Step 1 Buzzwords Anatomy

Question 0

Is an Afferent or Efferent pupillary defect described as B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the Unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light is shined in the Affected eye?

Answer 0

Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an Efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L Constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.

Question 1

GROSS ANATOMY

What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?

Answer 1

Thyroid gland

Question 2

What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?

Answer 2

Cauda equinia

Question 3

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:

Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid, relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch?

Answer 3

Thyroarytenoid muscles

Question 4

Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing the distance between the cartilages, thereby increasing the pitch?

Answer 4

Cricothyroid muscles

Question 5

Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the air passageway during swallowing, and allows phonation?

Answer 5

Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

Question 6

Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords?

Answer 6

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles

Question 7

Where does the parotid (Stensen’s) duct enter the oral cavity?

Answer 7

Opposite the second upper molar tooth

Question 8

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?

Common and internal carotid arteries

Answer 8

Third aortic arch

Question 9

Degenerates

Answer 9

Fifth

Question 10

Stapes artery

Answer 10

Second

Question 11

Maxillary artery

Answer 11

First

Question 12

Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery

Answer 12

Fourth

Question 13

Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus

Answer 13

Sixth. MS CARD is the mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives. M, Maxillary; S, Stapes; C, Common and internal carotid; A, Arch of the aorta and right subclavian; R, Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus; D, Degenerates.

Question 14

What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal ligament, and in men gives rise to the external spermatic fascia of the spermatic cord?

Answer 14

External abdominal oblique

Question 15

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
Adduct the thigh and flex the hip

Answer 15

Medial compartment of the thigh, obturator nerve

Question 16

Plantar flex the foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot

Answer 16

Posterior compartment of the leg, common peroneal nerve

Question 17

Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot

Answer 17

Anterior compartment of the leg, deep peroneal nerve

Question 18

Flex the hip and extend the knee

Answer 18

Anterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve

Question 19

Extend the hip and flex the knee

Answer 19

Posterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve

Question 20

Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot

Answer 20

Lateral compartment of the leg, superficial peroneal nerve

Question 21

What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

Answer 21

STARS

1. upper Subscapularis
2. Thoracodorsal
3. Axillary
4. Radial
5. lower Subscapularis

Question 22

Name the correct artery.

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.

Answer 22

Right brachiocephalic artery

Question 23

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.

Answer 23

Arch of the aorta

Question 24

The inferior mesenteric artery drains into it.

Answer 24

The splenic vein

Question 25

Are the quadrate and caudate lobs of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe?

Answer 25

Functionally they are part of the Left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the Right lobe of the liver.

Question 26

What bones make up the acetabulum?

Answer 26

Pubis, ilium, and ischium

Question 27

What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?

Answer 27

LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)

Question 28

What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?

Answer 28

Middle meningeal artery

Question 29

True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus abdominis.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

What ocular muscle | Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?

Answer 30

Medial rectus (CN III)

Question 31

Elevates and adducts the eyeball?

Answer 31

Superior rectus (CN III)

Question 32

Depresses and abducts the eyeball?

Answer 32

Superior Oblique (CN IV)

Question 33

Elevates and abducts the eyeball?

Answer 33

Inferior Oblique (CN III)

Question 34

Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?

Answer 34

Lateral rectus (CN VI)

Question 35

Depresses and adducts the eyeball?

