
Graham-Steel murmur is characteristic of __________
Graham-Steel murmur is characteristic of pulmonic regurgitation
51
Acute endocarditis is commonly caused by ________
Acute endocarditis is commonly caused by Staph aureus
52
Subacute endocarditis commonly caused by _______
Subacute endocarditis commonly caused by Strep viridans and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Aggregatibacteria, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)
53
MC cause of culture-negative endocarditis is __________
MC cause of culture-negative endocarditis is giving antibiotics before blood cultures, Q fever, Whipple's, Bartonella
54
Systemic lupus erythematosis causes _______ endocarditis
Systemic lupus erythematosis causes Libman-Sacks endocarditis
55
Empiric treatment for endocarditis is _________
Empiric treatment for endocarditis is vancomycin (MRSA), oxacillin (MSSA), 3rd generation cephalosporin (Strep species)
56
Dukes criteria is _________
Dukes criteria is:
Major- Blood cultures, Positive echo, new murmur
Minor- predisposition, fever, embolic disease, immunologic phenomena, positive blood cultures
57
To diagnose Rheumatic fever, use _______
```
To diagnose Rheumatic fever, use
Jones criteria
Joints
Carditis
Subcutaneous Nodules
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham's chorea, Positive Strep test
```
58
Classic signs for Cardiac tamponade include ________
Classic signs for Cardiac tamponade include Beck's triad
| (Muffled heart sounds, JVD, hypotension), pulsus paradoxus, electrical alternans
59
Diffuse ST elevation is suggestive of _________
Diffuse ST elevation is suggestive of pericarditis
60
Common causes for COPD include ________
Common causes for COPD include smoking and alpha-1 antitrypsin disease (causing panacinar disease)
61
Tram-track lung marking on chest xr is suggestive of _______
Tram-track lung marking on chest xr is suggestive of bronchiectasis
62
Honeycomb pattern on chest xr is suggestive of ________
Honeycomb pattern on chest xr is suggestive of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
63
Pulmonary capillary wedge is ARDS if ______ and cardiac if ______
Pulmonary capillary wedge is ARDS if <12 and cardiogenic if >12
64
Virchow's triad includes _________
Virchow's triad includes Hypercoagulability, Vessel wall injury, Venous stasis
65
Pathognomonic EKG findings for a pulmonary embolism include _______
Pathognomonic EKG findings for a pulmonary embolism include:
Deep S wave in Lead I
Pathologic Q wave in Lead III
Inverted T wave in Lead III
66
Pulmonary Hypertension is defined as _______
Pulmonary Hypertension is defined as pulmonary pressure > 1/4 systemic pressure
67
Characteristics of Horner's syndrome includes _______
Characteristics of Horner's syndrome includes miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis
68
Superior sulcus tumor (Pancoasts tumor) may cause _________
Superior sulcus tumor (Pancoasts tumor) may cause Horner's syndrome or Superior vena cava syndrome
69
MC lung cancer found in smokers is ________
MC lung cancer found in smokers is adenocarcinoma
70
Lung cancer with the poorest prognosis is ________
Lung cancer with the poorest prognosis is large cell carcinoma and small cell carcinoma
71
Cancer that leads to hypercalcemia is _______
Cancer that leads to hypercalcemia is squamous cell carcinoma
72
Lung cancers found along the hilar location is ________
Lung cancers found along the hilar location is small cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
73
Small cell carcinoma has a close link to ______
Small cell carcinoma has a close link to smoking and Eaton-Lambert syndrome.
