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PHRM 845 > L52-53 watts schizo > Flashcards

L52-53 watts schizo Flashcards

(107 cards)

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1
Q

T or F: Decreased ventricle size is included in the etiology of schizo

A

False, increased ventricle size

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2
Q

T or F: migration of neurons is included in the etiology of schizo

A

True

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3
Q

T or F: COMT-marijuana is included in the etiology of schizo

A

True

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4
Q

T or F: Negative sxs respond well to drug therapy in comparison with positive sxs

A

false

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5
Q

T or F: Decrease in cognitive function involves d2 receptors and glutamate receptors

A

False, d1 and glutamate receptors

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6
Q

what neurotransmitters are involved in the neurotransmitter hypotheses of schizo

A

dopamine
serotonin
glutamate

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7
Q

dopamine neurotransmitter hypothesis

A

first to be developed, but incomplete

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8
Q

serotonin neurotransmitter hypothesis

A

based on mechanism of LSD and mescaline

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9
Q

glutamate neurotransmitter hypothesis

A

based on phencyclidine and ketamine

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10
Q

which 2 drugs are noncompetitive inhibitors of ndma receptors that exacerbate psychosis and cognition deficits

A

phencyclidine and ketamine

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11
Q

T or F: LY2140023-mGluR2/3 antagonists are effective in schizo

A

False, agonists

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12
Q

T or F: Ampakine (AMPA receptors) are effective in animal models

A

True

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12
Q

T or F: Dopaminergic agents exacerbate sxs of schizo

A

yes, too much dopamine is the problem

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13
Q

T or F: Increased D1 receptor density in treated and untreated pts of schizo

A

false, d2

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14
Q

Saturation binding experiments
A. Vary concentration of radio-labeled ligands
B. Constant radioligand (hot) concentration competing with unlabeled ligand (cold)

A

A. Vary concentration of radio-labeled ligands

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15
Q

Competition binding experiments
A. Vary concentration of radio-labeled ligands
B. Constant radioligand (hot) concentration competing with unlabeled ligand (cold)

A

B. Constant radioligand (hot) concentration competing with unlabeled ligand (cold)

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16
Q

Which of the following receptors are antagonized by antipsychotic drugs
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. ACh
E. Histamine
F. A and B
G. A, B, and E
H. All of the above

A

H. All of the above

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17
Q

antagonism of which receptor is responsible for weight gain?
A. alpha 1
B. histamine
C. ACh
D. D2

A

B. histamine

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18
Q

antagonism of which receptor is responsible for hypotension?
A. alpha 1
B. histamine
C. ACh
D. D2

A

A. alpha 1

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19
Q

T or F: most antipsychotic drugs are receptor antagonists

A

True

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20
Q

antagonism of which receptor modulates synthesis and release of dopamine

A

D2

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21
Q

Which of the following is the primary region of the CNS for therapeutic effects of D2 antagonists?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Mesolimbic
C. Mesocortical
D. Medulla

A

B. Mesolimbic

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22
Q

Which of the following is the primary region for motor effects and extrapyramidal sxs (EPS)
A. Basal ganglia
B. Mesolimbic
C. Mesocortical
D. Medulla

A

A. Basal ganglia

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23
Q

what 2 systems are responsible for the d2 receptor blockade in the endocrine system