Answer 35

``` Inferior rectus (CN III) "LR6 SO4 R3" (CN VI, Lateral Rectus. CN IV, Superior Oblique. CN III innervates the Rest.) ```

Question 36

Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?

Answer 36

Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles

Question 37

Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?

Answer 37

A Left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the Right. (Uvula points Away from the affected side.)

Question 38

Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?

Answer 38

Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral Veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.

Question 39

Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?

Answer 39

CN I, II, III, VI, and XII | Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12

Question 40

What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?

Answer 40

"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major

Question 41

What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer 41

Chorda tympani of CN VII

Question 42

What part of the heart forms | The right border?

Answer 42

Right atrium

Question 43

Left border?

Answer 43

Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium

Question 44

Apex?

Answer 44

Tip of the left ventricle

Question 45

Base?

Answer 45

Left atrium and tip of the right atrium

Question 46

Superior border?

Answer 46

Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles

Question 47

Anterior wall?

Answer 47

Right ventricle

Question 48

Posterior wall?

Answer 48

Left atrium

Question 49

Diaphragmatic wall?

Answer 49

Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle

Question 50

What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex?

Answer 50

CN V1 carries the Sensory and CN VII carries the Motor component of the blink reflex.

Question 51

What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?

Answer 51

Stapedius muscle

Question 52

Name of the components of the femoral canal, working laterally to medially.

Answer 52

NAVEL: femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament

Question 53

What muscle is most superior in the orbit?

Answer 53

Levator palpebrae superioris

Question 54

What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?

Answer 54

Fibrous pericardium

Question 55

What two veins form the portal vein?

Answer 55

The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.

Question 56

What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?

Answer 56

CN II is the Sensory limb and CN III is the Motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.

Question 57

During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3-L4, with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark.

Answer 57

Order of puncture: 1, Skin. 2, Superficial fasica. 3, Deep fascia. 4, Supraspinous ligament. 5, Interspinous ligament. 6, Interlaminar space. 7, Epidural space. 8, Dura mater. 9, Arachnoid mater. 10, Subarachnoid space.

Question 58

What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal accomodation?

Answer 58

Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil

Question 59

What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?

Answer 59

Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)

Question 60

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

Answer 60

SITS - Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Supraspinatus

Question 61

What is the function of white rami communicantes?

Answer 61

They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.

Question 62

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? Suprascapular nerve

Answer 62

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

Question 63

Upper subscapularis nerve

Answer 63

Subscapularis

Question 64

Thoracodorsal nerve

Answer 64

Latissimus dorsi

Question 65

Long thoracic nerve

Answer 65

Serratus anterior

Question 66

What nerve is associated with the following functions? Flex the wrist and digits, pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand

Answer 66

Median nerve

Question 67

Flex the shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate the elbow

Answer 67

Musculocutaneous nerve

Question 68

Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers), and the intrinsic muscles of the hand

Answer 68

Ulnar nerve

Question 69

Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and digits, extend the shoulder and elbow

Answer 69

Radial nerve

Question 70

What abdominal muscle runs horizontally, contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and contributes to form the conjoint tendon?

Answer 70

Transverse abdominis

Question 71

Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag reflex?

Answer 71

The Sensory limb is via CN IX, and the Motor limb is from CN X.

Question 72

Which kidney is lower? Why?

Answer 72

The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.

Question 73

What two regions of the vertebral column are considered primary curvatures?

Answer 73

Thoracic and sacral

Question 74

What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?

Answer 74

Hemiazygous vein

Question 75

At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

Answer 75

When it crosses the teres major

Question 76

What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion?

Answer 76

Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the Left (points At the affected side).

Question 77

At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?

Answer 77

C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)

Question 78

True or false? Males are more likely to develop femoral hernias than females.

Answer 78

False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias than males (remember Female's Femoral).

Question 79

In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?

Answer 79

Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)

Question 80

Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the subclavian artery and vein?

Answer 80

The cupola of the lung is Posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.

Question 81

Trur or false? The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body.

Answer 81

True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing Lateral Rotation of the head.

Question 82

What is the largest muscle in the body?

Answer 82

Gluteus maximus

Question 83

At what vertebral levels does the Aortic Arch begin and end?

Answer 83

It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).

Question 84

What artery travels with the following veins? | Great cardiac vein

Answer 84

Left anterior descending artery

Question 85

Middle cardiac vein

Answer 85

Posterior interventricular artery

Question 86

Small cardiac vein

Answer 86

Right coronary artery

Question 87

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?

Answer 87

Internal carotid artery

Question 88

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at | T8 level?

Answer 88

IVC

Question 89

T10 level?

Answer 89

Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X)

Question 90

T12 level?

Answer 90

Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct. (Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12.)

Question 91

Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?

Answer 91

The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low) receptor, while the carotid body is an oxygen-sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus Pressure")

Question 92

What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and taste to the posterior third of the tongue?

Answer 92

CN XI and X

Question 93

Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?

Answer 93

Dilator pulillae muscle

Question 94

True or false? both the left and right lungs have an oblique fissure?

Answer 94

True. on the Right lung the Oblique Fissure divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the Horizontal Fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the Left the Oblique divides the superior from the inferior lobe.

Question 95

What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

Answer 95

1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneous

Question 96

What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?

Answer 96

There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.

Question 97

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. Shoulder

Answer 97

Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus

Question 98

Elbow

Answer 98

Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)

Question 99

Wrist

Answer 99

Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquertrum and pisiform (Remember, for major articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)

Question 100

What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?

Answer 100

Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

Question 101

What seven structures are found in more than one mediastinum?

Answer 101

Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve

Question 102

How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the right lung? Left lung?

Answer 102

There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the Right and 8 on the Left.

Question 103

The duodenal-jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?

Answer 103

Ligament of Treitz

Question 104

What is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X?

Answer 104

Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.

Question 105

What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath, contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord?

Answer 105

Internal abdominal oblique

Question 106

What are the five branches of the superior mesenteric artery?

Answer 106

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries

Question 107

What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?

Answer 107

S2, S3, S4 - keeps the pee-pee off the floor!

Question 108

What connects the third and the fourth ventricles?

Answer 108

Cerebral aqueduct

Question 109

What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?

Answer 109

Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery

Question 110

What type of hernia is described as passing through the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?

Answer 110

Indirect hernia passes In the inguinal canal; a Direct hernia passes Directly through Hesselbach's triangle.

Question 111

What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?

Answer 111

1. Posterior auricular vein | 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein

Question 112

What is the only vein in the body with a high O2 content?

Answer 112

The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.

Question 113

What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?

Answer 113

The left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

Question 114

What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?

Answer 114

Nasopharynx

Question 115

What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?

Answer 115

The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.

Question 116

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?

Answer 116

31 pairs

Question 117

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?

Answer 117

Anterior tibial artery

Question 118

What is the term for pupils that react Normally to Accomodation but have bilateral loss of constriction in response to Light?

Answer 118

Argyll Robertson pupils

Question 119

What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?

Answer 119

Foramen of Monro

Question 120

What nerve supplies General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer 120

Lingual nerve of CN V3

Question 121

What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?

Answer 121

Visceral pleura

Question 122

What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum?

Answer 122

Left coronary artery

Question 123

Where are the tonsillar tissues?

Answer 123

Waldeyer's ring

Question 124

What is the name of the superficial Subcutaneous fascia of the abdomen containing Fat?

Answer 124

Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are Fat.)

Question 125