74
Lung cancer commonly seen in menstruating women is _______
Lung cancer commonly seen in menstruating women is lymphangio leiomyomatosis, presenting with pneumothorax
75
Condition that is similar to myasthenia gravis is _______
Condition that is similar to myasthenia gravis is Lambert-Eaton syndrome
76
Primary tuberculosis commonly affects the ________
Primary tuberculosis commonly affects the lower lung lobes
77
Classic radiologic finding of tuberculosis is ________
Classic radiologic finding of tuberculosis is calcified hilar lymph nodes called Ghon complexes
78
Secondary tuberculosis commonly affects the ______
Secondary tuberculosis commonly affects the apical lung
79
Millet, seedlike appearance or micronodular infiltrates spread throughout the lung fields is suggestive of ________
Millet, seedlike appearance or micronodular infiltrates spread throughout the lung fields is suggestive of military tuberculosis
80
Tuberculosis of the spine, also known as ______, causes _________
Tuberculosis of the spine, also known as Pott's disease, causes multiple compression fractures of the spine
81
Tuberculosis of the cervical region, also called ______, causes __________
Tuberculosis of the cervical region, also called Scrofula, causes cervical lymphadenopathy
82
PPD is positive if ______
PPD is positive if
>5mm (HIV, immunosuppressed, exposure)
>10mm (works in a jail, nursing home, ivdu)
>15mm (no risk factors)
83
Treatment of latent tuberculosis is ______
Treatment of latent tuberculosis is isoniazid x 9 months
84
Active infection of tuberculosis is based on ________
Active infection of tuberculosis is based on cxr, sputum, clinical assessment
85
Treatment of active tuberculosis is _________
Treatment of active tuberculosis is rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
86
Empiric treatment for community acquired pneumonia is _________
Empiric treatment for community acquired pneumonia is:
- 3rd generation cephalosporin + Doxycyline or Macrolide
- Monotherapy with fluoroquinolone
- Cephalosporin + Fluoroquinolone
87
MC identified cause of community acquired pneumonia is _________
MC identified cause of community acquired pneumonia is Strep pneumoniae
88
"Currant jelly" sputum is suggestive of ________
"Currant jelly" sputum is suggestive of Klebsiella pneumonia
89
Pneumonia that precipitates after influenza suggests _______
Pneumonia that precipitates after influenza suggests Staph aureus
90
Pneumonia associated with air conditioning suggests _________
Pneumonia associated with air conditioning suggests Legionella pneumonia
91
Pneumonia with bouts of diarrhea is suggestive of _________
Pneumonia with bouts of diarrhea is suggestive of Legionella
92
Staccato cough pneumonia is suggestive of ________
Staccato cough pneumonia is suggestive of Chlamydial pneumonia
93
Type A gastritis is ________
Type A gastritis is fundal gastritis, commonly autoimmune and due to pernicious anemia
94
Type B gastritis is ________
Type B gastritis is antral gastritis, commonly due to H. pylori, NSAIDs, herpes, CMV
95
Gastric ulcers are worse with _______
Gastric ulcers are worse with food intake
96
Duodenal ulcers are relieved with ______
Duodenal ulcers are relieved with food intake
97
Noncaseating granulomas, cobblestone mucosa, creeping fat on gross dissection, skip lesions suggests _________
Noncaseating granulomas, cobblestone mucosa, creeping fat on gross dissection, skip lesions suggests Crohn's disease
98
Completely benign hyperbilirubinemia is ___________
Completely benign hyperbilirubinemia is Gilbert's syndrome
99
Hyperbilirubinemia syndromes with increased unconjugated bilirubin are ____________
Hyperbilirubinemia syndromes with increased unconjugated bilirubin are Gilbert's syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome
100
Syndrome with increase conjugated bilirubin and black liver suggests __________
Syndrome with increase conjugated bilirubin and black liver suggests Dubin-Johnson syndrome
101
Strong correlation between sclerosing cholangitis and __________
Strong correlation between sclerosing cholangitis and ulcerative colitis
102
Primary biliary cirrhosis is diagnosed with __________
Primary biliary cirrhosis is diagnosed with serology for antimitochondrial antibody test, confirmed with biopsy
103
Signs suggestive of alcoholic hepatitis include _________
```
Signs suggestive of alcoholic hepatitis include:
Palmar erythema
Dupuytren's contracture
Spider angiomas
Gynecomastia
Caput medusa
```
104
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis commonly an infection by __________
```
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis commonly an infection by:
E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterococcus
Streptococcus
```
105
Treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is _________
Treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, plus IV albumin to maintain renal perfusion pressure
106
Asterixis is suggestive of _________
Asterixis is suggestive of hepatic encephalopathy
107
Hepatic encephalopathy is treated with _________
Hepatic encephalopathy is treated with lactulose, which acidifies the bowel, preventing reabsorption of ammonia.