A

hypothalamus and endocrine system lol

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24
Which of the following regions is the chemoreceptor trigger zone A. Basal ganglia B. Mesolimbic C. Mesocortical D. Medulla
D. Medulla
25
know the kd shit on slides 20 and 21
i will go look at that (you too whoever is on this card rn)
26
D2 Antagonism: Extrapyramidal Sxs (EPS) occurs ______
early, days/weeks
27
Symptoms of EPS: (4)
dystonia - increased muscle tone pseudoparkinsonism tremor akathisia - restlessness
28
What is an antihistamine that can treat EPS?
Benadryl
29
what anticholinergic agents can be used to treat EPS? (3)
Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl, akineton
30
what dopamine releasing agent can be used to treat EPS?
Amantadine
31
What medication can be used to treat akathisia in pts w/ EPS
propranolol 1st line -> +lorazepam (Ott)
32
Excitatory neurotransmitter involved in EPS A. ACh B. Dopamine
A.ACh
33
inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in EPS A. ACh B. Dopamine
B. Dopamine
34
what drug induced movement disorder occurs late (months/year)
Tardive Dyskinesia
35
T or F: Both EPS and Tardive Dyskinesia are irreversible disorders
False, EPS is reversible
36
4 sxs of tardive dyskinesia
- Mouth-rhythmic involuntary movements - Choreiform- irregular purposelessness - Athetoid - worm-like movements - Axial hyperkinesia- "to-and-fro" movements
37
what is the MOA of tardive dyskinesia?
its unknown, pussy
38
what monitoring scale should be used in pts experiencing tardive dyskinesia
AIMS (Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale)
39
what is the best treatment option for tardive dyskinesia?
prevention, then to use the least risky agent at lowest dose possible
40
what drug class is a "newer drug therapy" option for tardive dyskinesia?
VMAT2 inhibitors
41
what are the 3 VMAT2 inhibitors
Tetrabenazine Valbenazine Deutetrabenazine
42
what do VMAT2 inhibitors do to dopamine?
Deplete it so it cant activate receptors that affect movement
43
Used for Huntington's Chorea A. Tetrabenazine B. Valbenazine C. Deutetrabenazine
A. Tetrabenazine B. Deutetrabenazine
44
used for tardive dyskinesia A. Tetrabenazine B. Valbenazine C. Deutetrabenazine
B. Valbenazine C. Deutetrabenazine
45
used for tardive dyskinesia and huntington's chorea A. Tetrabenazine B. Valbenazine C. Deutetrabenazine
C. Deutetrabenazine
46
Serious and rapid with 10% fatality A. EPS B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
47
Occurs early, days/weeks, reversible A. EPS B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
A. EPS
48
Occurs late (months/year), irreversible, 20-40% incidence A. EPS B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Tardive dyskinesia
49
how long do antipsychotic drugs take to show effectiveness in the tx of psychosis? A. 4-8 weeks B. 4-7 days C. 6 weeks-6 months D. 2-3 weeks
D. 2-3 weeks
50
How long does it take an antipsychotic drug to reach its maximal efficacy?
6 weeks to 6 months (damn)
51
Used in Huntington's chorea A. Tetrabenazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Droperidol
A. Tetrabenazine
52
Used for intractable hiccups A. Tetrabenazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Droperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
53
Used for alcohol withdrawal A. Tetrabenazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Droperidol
C. Haloperidol
54
Used for N/V A. Tetrabenazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Droperidol
D. Metoclopramide
55
Used for potentiation of opiates and sedatives A. Tetrabenazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Droperidol
E. Droperidol
56
Orthostatic hypotension, impotence, failure to cum A. Muscarinic cholinoceptor blockade B. Alpha adrenoceptor blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade D. Histamine receptor blockade
B
57
Loss of accommodation, dry mouth, cant piss, cant shit A. Muscarinic cholinoceptor blockade B. Alpha adrenoceptor blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade D. Histamine receptor blockade
A
58
Parkinson's syndrome, akathisia, dystonias A. Muscarinic cholinoceptor blockade B. Alpha adrenoceptor blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade D. Histamine receptor blockade
C
59
Sedation A. Muscarinic cholinoceptor blockade B. Alpha adrenoceptor blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade D. Histamine receptor blockade
D
60
Tardive dyskinesia A. Supersensitivity of dopamine receptors B. Muscarinic blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade resulting in hyperprolactinemia D. Possibly combined H1 and 5HT2 blockade
A
61
Toxic-confusional state A. Supersensitivity of dopamine receptors B. Muscarinic blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade resulting in hyperprolactinemia D. Possibly combined H1 and 5HT2 blockade