What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?

Answer 125

1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages

Question 126

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?

Answer 126

The optic disk is the blind spot.

Question 127

At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divided into what two arteries?

Answer 127

Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries

Question 128

What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa?

Answer 128

Housemaid's knee

Question 129

What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?

Answer 129

C1 through C4

Question 130

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structure: Heart and pericardium

Answer 130

Middle

Question 131

Descending aorta

Answer 131

Posterior

Question 132

Thymus

Answer 132

Superior and anterior

Question 133

Phrenic nerve

Answer 133

Superior and middle

Question 134

Esophagus

Answer 134

Superior and posterior

Question 135

Trachea

Answer 135

Superior

Question 136

Ascending aorta

Answer 136

Middle

Question 137

Thoracic duct

Answer 137

Superior and posterior

Question 138

Azygos vein

Answer 138

Superior and posterior

Question 139

SVC

Answer 139

Superior and middle

Question 140

Splanchnic nerves

Answer 140

Posterior

Question 141

Aortic arch

Answer 141

Superior

Question 142

IVC

Answer 142

Middle

Question 143

Vagus nerve

Answer 143

Posterior

Question 144

Branchiocephalic vein

Answer 144

Superior

Question 145

Pulmonary artery and veins

Answer 145

Middle

Question 146

Left common carotid artery

Answer 146

Superior

Question 147

Left subclavian artery

Answer 147

Superior

Question 148

What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

Answer 148

Adrenal medulla

Question 149

The Left subclavian artery is a branch of what artery?

Answer 149

The Left is a branch of the Aortic arch, while the Right is a branch of the Branchioecephalic trunk.

Question 150

What are the four muscles of mastication?

Answer 150

1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid

Question 151

With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?

Answer 151

Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body Below it.

Question 152

What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?

Answer 152

Left colic, superior rectal, and sigmoidal arteries

Question 153

What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?

Answer 153

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

Question 154

What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?

Answer 154

Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly

Question 155

What three muscles constitue the erector spinae?

Answer 155

1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles)

Question 156

What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 156

Median nerve

Question 157

What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?

Answer 157

The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.

Question 158

What nerve and artery could be affected in a Midshaft Humeral fracture?

Answer 158

Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery

Question 159

Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.

Answer 159

1. Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adrenals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC. D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, everything else is covered with peritoneum

Question 160

Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve?

Answer 160

C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!

Question 161

What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?

Answer 161

Ampulla

Question 162

What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?

Answer 162

Foramen of Winslow

Question 163

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: Foramen magnum

Answer 163

CN XI, vertebral arteries

Question 164

Foramen spinosum

Answer 164

Middle meningeal artery

Question 165

Foramen rotundum

Answer 165

CN V2

Question 166

Foramen ovale

Answer 166

CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve

Question 167

Jugular foramen

Answer 167

CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus

Question 168

Carotid canal

Answer 168

Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus

Question 169

Stylomastoid foramen

Answer 169

CN VII

Question 170

Hypoglossal canal

Answer 170

CN XII

Question 171

Internal auditory meatus

Answer 171

CN VII and VIII

Question 172

Optic canal

Answer 172

CN II and ophthalmic artery

Question 173

Cribriform plate

Answer 173

CN I

Question 174

What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?

Answer 174

Subclavian vein

Question 175

What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?

Answer 175

Motor aspect

Question 176

A motor lesion to the Right CN V results in deviation of the jaw to which side?

Answer 176

A Right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication, and the jaw deviates to the Right.

Question 177

What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?

Answer 177

Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)

Question 178

What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?

Answer 178

Round and ovarian ligaments

Question 179

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? Tibial nerve

Answer 179

L4 to S3

Question 180

Common peroneal nerve

Answer 180

L4 to S3

Question 181

Femoral nerve

Answer 181

L2 to L4

Question 182

Obturator nerve

Answer 182

L2 to L4 | L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg

Question 183

What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?

Answer 183

Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; Right: liver, duodenum, and right kidney

Question 184

What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus?

Answer 184

1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous

Question 185

What is the only Pharyngeal muscle Not innervated by CN X?

Answer 185

Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.

Question 186

What vessels carry Deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle?

Answer 186

The right and left pulmonary Arteries, the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood

Question 187

Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve?

Answer 187

Common peroneal nerve

Question 188

What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?

Answer 188

Superior vena cava

Question 189

If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube, do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?

Answer 189

The Superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the Neurovascular bundle, and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.

Question 190

What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee?

Answer 190

Popliteus

Question 191

What chamber of the eye lies between the iris and the lens?

Answer 191

Posterior chamber

Question 192

What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?

Answer 192

Right coronary artery

Question 193

What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior to the first rib?

Answer 193

1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius

Question 194

What vertebral level is makred by the xiphoid process?

Answer 194

T9

Question 195

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? Loss of eversion, inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot

Answer 195

Common peroneal nerve

Question 196

Loss of flexion of the knees and toes, plantarflexion, and weakened inversion

Answer 196

Tibial nerve

Question 197

Loss of knee extension, weakened hip flexion

Answer 197

Femoral nerve

Question 198

Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trendelenburg gait

Answer 198

Superior gluteal nerve

Question 199

Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee, weakened extension of the thigh

Answer 199

Sciatic nerve

Question 200

Loss of adduction of the thigh

Answer 200

Obturator nerve

Question 201

What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?

Answer 201

Median nerve lesion

Question 202

What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?

Answer 202

Deltoid

Question 203

What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?

Answer 203

Inferior phrenic artery

Question 204

What vessel does the Right gonadal vein drain into?

Answer 204

The Right gonadal vein drains into the Inferior vena cava directly, and the Left gonadal vein drains into the Left renal vein.

Question 205

What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?

Answer 205

Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

Question 206

What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?

Answer 206

CN IX and X

Question 207

At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?

Answer 207

T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteiorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).

Question 208

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?

Answer 208

Resorb CSF into the blood

Question 209

Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?

Answer 209

Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing Long thoracic nerve and Lateral thoracic artery: long has N for nerve; lateral has an A for artery.

Question 210

What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?

Answer 210

Nucleus pulposus

Question 211

What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?

Answer 211

Puborectalis

Question 212

What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus?

Answer 212

Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar

Question 213

What bone houses the ulnar groove?

Answer 213

Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)

Question 214

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of | Nasopharynx?

Answer 214

Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves

Question 215

Oropharynx?

Answer 215

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 216

Laryngopharynx?

Answer 216

Vagus nerve

Question 217

What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?

Answer 217

Pia mater

Question 218

What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?

Answer 218

Urinary trigone

Question 219

What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in Ischemic contracture of the hand?

Answer 219

Volkmann's contracture

Question 220

What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?

Answer 220

Chordae tendineae

Question 221

What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?

Answer 221

Internal iliac nodes

Question 222

What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's knee?

Answer 222

Infrapatellar bursa

Question 223

What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?

Answer 223

Psoas major

Question 224

What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in bronchoconstriction?

Answer 224

Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve, results in Bronchoconstriction, whereas Sympathetic stimulation results in Bronchodilation.

Question 225

What muscles in the hand Adduct the fingers?

Answer 225

The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)

Question 226

What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?

Answer 226

Subrachnoid hematoma

Question 227

What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?

Answer 227

1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)

Question 228

What structure of the knee is described thus? | C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament

Answer 228

Medial meniscus

Question 229

Prevents posterior displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia

Answer 229

Posterior cruciate ligament

Question 230

Prevents adduction

Answer 230

Lateral collateral ligament

Question 231

Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia

Answer 231

ACL

Question 232

Prevents abduction

Answer 232

Medial collateral ligament

Question 233

What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the Cough reflex? Be specific.

Answer 233

The Sensory component is through the Superior laryngeal nerve, and the Motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

Question 234