108
Signs suggestive Wernicke's encephalopathy include ________
Signs suggestive Wernicke's encephalopathy include incontinence, ataxia, confusion, opthalmoplegia
109
First sign of alcoholic withdrawal is ______
First sign of alcoholic withdrawal is tremors
110
Delirium tremens typically occurs ______ after the last alcoholic drink
Delirium tremens typically occurs 72 hours after the last alcoholic drink
111
Treatment for alcoholic withdrawal includes _________
Treatment for alcoholic withdrawal includes thiamine, B12, glucose, fluids, electrolytes
112
Hemochromatosis is commonly due to mutation of ______
Hemochromatosis is commonly due to mutation of HFE gene, causing excessive absorption of iron from the gut
113
"Bronze diabetes" refers to ________
"Bronze diabetes" refers to hemochromatosis
114
Treatment for hemochromatosis is _________
Treatment for hemochromatosis is phlebotomy
115
Disorder of excess copper in the tissues is _________
Disorder of excess copper in the tissues is Wilson's disease
116
Wilson's disease is diagnosed _________
Wilson's disease is diagnosed clinically and with decreased ceruplasmin level
117
Portal hypertension is defined as __________
Portal hypertension is defined as > 12 mm Hg, normal is 6-8
118
Budd-Chiari syndrome is _________
Budd-Chiari syndrome is acquired thrombosis occluding hepatic vein or hepatic stretch of IVC
119
_______ are pathognomonic for glomerulonephritis
RBC casts are pathognomonic for glomerulonephritis
120
MC cause of acute renal failure is _____
MC cause of acute renal failure is Acute Tubular Necrosis
121
Treatment for central diabetes insipidus is ________
Treatment for central diabetes insipidus is DDAVP
122
Signs of nephrotic syndrome include ________
```
Signs of nephrotic syndrome include:
Proteinuria
Anasarca (Generalized edema)
Hypoalbuminemia
Hyperlipidemia
```
123
Signs of nephritis syndrome include _________
Signs of nephritis syndrome include:
HTN
Oliguria
Coca cola urine (Hematuria)
124
Nephrotic glomerulonephropathy commonly seen in children is ____________
Nephrotic glomerulonephropathy commonly seen in children is Minimal Change Disease
125
MC primary cause of nephritic syndrome is _________
MC primary cause of nephritic syndrome is membranous glomerulonephritis
126
Acute hypertension with low serum potassium suggests _________
Acute hypertension with low serum potassium suggests acute renal artery stenosis
127
MC worldwide nephropathy is ________
MC worldwide nephropathy is IgA Berger's disease
128
Abdominal pain, hematuria, palpable purpura to buttocks and lower extremities suggests _______
Abdominal pain, hematuria, palpable purpura to buttocks and lower extremities suggests Henoch-Schonlein purpura
129
Bence-Jones proteins are suggestive of _________
Bence-Jones proteins are suggestive of Multiple myeloma
130
Kidney stones may be made of __________
Kidney stones may be made of calcium oxalate, magnesium ammonium phosphate, calcium phosphate, uric acid
131
The majority of kidney stones are radio________
The majority of kidney stones are radioopaque
132
Uric acid kidney stones are radio_____
Uric acid kidney stones are radiolucent
133
Palpable flank mass in a toddler should raise a suspicion for _________
Palpable flank mass in a toddler should raise a suspicion for Wilm's tumor
134
WAGR complex includes _________
```
WAGR complex includes:
Wilm's tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary malformations
Retardation
```
135
Prolactinomas are treated with ________
Prolactinomas are treated with bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)
136
Anterior pituitary secretes _________
```
Anterior pituitary secretes:
Growth hormone
TSH
Prolactin
ACTH
FSH
LH
```
137
Posterior pituitary secretes _________
Posterior pituitary secretes:
Oxytocin
Vasopressin
138
Treatment for acromegaly includes administration of _________
Treatment for acromegaly includes administration of octreotide
139
Kussmaul breathing is described as ________
Kussmaul breathing is described as deep and labored breathing
140
Diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis requires _________
Diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis requires glucose >500, ketosis, metabolic acidosis
141
Treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis is ________
Treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis is:
IV fluids
Dextrose (When glucose <200)
Potassium (When Potassium is low or normal)
142
DM diagnosed with ______
DM diagnosed with:
FBG > 125
RBG > 200
Hba1c > 6.5
143
Physiology of Hba1c is _______
Physiology of Hba1c is:
Glucose irreversibly binds to hemoglobin to form hemoglobin a1c
Red blood cells have life span of 120 days, therefore glycated hemoglobin reflects glucose levels over 2-3 months