B
62
Amenorrhea-galactorrhea, infertility, impotence A. Supersensitivity of dopamine receptors B. Muscarinic blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade resulting in hyperprolactinemia D. Possibly combined H1 and 5HT2 blockade
C
63
Weight Gain A. Supersensitivity of dopamine receptors B. Muscarinic blockade C. Dopamine receptor blockade resulting in hyperprolactinemia D. Possibly combined H1 and 5HT2 blockade
D
64
Contraindications for antipsychotics (4)
Cardiovascular Parkinsons (no shit) epilepsy (no shit) Diabetes (in atypicals)
65
First antipsychotic A. Chlorpromazine B. Promezine C. Triflupromazine D. Promethazine
A. Chlorpromazine
66
what does the 3 atom chain allow for in chlorpromazine?
nitrogen to bind the receptor (why the fuck do i care about this)
67
2 aliphatic phenothiazines that had a * next to them
Chlorpromazine Promethazine
68
what are promethazine and chlorpromazine used for, mostly
H1 antagonist properties
69
what is the one drug under piperidine phenothiazine with a * next to it
Thioridazine
70
whats next to thioridazine in the slide that tells us about it
sedation, hypotension, anticholinergic, many SE so just dont ever put this as an option
71
What are the 3 piperazine phenothiazines with a *
Fluphenazine Prochlorperazine Perphenazine
72
Fluphenazine A. EPS B. Antiemetic C. just as effective w/ anticholinergic vs. new agents
A
73
Prochlorperazine A. EPS B. Antiemetic C. just as effective w/ anticholinergic vs. new agents
B
74
Perphanzine A. EPS B. Antiemetic C. just as effective w/ anticholinergic vs. new agents
C
75
Thioxanthine drug
Thiothixene
76
Butyrophenone drug
haloperidol
77
Which drug is most appropriate for a pt with tourette's? A. Molindone B. Haloperidol C. Pimozide D. Chlorpromazine
C. Pimozide
78
T or F: Atypical agents were the first generation of antipsychotics
False, second
79
First atypical antipsychotic
Clozapine
80
what is the significant side effect that clozapine has
agranulocytosis
81
T or F: Weight gain is a side effect of olanzapine
true
82
what does the metabolite of the atypical antipsychotic loxapine do? do you remember what its called?
amoxipine, inhibits NET which leads to antidepressive properties
83
T or F: Quetiapine's metabolite has antidepressant properties
True
84
what receptors does quetiapine antagonize
5HT2A D2 Alpha 1 histamine (H1)
85
9-hydroxyrisperidone A. Risperidone B. Paliperidone C. Iloperidone
B. Paliperidone
86
vert potent at alpha 1 receptors A. Risperidone B. Paliperidone C. Iloperidone
C. Iloperidone
87
specifically and structurally designed to be both a 5HT and D2 receptor antagonist A. Risperidone B. Paliperidone C. Iloperidone
A. Risperidone
88
Relatively low EPS at <8mg/day A. Risperidone B. Paliperidone C. Iloperidone
A. Risperidone
89
5HT, D2, alpha 1 affinity A. Ziprasidone B. Asenapine
A. Ziprasidone
90
prolongs qt interval A. Ziprasidone B. Asenapine
A. Ziprasidone
91
5HT and D2. (nM affinity at most 5HT, alpha, DA, and histamine receptors) A. Ziprasidone B. Asenapine
B. Asenapine
92
Inverse agonist of 5HT * A. Lurasidone B. Pimavanserin
B. Pimavanserin
93
Less weight gain and metabolic effects (vs olanzapine) A. Lurasidone B. Pimavanserin
A. Lurasidone
94
Low doses similar effectiveness to high doses A. Lurasidone B. Pimavanserin
A. Lurasidone
95
Used for parkinson disease psychosis A. Lurasidone B. Pimavanserin
B. Pimavanserin
96
make sure you understand the table on slide 57 because it will definitely be on the exam
okay fuckface
97
what receptors does aripiprazole have high affinity for
5HT2 and D2
98
aripiprazole is a partial agonist of what receptor (being used in depression)
5HT1a
99
T or F: Aripiprazole has moderate affinity for D4, alpha, and histamine receptor s
True
100
what drug class are these guys? A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
D2/D3 receptor partial agonists.
101
a D2/D3 partial agonist with greater affinity D3. A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
B. Cariprazine
102
Partial D2 agonist presynaptic receptors/antagonist at postsynaptic receptors A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
C. Lumateperone
103
A D2/D3 partial agonist with supposedly less akathisia vs aripiprazole A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
A. Brexpiprazole
104
Schizophrenia and as an adjunct to antidepressants for major depression A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
A. Brexpiprazole
105
Schizophrenia, mania, and bipolar disorder A. Brexpiprazole B. Cariprazine C. Lumateperone
B. Cariprazine
106
what is the one drug class that has a * on it in the drugs in development/under investigation slid e
dual M1/M4 muscarinic agonist combined with peripheral muscarinic antagonist (KarXT*)

PHRM 845 (34 decks)

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