What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?

Answer 234

The Internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from Above the vocal cords while the Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information Below.

Question 235

EMBRYOLOGY | From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived?

Answer 235

First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.

Question 236

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? | Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis

Answer 236

Phallus

Question 237

Scrotum

Answer 237

Labioscrotal swelling

Question 238

Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland

Answer 238

Urogenital sinus

Question 239

Testes, seminiferous tubules, and rete testes

Answer 239

Gonads

Question 240

Ventral part of the penis

Answer 240

Urogenital folds

Question 241

Gubernaculum testes

Answer 241

Gubernaculum

Question 242

Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct

Answer 242

Mesonephric duct

Question 243

Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?

Answer 243

PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain Patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and catecholamines promote Closure of the ductus arteriosus.

Question 244

When does the primitive gut herniate out the embryo?

Answer 244

6 weeks

Question 245

When does it go back into the embryo?

Answer 245

10 weeks

Question 246

What results when the Palatine prominences fail to fuse with the other side?

Answer 246

Cleft palate

Question 247

What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and teh external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?

Answer 247

Vitelline fistula

Question 248

Where do the primordial germ cells arise?

Answer 248

From the wall of the yolk sac

Question 249

What disorder is due to a 5-α-reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?

Answer 249

Male pseudo-intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.

Question 250

Does the zygote divide mitotically meiotically?

Answer 250

The zygote divides Mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.

Question 251

During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?

Answer 251

Third week

Question 252

Name the Primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon. Cerebral hemispheres

Answer 252

Proencephalon

Question 253

Midbrain

Answer 253

Mesencephalon

Question 254

Cerebellum

Answer 254

Rhombencephalon

Question 255

Medulla

Answer 255

Rhombencephalon

Question 256

Diencephalon

Answer 256

Proencephalon

Question 257

Metencephalon

Answer 257

Rhombencephalon

Question 258

Telencephalon

Answer 258

Proencephalon

Question 259

Thalamus

Answer 259

Proencephalon

Question 260

Eye

Answer 260

Proencephalon (diencephalon derivative)

Question 261

Pons

Answer 261

Rhombencephalon

Question 262

Myelencephalon

Answer 262

Rhombencephalon

Question 263

Pineal gland

Answer 263

Proencephalon (diencephalon derivative)

Question 264

Cerebral aqueduct

Answer 264

Mesencephalon

Question 265

Neurohypophysis

Answer 265

Proencephalon (diencephalon derivative)

Question 266

Third ventricle

Answer 266

Proencephalon

Question 267

Hypothalamus

Answer 267

Proencephalon (diencephalon derivate)

Question 268

Lateral ventricles

Answer 268

Proencephalon

Question 269

What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy?

Answer 269

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)

Question 270

What syndrome is due to a deficiency of Surfactant?

Answer 270

Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.

Question 271

How many oogonia are present at birth?

Answer 271

None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.

Question 272

What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?

Answer 272

Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.

Question 273

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? | Left umbilical vein

Answer 273

Ligament teres

Question 274

Foramen ovale

Answer 274

Fossa ovale

Question 275

Right and left umbilical arteries

Answer 275

Medial umbilical ligaments

Question 276

Ductus arteriosus

Answer 276

Ligamentum arteriosum

Question 277

Ductus venosus

Answer 277

Ligamentum venosum

Question 278

Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch I abnormality?

Answer 278

Treacher Collins syndrome

Question 279

What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

Answer 279

SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis

Question 280

What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the Ventral surface of the penis?

Answer 280

Hypospadia

Question 281

What CN is associated with the | First pharyngeal arch?

Answer 281

CN V

Question 282

Second pharyngeal arch?

Answer 282

CN VII

Question 283

Third pharyngeal arch?

Answer 283

CN IX

Question 284

Fourth pharyngeal arch?

Answer 284

CN X

Question 285

Fifth pharyngeal arch?

Answer 285

None; it degenerates.

Question 286

Sixth pharyngeal arch?

Answer 286

CN X

Question 287

What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

Answer 287

Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)

Question 288

What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?

Answer 288

DiGeorge's syndrome

Question 289

What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into Neural Tissue?

Answer 289

The notochord

Question 290

What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?

Answer 290

Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.

Question 291

Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial?

Answer 291

Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent Patent Ovale results in an Interatrial septal defect.

Question 292

What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?

Answer 292

The second pharyngeal pouch and groove

Question 293

How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?

Answer 293

hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.

Question 294

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? Middle ear

Answer 294

First

Question 295

Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid

Answer 295

Fourth

Question 296

Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus

Answer 296

Third

Question 297

Palatine tonsil

Answer 297

Second | M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Question 298

What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the Dorsal surface of the penis?

Answer 298

Epispadia

Question 299

True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place.

Answer 299

True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is menses.

Question 300

What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?

Answer 300

Muscles of the internal eye

Question 301

What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to incomplete recanalization?

Answer 301

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

Question 302

What hormone, produced by the Syncytiotropholast, stimulates the production of Progesterone by the corpus luteum?

Answer 302

hCG

Question 303

How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?

Answer 303

Four

Question 304

All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age?

Answer 304

They are formed by the fifth month of fetal life.

Question 305

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk

Answer 305

Truncus arteriosus

Question 306

The sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium

Answer 306

Sinus venosus

Question 307

The right and left ventricles

Answer 307

Primitive ventricle

Question 308

The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus

Answer 308

Bulbus cordis

Question 309

The right and left atria

Answer 309

Primitive atrium

Question 310

After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses, causing cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it termed?

Answer 310

Eisenmenger's syndrome

Question 311

True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative.

Answer 311

True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are not a component of the gastrointestinal system.

Question 312

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter

Answer 312

Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)

Question 313

Urinary bladder and urethra

Answer 313

Urogenital sinus

Question 314

External genitalia

Answer 314

Phallus, urogenital folds, and labioscrotal swellings

Question 315

Nephrons, kidney

Answer 315

Metanephros

Question 316

Median umbilical ligament

Answer 316

Urachus

Question 317

True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.

Answer 317

True

Question 318

Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives.

Answer 318

1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogstric ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.

Question 319

Projectile Nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?

Answer 319

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet

Question 320

The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes Without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?

Answer 320

Meiosis I; disjunction With centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.

Question 321

Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week?

Answer 321

Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.

Question 322

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? | Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and spongiosum

Answer 322

Phallus

Question 323

Gartner's duct

Answer 323

Mesonephric duct

Question 324

Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii

Answer 324

Gonads

Question 325

Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper third of the vagina

Answer 325

Paranesonephric ducts

Question 326

Labia majora

Answer 326

Labioscrotal swelling

Question 327

Labia minora

Answer 327

Urogenital folds

Question 328

Ovarian and round ligaments

Answer 328

Gubernaculum

Question 329

Urinary bladder, urethra, greater vestibular glands, vagina

Answer 329

Urogenital sinus

Question 330

What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis rotation?

Answer 330

The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.

Question 331

What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and Female external genitalia?

Answer 331

Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)

Question 332

Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above 100,00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical signs of what?

Answer 332

Hydatidiform mole

Question 333

True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to birth.

Answer 333

False. It closes just After birth because the change in pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.

Question 334

At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte arrested?

Answer 334

Metaphase II

Question 335

What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios, bile-containing vomitus, and a distended stomach?

Answer 335

Duodenal atresia

Question 336

What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst?

Answer 336

A patent processus vaginalis

Question 337

True or false? The respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.

Answer 337

True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum.

Question 338

What is the name for failure of the allantois to close, resulting in a urachal fistula or sinus?

Answer 338

Patent urachus

Question 339

What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?

Answer 339

The mouth

Question 340

What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?

Answer 340

Spleen

Question 341

What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other tissue types?

Answer 341

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

Question 342

What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?

Answer 342

Omphalocele and gastroschisis

Question 343

True or false? For implantation to occur the zona pellucida must degenerate.

Answer 343

True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post fertilization!

Question 344

What results when the Maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence?