144
Mechanics behind Metformin is _______
Mechanics behind Metformin is:
Upregulates insulin receptors
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Contraindicated in renal failure and CHF
145
Mechanics behind Sulfonylureas is _________
Mechanics behind Sulfonylureas is:
| Stimulates insulin secretion
146
Waterhouse-Friedrichsen is _________
Waterhouse-Friedrichsen is hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands secondary to meningococcemia
147
Conn's syndrome is also called __________
Conn's syndrome is also called Primary hyperaldosteronism, which ocurs in the zona glomerulosa
148
Pheochromocytoma originates from the ________
Pheochromocytoma originates from the adrenal medulla
149
Pheochromocytomas are diagnosed with ________
Pheochromocytomas are diagnosed with 24 hour catecholamines or vanyllmandelic acid
150
XXY chromosome inheritance is considered __________
XXY chromosome inheritance is considered Klinefelter's syndrome
151
Klinefelter's syndrome is diagnosed with _________
Klinefelter's syndrome is diagnosed with buccal smear analysis for presence of Barr bodies
152
With a 5-alpha-reductase deficiency, treatment is _______
With a 5-alpha-reductase deficiency, treatment is testosterone
153
Two findings only seen in hyperthyroid because of Grave's disease are __________
Two findings only seen in hyperthyroid because of Grave's disease are infiltrative opthalmopathy and tibial myxedema
154
Toxic multinodular goiter is also called ________
Toxic multinodular goiter is also called Plummer's disease
155
Short limbs, classic almond-shaped eyes with strabismus suggests _________
Short limbs, classic almond-shaped eyes with strabismus suggests Prader-Willi syndrome
156
Autosomal dominant hypogonadism associated with anosmia suggests ___________
Autosomal dominant hypogonadism associated with anosmia suggests Kallman syndrome
157
Treatment for subclinical thyroiditis is ________
Treatment for subclinical thyroiditis is self resolution within weeks or months when cause burns itself out
158
Treatment for thyroid storm includes ________
Treatment for thyroid storm includes BB, PTU, iodine
159
The only emergent hypothyroid condition is _________
The only emergent hypothyroid condition is myxedema coma
160
Radioactive _____ nodules have a greater potential of being malignant
Radioactive cold nodules have a greater potential of being malignant
161
Most common cancer of thyroid is _________
Most common cancer of thyroid is papillary
162
Thyroid cancer with the poorest prognosis is ________
Thyroid cancer with the poorest prognosis is anaplastic
163
Thyroid cancer that typically results from blood-borne metastasis to bone and lung is ________
Thyroid cancer that typically results from blood-borne metastasis to bone and lung is follicular
164
"Ground glass Orphan Annie nucleus psammoma bodies" are suggestive of __________
"Ground glass Orphan Annie nucleus psammoma bodies" are suggestive of papillary thyroid cancer
165
MEN IA Syndromes _______
```
MEN IA Syndromes:
"Wermer's Syndrome"
Pituitary (Prolactinoma)
Parathyroid
Pancreatoma
```
166
Men IIA Syndromes _______
```
Men IIA Syndromes:
"Sipple's Syndrome"
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid ca
Parathyroid hyperplasia or tumor
```
167
MenIIB Syndromes ________
```
MenIIB Syndromes:
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid ca
Mucocutaneous neuromas,
particularly of the GI tract
```
168
Osteoporosis is a result of _________
Osteoporosis is a result of decreased estrogen
169
Recommended dietary intake of calcium for osteoporosis patients is ___________
Recommended dietary intake of calcium for osteoporosis patients is > 1.5g daily
170
Rickets disease is __________
Rickets disease is Vitamin D deficiency in children
171
Osteomalacia is ___________
Osteomalacia is Vitamin D deficiency in adults
172
Signs of rickets include _________
```
Signs of rickets include:
Craniotabes
Rachitic rosary
Harrison's groove
Pigeon breast
```
173
Scurvy is caused by a _________
Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C
174
Signs of scurvy include _________
Signs of scurvy include:
Bleeding gums
"Woody leg" from soft tissue hemorrhage
175
Osteitis deformans is also called ____________. Signs include _________
Osteitis deformans is also called Paget's bone disease. Signs include high incidence of fractures, high output cardiac failure, hearing loss
176
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection commonly due to _________
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection commonly due to S. aureus, but Pseudomonas in IVDU, Salmonella in sickle cell patients
177
Gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis is ________
Gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis is MRI
178
Primary bone tumor with "onion skin" appearance on XR is _______
Primary bone tumor with "onion skin" appearance on XR is Ewing's sarcoma
179
MC primary bone tumor with "Codman's triangle" or "sunburst appearance" on XR suggests ________
Primary bone tumor with "Codman's triangle" or "sunburst appearance" on XR suggests osteosarcoma
180
Primary bone tumor with "soap bubble" sign on XR suggests _________
Primary bone tumor with "soap bubble" sign on XR suggests Giant cell
181
Multiple myeloma is diagnosed with __________
Multiple myeloma is diagnosed with SPEP or UPEP or Bence-Jones proteinuria
182
Multiple myeloma is suggested by XR with ____________
Multiple myeloma is suggested by XR with multiple punched out radiolucencies
183
RA patients are commonly positive for HLA____
RA patients are commonly positive for HLA-DR4
184
RA typically affects _______
RA typically affects MCPs and PIPs
185
Lab values ordered when working up RA include _________
Lab values ordered when working up RA include RA and anti-CCP
186
Patients with SLE have false positive STD screenings for ________
Patients with SLE have false positive STD screenings for syphilis
187
Lab values ordered when working up SLE include _________
```
Lab values ordered when working up SLE include:
ANA
Anti-DS-DNA Abs
Anti-Ro, Anti-La
Anti-Smith Abs
Antiphospholipid auto Abs
```
188
Signs of SLE include _________
```
Signs of SLE include:
"DOPAMINE RASH"
Discoid lupus (Round macules with scales)
Oral apthous ulcers
Photosensitivity
Arthritis
Malar Rash
Immunologic criteria
Neurologic symptoms
ESR elevated
```
Renal disease
ANA
Serositis (pleurisy or pericarditis)
Hematologic disease (Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia)
189
________ is a poor prognostic factor in SLE
Renal disease is a poor prognostic factor in SLE
190
Sjogren's disease is affiliated with HLA____
Sjogren's disease is affiliated with HLADR3
191
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, arthritis suggests __________
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, arthritis suggests Sjogren's syndrome
192
Classic triad of Sjogren's syndrome is __________
Classic triad of Sjogren's syndrome is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, arthritis
193
Treatment for Sjogren's syndrome includes _________
Treatment for Sjogren's syndrome includes steroids and cyclophosphamide
194
Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are found in __________
Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are found in Osteoarthritis
195
Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with HLA____
Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with HLAB27
196
Bamboo spine is in reference to ______
Bamboo spine is in reference to ankylosing spondylitis
197
Ankylosing spondylitis may be ruled out as a diagnosis if ________
Ankylosing spondylitis may be ruled out as a diagnosis if sacroiliac is not involved
198
Reactive arthritis is associated with HLA____
Reactive arthritis is associated with HLAB27
199
Signs of reactive arthritis include ______
```
Signs of reactive arthritis include:
Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Arthritis
Dermatologic signs (Keratoderma blennorrhagicum and circinate balanitis)
```
200
Signs of Scleroderma include ________
```
Signs of Scleroderma include:
Calcinosis
Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias
```
201
Lab orders for workup of Scleroderma include __________
Lab orders for workup of Scleroderma include ANA, anticentromere, anti-SCL
202
Noncaseating granulomas on lung biopsy are suggestive of ________
Noncaseating granulomas on lung biopsy are suggestive of sarcoidosis
203
First line treatment for sarcoidosis is __________
First line treatment for sarcoidosis is Prednisone
204
Clinical triad of gout includes _________
Clinical triad of gout includes monoarticular arthritis, hyperuricemia, improvement with colchicine
205
"Rat-bite appearance" on XR is suggestive of _______
"Rat-bite appearance" on XR is suggestive of gout
206
Gout is suggested by aspiration of _________
Gout is suggested by aspiration of strongly negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals
207
Pseudogout is suggested by aspiration of ___________
Pseudogout is suggested by aspiration of weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
208
Polymyalgia rheumatica is associated with ________
Polymyalgia rheumatica is associated with temporal arteritis
209
________ can result in patients with this chronic lung disorder due to their chronic state of hypoxemia.
Polycythemia can result in patients with this chronic lung disorder due to their chronic state of hypoxemia.