Answer 344

Cleft lip

Question 345

What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?

Answer 345

The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.

Question 346

During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?

Answer 346

Third week

Question 347

In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?

Answer 347

Week four, and they remain dormant there until puberty.

Question 348

What embryonic week sees the formation of the notochord and the neural tube?

Answer 348

Third week

Question 349

What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel receives blood from both the right and left ventricles?

Answer 349

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Question 350

What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?

Answer 350

1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm

Question 351

NEUROSCIENCE | Where are the Preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

Answer 351

They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

Question 352

Which three CNs send sensory information to the Solitary Nucleus?

Answer 352

CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.

Question 353

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion, resulting in Contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an Ipsilateral CN XII lesion

Answer 353

Medial medullary syndrome

Question 354

Contralateral corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an Ipsilateral medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI

Answer 354

Medial pontine syndrome

Question 355

Slow-growing Acoustic Neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies

Answer 355

Pontocerebellar angle syndrome

Question 356

Occlusion of the PICA, resulting in Ipsilateral limb ataxia, Ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, Contralateral pain and body temparature loss, Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and Ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo

Answer 356

Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome

Question 357

AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion, resulting in Ipsilateral limb ataxia, Ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, Contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the body, Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, Ipsilateral facial paralysis, and hearing loss

Answer 357

Lateral pontine syndrome

Question 358

Posterior cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a Contralateral corticospinal tract signs, Contralateral corticobulbar signs to the lower face, and Ipsilateral CN III palsy

Answer 358

Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome

Question 359

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in | The midbrain?

Answer 359

CN III and IV

Question 360

The upper medulla?

Answer 360

CN IX, X, and XII

Question 361

Pontomedullary junction?

Answer 361

CN VI, VII, and VIII

Question 362

The upper pons?

Answer 362

CN V

Question 363

What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?

Answer 363

Accessory nucleus

Question 364

What component of the trigeminal nuclei | Supplies the muscles of mastication?

Answer 364

Motor nucleus of CN V

Question 365

Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face, scalp, dura, and the oral and nasal cavities?

Answer 365

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

Question 366

Forms the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?

Answer 366

Mesencephalic nucleus

Question 367

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in The flocculonodular lobe?

Answer 367

The lateral vestibular nucleus

Question 368

The vermis?

Answer 368

The fastigial nucleus

Question 369

The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?

Answer 369

The interposed nucleus

Question 370

The intermediate hemispheres?

Answer 370

The dentate nucleus

Question 371

What is the only Excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?

Answer 371

The granule cell is the only Excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it uses Glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are Inhibitory neurons, and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.

Question 372

What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?

Answer 372

CN III, IV, and VI

Question 373

What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?

Answer 373

Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)

Question 374

What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?

Answer 374

The Romberg sign is present if the patient Sways or loses balance when standing with eyes Open. In a Dorsal column lesion, patients sway with eyes Closed. (Don't forget this one.)

Question 375

Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for Outgoing (Efferent) information?

Answer 375

Superior cerebellar peduncle; the Inferior and the Middle consist mainly of Incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.

Question 376

What tract carries Unconscious propiroceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindle to the Cerebellum, helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?

Answer 376

Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The Upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus Cuneatus both apply to Upper extremities.)

Question 377

What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, is an Extension of the great toe with Fanning the of remaining toes?

Answer 377

The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.

Question 378

What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?

Answer 378

Ptosis (eyelid drooping), Miosis (pupillary constriction), and Anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to T4 are obstucted.

Question 379

What component of the inner ear | Contains Perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?

Answer 379

Semicircular canal

Question 380

Contains Endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?

Answer 380

Semicircular duct

Question 381

Contains Endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring Linear acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting changes in head position?

Answer 381

Utricle and saccule

Question 382

What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12 deficiency?

Answer 382

Subacute combined degeneration, which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.

Question 383

What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities related to a lesion in the Mammillary bodies and/or the Dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus?

Answer 383

Wernicke's encephalopathy

Question 384

Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?

Answer 384

MGB

Question 385

Where are the Postganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

Answer 385

They are in Ganglia in the PNS.

Question 386

What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?

Answer 386

Syringomyelia

Question 387

What nulceus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?

Answer 387

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Question 388

Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?

Answer 388

White rami are Preganglionic fibers, whereas Grey rami are Postgangilionic fibers.

Question 389

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a Decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?

Answer 389

Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).

Question 390

What CN transmits sensory information from the Cornea?

Answer 390

CN V1, the Occulomotor division of the Trigeminal nerve, is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.

Question 391

What Preganglionic Sympathetic fibers are the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?

Answer 391

Lumbar splanchnics

Question 392

Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems?

Answer 392

The First sensory neuron is in the Dorsal root ganglia. It carries Ascending sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually synapsing with Second sensory neuron. In the Brainstem (DCML) and the spinal Spinal cord (spinothalamic) the second neuron cell body sends its axons to synapse in the Thalamus. The Third sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary somatosensory cortex.

Question 393

What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens, allowing Near vision?

Answer 393

Accommodation

Question 394

What CN carries Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax, foregut, and midgut?

Answer 394

CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.)

Question 395

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?

Answer 395

Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in Hyperthermia.

Question 396

What Excitatory fibers arise from the Inferior olivary nuclei on the Contralateral side of the body?

Answer 396

Climbing fibers; they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also Excitatory, are axons of all other sources and synapse on Granule cells.

Question 397

What four CN carry Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

Answer 397

CN III, VII, IX, and X

Question 398

Name the form of spina bifida. | Meninges and spinal cord project through a vertebral defect

Answer 398

Meningomyelocele

Question 399

Meninges project through a vertebral defect

Answer 399

Meningocele

Question 400

An open neural tube hying on the surface of the back

Answer 400

Myeloschisis

Question 401

Defect in the vertebral arch

Answer 401

Occulta | All except occulta cause elevated α-fetoprotein levels.

Question 402

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. | Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe

Answer 402

LGB (think EYES)

Question 403

Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe

Answer 403

Ventral posteromedial mucleus

Question 404

Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex

Answer 404

Ventral lateral nucleus

Question 405

Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex

Answer 405

Ventral posterolateral nucleus

Question 406

Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex

Answer 406

Ventral anterior nucleus

Question 407

Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus

Answer 407

Medial nuclear group (limbic system)

Question 408

Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex

Answer 408

MGB (think EARS)

Question 409

Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule

Answer 409

Anterior nuclear group (Papez circiut of the limbic system)

Question 410

What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?

Answer 410

Kayser-Fleischer ring

Question 411

What do UMNs innervate?

Answer 411

They innervate LMNs.

Question 412

What area of the brain serves as the major Sensory relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile information destined for the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?

Answer 412

The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)

Question 413

Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?

Answer 413

Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.

Question 414

How do the corticobulbar fibers of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?

Answer 414

Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the Upper Face receives Bilateral input but the Lower facial LMNs receive only Contralateral input.

Question 415

What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation?

Answer 415

Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.

Question 416

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with | Cervical vertebrae?

Answer 416

Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae.

Question 417

Thoracic vertebrae?

Answer 417

Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae.

Question 418

Lumbar vertebrae?

Answer 418

Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae.

Question 419

Sacral vertebrae?

Answer 419

Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae.

Question 420

Coccygeal vertebrae?

Answer 420

One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. | Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 421

What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)

Answer 421

Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)

Question 422

What CNs arise from | The midbrain?

Answer 422

CN III and IV

Question 423

The pons?

Answer 423

CN V, VI, VII, and VIII

Question 424

The medulla?

Answer 424

CN IX, X, and XII | CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.

Question 425

What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?

Answer 425

Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.

Question 426

True or false? Glucose readily diffuse across the blood-brain barrier.

Answer 426

False. Water readily diffuse across the blood-brain barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.

Question 427

What encapsulated group of the nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)

Answer 427

Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an Increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.

Question 428

What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

Answer 428

Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral problems.

Question 429

What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory behavior, hepersexuality, and psychic blindness?

Answer 429

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

Question 430

By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together, what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?

Answer 430

When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the Visual and Cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are Testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a Positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns. The Cold water caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response. (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)

Question 431

What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

Answer 431

Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.

Question 432

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies | The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?

Answer 432

Anterior spinal artery

Question 433

The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?

Answer 433

PICA

Question 434

What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?

Answer 434

Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)

Question 435

True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.

Answer 435

True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.

Question 436

What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?

Answer 436

Ependymal cells

Question 437

What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?

Answer 437

The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands, it compresses the fibers from the Upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing Bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia.

Question 438

What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?

Answer 438

Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)

Question 439

What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?

Answer 439

Hemiballismus

Question 440

What is the term for the type of pupil seen in Neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are Lost?

Answer 440

Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a Loss of both Direct and Consensual light reflexes, but the Accomodation-convergence reaction remains Intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.

Question 441

True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.

Answer 441

True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the Sensory component of the stretch reflexes.

Question 442

What Brodmann area is associated with | Broca's area?

Answer 442

Areas 44 and 45

Question 443

Primary auditory cortex?

Answer 443

Areas 41 and 42

Question 444

Primary somatosensory cortex?

Answer 444

Areas 1, 2, and 3

Question 445

Somatosensory association cortex?

Answer 445

Areas 5 and 7

Question 446

Primary motor cortex?

Answer 446

Area 4

Question 447

Premotor cortex?

Answer 447

Area 6

Question 448

Visual association cortex?

Answer 448

Area 18 and 19

Question 449

Frontal eye fields?

Answer 449

Area 8

Question 450

Primary visual cortex?

Answer 450

Area 17

Question 451

Wernicke's area?

Answer 451

Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40

Question 452

What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?

Answer 452

Vitreous humor

Question 453

What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the ability to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?

Answer 453

Expressive aphasia

Question 454

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?

Answer 454

The vermis

Question 455

Is involved in motor planning?

Answer 455

Lateral part of the hemispheres

Question 456

Controls balance and eye movements?

Answer 456

Flocculonodular lobe

Question 457

Controls distal musculature?

Answer 457

Intermediate part of the hemispheres

Question 458

What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?

Answer 458

Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)

Question 459

What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?

Answer 459

Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)

Question 460

What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?

Answer 460

Middle cerebral artery

Question 461

What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?

Answer 461

Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.

Question 462

True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the Base of the cochlea.

Answer 462

True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the Base of the cochlea, whereas Low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the Apex of the cochlea.

Question 463

What cells of the retina sees in Color and needs bright light to be activated?

Answer 463

Cones (C for Color and Cones)

Question 464

What cell's axons are the only ones that Leave the cerebellar cortex?

Answer 464

The Purkinje cell

Question 465

What splachnic carries Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?

Answer 465

Pelvic splanchnic (They all begin with P.)

Question 466

Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?

Answer 466

Nystagmus is named by the Fast component, which is the Corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the Initial slow phase.

Question 467

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. | Left optic nerve lesion

Answer 467

Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)

Question 468

Right calcarine cortex lesion

Answer 468

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Question 469

A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)

Answer 469

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Question 470

Optic chiasm lesion

Answer 470

Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

Question 471

A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)

Answer 471

Right nasal hemianopsia

Question 472

Left Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations.

Answer 472

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Question 473

What is the function of the cerebellum?

Answer 473

Planning and Fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember, the function of the Basal ganglia is to Initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.

Question 474

What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?

Answer 474

Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.

Question 475

If a lesion occurs Before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development, what area of the hypothalamus is affected?

Answer 475

Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs After puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.

Question 476

What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?

Answer 476

Calcarine sulcus

Question 477

Do α- or γ-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?

Answer 477

α-Motor neurons innervate Extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas γ-motor neurons innervate Intrafusal muscle fibers.

Question 478

Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?

Answer 478

Convergence

Question 479

Will a Unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and tempature?

Answer 479

Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal born, crosses over, and ascends Contralateral in the spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.

Question 480

What ganglion supplies the Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?

Answer 480

Ciliary ganglion

Question 481

In what tract does Pain, Temperature, and Crude touch sensory information Ascend to the Postcentral Gyrus of the parietal lobe?

Answer 481

Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)

Question 482

What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?

Answer 482

Superior olivary nucleus

Question 483

What Parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies Preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax, foregut, and midgut?

Answer 483

Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

Question 484

What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?

Answer 484

Bilateral degeneration of the Dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.

Question 485

What do LMNs innervate?

Answer 485

They innervate skeletal muscle.

Question 486

What tract carries the Ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the Lower limbs in the spinal cord?

Answer 486

The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies Closest to the midline of the spinal cord.

Question 487

True or false? CSF is clear, hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K+ and HCO3-, than the serum.

Answer 487

False. CSF is a clear Isotonic solution with Lower concentration of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.

Question 488

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) Dorsal root?

Answer 488

Sensory

Question 489

Dorsal rami?

Answer 489

Both

Question 490

Ventral rami?

Answer 490

Both

Question 491

Ventral root?

Answer 491

Motor

Question 492

Dorsal root ganglion?

Answer 492

Sensory

Question 493

Spinal nerve?

Answer 493

Both

Question 494

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Saequard syndrome) Dorsal column tract?

Answer 494

Ipsilateral loss At and Below the level of the lesion

Question 495

Corticospinal tract?

Answer 495

Ipsilateral loss Below the level of the lesion

Question 496

LMN?

Answer 496

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis

Question 497

Spinothalamic tract?

Answer 497

Contralateral loss Below and Bilateral loss At the level of the lesion

Question 498

What area of the brain acts as the center for Ipsilateral horizontal gaze?

Answer 498

PPRF

Question 499

What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?

Answer 499

Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion to Broadmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is Unaware of the deficit.

Question 500

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

Answer 500

Initiate and manage Gross skeletal muscle movement control

Question 501

What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?

Answer 501

The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.

Question 502

What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the Cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?

Answer 502

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion At the level of the lesion and UMN lesion Below the level of the lesion.

Question 503

Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

Answer 503

D1 receptor; Inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.

Question 504

Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?

Answer 504

Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition, the Indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a Decreased level of cortical excitation.

Question 505

What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?

Answer 505

Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)

Question 506

What area of the brain acts as the center for Contralateral horizontal gaze?