210
Signs suggestive of TTP include ___________
```
Signs suggestive of TTP include:
"FAT RN"
Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal disorder
Neurological disorder
```
211
Drugs that should be avoided in a patient with G6PD include ____________
Drugs that should be avoided in a patient with G6PD include Nitrofurantoin, Bactrim and sulfa-based medications, antimalarial drugs, aspirin, and some NSAIDs
212
Depression with insomnia may be treated with _________
Depression with insomnia may be treated with Trazadone
213
Depression with anxiety may be treated with ___________
Depression with anxiety may be treated with Fluoxetine
214
Depression with difficulty "getting going" may be treated with __________
Depression with difficulty "getting going" may be treated with Sertraline
215
Depression with insomnia and decreased appetite may be treated with ___________
Depression with insomnia and decreased appetite may be treated with Mirtazapine
216
Definitive test for diagnosing influenza is ________
Definitive test for diagnosing influenza is viral culture
217
"Exclamation point hairs" is suggestive of _______
"Exclamation point hairs" is suggestive of alopecia areata
218
Multiorgan involvement, with cough, and elevated ACE levels suggests _______
Multiorgan involvement, with cough, and elevated ACE levels suggests Sarcoidosis
219
Treatment for Meniere's disease includes _________
Treatment for Meniere's disease includes salt restriction, diuretics, Scopolamine
220
XR imaging suggestive of pleural effusion is ___________
XR imaging suggestive of pleural effusion is blunting of costophrenic angles
221
Patient who is referred for a CT should be cautioned if taking the medication ___________
Patient who is referred for a CT should be cautioned if taking the medication Metformin for acute renal failure
222
Duchenne's Muscular dystrophy is characterized by _________
Duchenne's Muscular dystrophy is characterized by proximal muscle weakness and calf hypertrophy
223
Autoinflammatory disease associated with malignancy is ________
Autoinflammatory disease associated with malignancy is polymyositis and dermatomyositis
224
Polymyositis is diagnosed with __________
Polymyositis is diagnosed with ANA and anti-Jo1 Antibodies
225
Treatment for SLE includes _________
Treatment for SLE includes NSAIDs, hydroxychloroquine, cyclophosphamide, prednisone
226
Myasthenia gravis is when antibodies are present at _________
Myasthenia gravis is when antibodies are present at the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
227
Myasthenia gravis is diagnose with _________
Myasthenia gravis is diagnose with edrophonium "Tensilon" test
228
Lambert eaton is when antibodies are present at ___________
Lambert eaton is when antibodies are present at presynaptic calcium channels
229
Lambert eaton is associated with ________ cancer
Lambert eaton is associated with small cell lung cancer
230
Difference between Lambert eaton and Myasthenia gravis is _________
Difference between Lambert eaton and Myasthenia gravis is that with Lambert eaton, symptoms improve with muscle use
231
If patients have Myasthenia gravis or Lambert eaton syndrome, avoid _______
If patients have Myasthenia gravis or Lambert eaton syndrome, avoid aminoglycosides
232
First line treatment for myasthenia gravis is __________. But for severe myasthenia gravis is ____________
First line treatment for myasthenia gravis is pyridostigmine. But for severe myasthenia gravis is steroids, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine
233
Number one cause of anemia in the world is _______
Number one cause of anemia in the world is hookworm
234
In the elderly, anemia is considered due to _______, until proven otherwise
In the elderly, anemia is considered due to colon cancer, until proven otherwise
235
Basophilic stippling is seen in _________
Basophilic stippling is seen in sideroblastic anemia, lead poisoning, arsenic poisoning, alpha and beta thalassemia
236
Alpha and beta thalassemias are differentiated with __________
Alpha and beta thalassemias are differentiated with gel electrophoesis of globin proteins
237
Alpha-thalassemia is common in ________
Alpha-thalassemia is common in Asians
238
Beta-thalassemia is common in _________
Beta-thalassemia is common in Mediterraneans and Africans
239
Gallstones in children, suspect _________
Gallstones in children, suspect sickle cell anemia or spherocytosis
240
Sickle cell anemics are at risk for aplastic anemia by ____________
Sickle cell anemics are at risk for aplastic anemia by Parvovirus B19
241
Hypersegmented neutrophils are pathognomonic for __________
Hypersegmented neutrophils are pathognomonic for megaloblastic anemias
242
MC cause of vitamin b12 deficiency is __________