Answer 506

Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)

Question 507

In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?

Answer 507

The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.

Question 508

If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the lesion?

Answer 508

The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.

Question 509

What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching Emotional significance to a stimulus?

Answer 509

Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.

Question 510

What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?

Answer 510

Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.

Question 511

What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?

Answer 511

Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.

Question 512

What is the largest mucleus in the midbrain?

Answer 512

The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.

Question 513

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the Left? Left eye can't look to the the Left

Answer 513

Left abducens nerve

Question 514

Right eye can't look Left, Left eye nystagmus, and convergence is intact

Answer 514

Right medial longitudinal fasciculus

Question 515

Neither eye can look Left with a Slow drift to the Right

Answer 515

Left abducens nucleus or Right cerebral cortex

Question 516

What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?

Answer 516

Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)

Question 517

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?

Answer 517

Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)

Question 518

What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?

Answer 518

The Hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are Absent or decreased reflexes, muscle Fasciculations, Decreased muscle tone, and muscle Atrophy (flaccid paralysis). Don't forget, LMN lesions are Ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!

Question 519

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent spontaneous movement?

Answer 519

Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.

Question 520

What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury Above the pyramidal decussation?

Answer 520

Contralateral muscle weakness when Above the decussation, whereas an UMN injury Below the pyramidal decussation results in Ipsilateral muscle weakness.

Question 521

What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?

Answer 521

Fovea

Question 522

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?

Answer 522

The fasciculus cuneatus

Question 523

What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia, paresthsias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?

Answer 523

Multiple sclerosis

Question 524

What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?

Answer 524

Parasympathetic

Question 525

With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus associated?

Answer 525

CN III

Question 526

Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?

Answer 526

Internal carotid artery

Question 527

What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?

Answer 527

The anterior nucleus of the thalamus

Question 528

What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?

Answer 528

Astrocytes

Question 529

What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?

Answer 529

Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)

Question 530

What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating, attention, and memory?

Answer 530

The limbic system

Question 531

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?

Answer 531

Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this: -ili- in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)

Question 532

The parotid gland?

Answer 532

The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti- is in both Otic ganglion and parOtid gland.)

Question 533

The submandibular and sublingual glands?

Answer 533

The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)

Question 534

The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?

Answer 534

Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)

Question 535

What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the Intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1-L2)

Answer 535

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

Question 536

What limb of the internal capsule is Not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?

Answer 536

Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

Question 537

What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?

Answer 537

Corticospinal tract

Question 538

Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

Answer 538

Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.

Question 539

Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?

Answer 539

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the Accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus fro the Cuneocerebellar tract.

Question 540

Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.

Answer 540

Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all "Splanchnics" are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)

Question 541

What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?

Answer 541

CN IV

Question 542

What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?

Answer 542

The myotatic relfex is responsible for the tension present in all Resting muscle.

Question 543

Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?

Answer 543

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

Question 544

What nucleus, found in the intemediate zone of the spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?

Answer 544

Clarke's nucleus

Question 545

The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?

Answer 545

The subclavian artery

Question 546

What muscle of the middle car is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?

Answer 546

Tensor tympani

Question 547

The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?

Answer 547

VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the Postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.

Question 548

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?

Answer 548

The stapedius muscle

Question 549

What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?

Answer 549

Saccule and utricle

Question 550

What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?

Answer 550

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)

Question 551

What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression, and inducing sleep?

Answer 551

The raphe nuclei

Question 552

Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?

Answer 552

Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.

Question 553

A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the Soft palate?

Answer 553

Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.

Question 554

True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.

Answer 554

True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.

Question 555

What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?

Answer 555

Sympathetic chain ganglion

Question 556

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?

Answer 556

Thoracic splanchnic fibers

Question 557

Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?

Answer 557

Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal-suprachiasmatic-pineal pathway.

Question 558

Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.

Answer 558

Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK

Question 559

Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?

Answer 559

The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.

Question 560

What ascending sensory system carries joint position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?

Answer 560

The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain and temperature.)

Question 561

What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?

Answer 561

The vestibulo-ocular reflex

Question 562

What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?

Answer 562

Rods

Question 563

HISTOLOGY Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.

Answer 563

Skeletal muscles

Question 564

Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules, Intercalated Discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament.

Answer 564

Cardiac muscle

Question 565

Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, Gap junctions, and Calmodulin.

Answer 565

Smooth muscle

Question 566

What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?

Answer 566

Duodenum

Question 567

Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?

Answer 567

MItochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the Mother.

Question 568

What part of a neuron receives information?

Answer 568

Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send information.

Question 569

What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?

Answer 569

Type IV collagen

Question 570

What is the epithelial lining of the Prostatic portion of the urethra?

Answer 570

Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the Penile urethra is composed of Stratified epithelium.

Question 571

What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?

Answer 571

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell

Question 572

What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?

Answer 572

Cilia

Question 573

True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.

Answer 573

True. (They are quite a busy bunch of cells!)

Question 574

What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?

Answer 574

Major basic protein

Question 575

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum | Secrete progesterone?

Answer 575

Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.

Question 576

Secrete estrogen?

Answer 576

Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.

Question 577

What is the largest organ in the body?

Answer 577

Integument (skin and its derivatives)

Question 578

On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?

Answer 578

Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

Question 579

What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?

Answer 579

The small subunit (40S) binds first.

Question 580

What is the T-cell area of the spleen?

Answer 580

PALS

Question 581

What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?

Answer 581

Copper (Cu2+)

Question 582

What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?

Answer 582

Zonula occludens (tight junctions)

Question 583

What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?

Answer 583

Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.

Question 584

What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?

Answer 584

APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation).

Question 585

What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?

Answer 585

Fungiform papillae

Question 586

True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.

Answer 586

True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood and therefor oxygen.)

Question 587

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): 46/2n (divide meiotically)

Answer 587

Spermatogonia (type A)

Question 588

46/4n

Answer 588

Primary spermatocyte

Question 589

23/1n

Answer 589

Spermatid

Question 590

46/2n (divide mitotically)

Answer 590

Spermatogonia (type B)

Question 591

23/2n

Answer 591

Secondary spermatocyte

Question 592

What are the four functions of SER?

Answer 592

Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+ handling

Question 593

Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?

Answer 593

IgA

Question 594

What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?

Answer 594

The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thymic-dependent area.

Question 595

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?

Answer 595

Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

Question 596

Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?