MC cause of vitamin b12 deficiency is pernicious anemia
243
Pathology of pernicious anemia is __________
Pathology of pernicious anemia is antibodies are formed against gastric parietal cells, decreasing production of intrinsic factor needed for uptake of B12 in terminal ileum
244
Pernicious anemia is diagnosed with _________
Pernicious anemia is diagnosed with increased methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels
245
Folic acid is derived from ________
Folic acid is derived from green leafy vegeatbles
246
Folic acid anemia is diagnosed with _________
Folic acid anemia is diagnosed with normal methylmalonic acid and increased homocysteine levels
247
Thrombocytopenia may be caused by __________
Thrombocytopenia may be caused by splenic sequestration, stem-cell failure or increased destruction
248
Decreased thrombocyte production seen in _________
Decreased thrombocyte production seen in leukemia, aplastic anemia, and alcohol
249
Anemia with renal etiology is due to ________
Anemia with renal etiology is due to decreased erythropoeitin from the kidney
250
Schistocytes are observed in __________
Schistocytes are observed in DIC, Hemolytic uremic syndrome, thombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
251
In children, idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is due to __________. In adults, _______
In children, idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is due to recent URI and is self limiting. In adults, it is chronic
252
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is commonly due to _________
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is commonly due to infection of E. coli 0157:H7
253
Most commonly inherited bleeding disorder is _________
Most commonly inherited bleeding disorder is Von Willebrand's disease
254
Lab values of Von Willebrand's disease include ________
Lab values of Von Willebrand's disease include Increased bleeding time and normal PT/PTT
255
Treatment for Von Willebrand's is ________
Treatment for Von Willebrand's is DDAVP
256
Lab values for hemophilia are ________
Lab values for hemophilia are increased PTT, normal PT, normal bleeding time
257
All myeloproliferative diseases may transform into _________
All myeloproliferative diseases may transform into acute leukemias
258
Pruritus after showering, basophilia is suggestive of __________
Pruritus after showering, basophilia is suggestive of polycythemia vera
259
MC neoplasm in children is _________
MC neoplasm in children is Acute lymphocytic leukemia
260
Auer rods should make you think of ________
Auer rods should make you think of Acute myelogenous leukemia
261
Philadelphia chromosome involves chromosomes ______ and suggests _______
Philadelphia chromosome involves chromosomes 9 and 22 and suggests chronic myelogenous leukemia
262
Smudge cells should make you think of _______
Smudge cells should make you think of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
263
Hairy cell leukemia should make you think of __________
Hairy cell leukemia should make you think of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
264
Burkitt's lymphoma is a type of ________ related to ________
Burkitt's lymphoma is a type of Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma related to Epstein-Barr virus
265
"Starry sky" pattern on histology suggests ________
"Starry sky" pattern on histology suggests Burkitt's lymphoma
266
Pel-Ebstein fevers are suggestive of _______
Pel-Ebstein fevers are suggestive of Hodgkin's lymphoma
267
Lymphoma that worsens with alcohol is _______
Lymphoma that worsens with alcohol is Hodgkin's
268
Reed-Sternberg cells suggest ________
Reed-Sternberg cells suggest Hodgkin's lymphoma
269
Mononucleated giant lacunar cells suggest _________
Mononucleated giant lacunar cells suggest Hodgkin's lymphoma
270
Treatment for bites is _______
Treatment for bites is Amoxicillin-clavulonic acid
271
Treatment for abdominal infections is ________
Treatment for abdominal infections is 3rd generation cephalosporins plus metronidazole
272
Treatment for community acquired pneumonia is _________
Treatment for community acquired pneumonia is 3rd generation cephalosporin plus macrolide or fluoroquinolone
273
Treatment for cholangitis is ________
Treatment for cholangitis is 3rd generation cephalosporin plus metronidazole
274
Treatment for dental infection is ________
Treatment for dental infection is clindamycin
275
Treatment for meningitis is ________
Treatment for meningitis is Cefepime plus Vancomycin (plus Ampicillin, if elderly)
276
Treatment for osteomyelitis is ________
Treatment for osteomyelitis is 3rd generation cephalosporin plus vancomycin
277
Anion gap is calculated with ________
Anion gap is calculated with = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