Answer 596

Submandibular gland produces mainly Serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly Mucous secretions.

Question 597

What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?

Answer 597

Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.

Question 598

Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?

Answer 598

Outside the cell

Question 599

What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?

Answer 599

1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids

Question 600

What is the epthelial cell lining the nasopharynx?

Answer 600

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.

Question 601

What are the three epidermal derivatives?

Answer 601

1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)

Question 602

What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called?

Answer 602

Stereocilia

Question 603

True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia.

Answer 603

True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area affected during hypoxia.

Question 604

What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?

Answer 604

Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)

Question 605

Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?

Answer 605

In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.

Question 606

What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cells?

Answer 606

Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)

Question 607

What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?

Answer 607

B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.

Question 608

What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in glycogen?

Answer 608

The vagina

Question 609

What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of germinal centers and B cells?

Answer 609

Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)

Question 610

What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to the gastrointestinal lumen?

Answer 610

M-cells

Question 611

What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?

Answer 611

Chief cells

Question 612

What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum?

Answer 612

Thick skin

Question 613

What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?

Answer 613

Gap junctions

Question 614

What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a subtrate for breakdown?

Answer 614

Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as Inactive and secondary as Active)

Question 615

What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?

Answer 615

Microvillus

Question 616

What are the four components of the basement membrane?

Answer 616

1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen

Question 617

What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?

Answer 617

Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.

Question 618

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF?

Answer 618

Parietal cells (Remember, they secrete HCl, too.)

Question 619

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?

Answer 619

Chief cells

Question 620

What hormone, produced by the granulose cell, stimulates the endometrium to enter the Proliferative phase?

Answer 620

Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.

Question 621

What cells of the nephron function as sodium concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?

Answer 621

Macula densa

Question 622

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally Active?

Answer 622

Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the nucleus on an election microscope image.

Question 623

What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?

Answer 623

Parafollicular C cells

Question 624

True or false? The nucleus is the site of Transcription.

Answer 624

True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as well as replication, occurs in the nucleus.

Question 625

How many days After the LH surge is ovulation?

Answer 625

One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.

Question 626

In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?

Answer 626

Stratum spinosum

Question 627

What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechanoreceptors?

Answer 627

Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)

Question 628

What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?

Answer 628

Renin

Question 629

What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?

Answer 629

Upper third skeletal muscle, Middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle, and Lower third smooth muscle

Question 630

What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?

Answer 630

Circumvallate papillae

Question 631

What area of the lymph node contains germinal centers?

Answer 631

The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.

Question 632

True or false? The gallbladder functions to produce bile.

Answer 632

False. The gallbladder does NOT produce bile, but it Concentrate bile via active sodium transport; water follow the sodium.

Question 633

True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron.

Answer 633

True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.

Question 634

In the alveoli, what cell type is | for gas exchange?

Answer 634

Type I pneumocytes

Question 635

responsible for producing surfactant?

Answer 635

Type II pneumocytes

Question 636

part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

Answer 636

Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

Question 637

Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy?

Answer 637

Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into syncytiotrophoblast.)

Question 638

What is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei?

Answer 638

Stratum lucidum

Question 639

What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?

Answer 639

Ileum

Question 640

What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas, encapsulation, germinal centers, and high endothelial venules?

Answer 640

Lymph nodes

Question 641

What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?

Answer 641

Collecting ducts, which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.

Question 642

What is the name of RER in neurons?

Answer 642

Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis.

Question 643

What hormone causes milk letdown?

Answer 643

Oxytocin

Question 644

What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?

Answer 644

1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries

Question 645

What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?

Answer 645

Melanocytes

Question 646

If no fertilization occurs, how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate?

Answer 646

12 days after ovulation

Question 647

What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?

Answer 647

Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)

Question 648

What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?

Answer 648

Vimentin

Question 649

What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?

Answer 649

Filiform papillae

Question 650

What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

Answer 650

Stratum corneum (keratinized)

Question 651

What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary infections, and infertility?

Answer 651

Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome)

Question 652

What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens?

Answer 652

To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier

Question 653

What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?

Answer 653

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 654

Where do sperm go for maturation?

Answer 654

Ductus epididymis, which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.

Question 655

When is the first arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?

Answer 655

Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)

Question 656

What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?

Answer 656

PCT

Question 657

What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?

Answer 657

Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the epidermis, carry Melanin and produce Keratin.

Question 658

What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?

Answer 658

Large intestine. Water is Passively removed from the lumen.

Question 659

What two areas of the skin do NOT contain sebaceous glands?

Answer 659

Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.

Question 660

Which of the following is NOT part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?

Answer 660

Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.

Question 661

Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?

Answer 661

The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)

Question 662

What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and NO encapsulation?

Answer 662

Peyer's patch

Question 663

What generate Anterograde transport of information in a neuron?

Answer 663

Kinesins. Dynein generates Retrograde transportation of information.

Question 664

What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?

Answer 664

Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)

Question 665

What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

Answer 665

Osteoclasts

Question 666

What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for normal Male development?

Answer 666

Inhibin, mullerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen binding protein

Question 667

What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?

Answer 667

Stratum granulosum

Question 668

What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?

Answer 668

An internal elastic lamina

Question 669

Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?

Answer 669

Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water. The acini secrete the Enzymes necessary for carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and emulsification of fats.

Question 670

What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?

Answer 670

Paneth cells

Question 671

What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney?

Answer 671

The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.

Question 672

Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole?

Answer 672

Afferent arteriole

Question 673

What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?

Answer 673

Enteroendocine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.

Question 674

What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?

Answer 674

Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate

Question 675

What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?

Answer 675

Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)

Question 676

What is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?

Answer 676

Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)

Question 677

What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?

Answer 677

60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.

Question 678

What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?

Answer 678

Saltatory conduction

Question 679

What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?

Answer 679

The secretory phase is Progesterone-dependent and 14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies.

Question 680

A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?

Answer 680

Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.

Question 681

What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?

Answer 681

Sertoli cell

Question 682

What histone binds to nucleosomes together?

Answer 682

H1 histones

Question 683

What is the major inorganic component of bone?

Answer 683

Hydroxyapatite

Question 684

What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?

Answer 684

Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)

Question 685

Where does β-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?

Answer 685

In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.

Question 686

What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein?

Answer 686

Mitochondria