Lab Final Flashcards
(279 cards)
1
Q
What are characterisitics of monofilament sutures
A
I strand, less traumatic, more memory, porrest knot security, and little capillarity
2
Q
What are characteristics of multifilament sutures
A
> I strand, braided, twisted, sheathed, more traumatic, capillary action, flexible, no memory, good handing, and knot security
3
Q
What are characteristics and types of natural suture material
A
Strongest tissue reaction, silk is very reactive and types are silk, cotton, and chromic
4
Q
What are characteristics of synthetic sutures
A
Not inflammatory and little tissue reaction
5
Q
What are brands of synthetic sutures
A
Vicryl, Dexon, PDS, and Prolene
6
Q
What are the characteristics of non-absorbable sutures
A
Not broken down by body, constant tensile strength, and can remain intact for 2 years
7
Q
What are the types of non absorbable sutures
A
Nylon, polypropylene, and steel
8
Q
What are characteristics of absorbable sutures
A
Broken down by the body and tensile strength decreases w/in 60 days
9
Q
What are the 2 types of absorbable sutures
A
Phagocytosis and hydrolysis
10
Q
What is the phagocytosis absorbable sutures
A
Natural material that is the strongest tissue reaction due to inflammation
11
Q
What is the hydrolysis suture
A
Synthetic material that is less reactive due to a small inflammatory response
12
Q
What is Pao2
A
Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood measures the dissolved oxygen in the plasma
13
Q
What is Spo2
A
Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in peripheral blood
14
Q
What is SO2
A
Measuring the percentage of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the blood
15
Q
What is PO2
A
Represents the pressure of oxygen dissolved in the blood, indicating the effectiveness of the lungs in oxygenating the blood
16
Q
How should monitoring instruments be used
A
As a supplement to a conscientious anesthetist for careful physical monitoring
17
Q
What is the BP formula
A
CO * PVR
18
Q
What goes into determining CO
A
SV and HR
19
Q
How can a heartbeat be obtained in a patient in lateral recumbency and why
A
On the side of the dependent lung because of the gravitational effect
20
Q
How can an anesthetist differentiate a sinus arrhythmia from another abnormal rhythm
A
By listening for the decrease in HR during expiration and an increase in HR during inspiration
21
Q
Why should any change in cardiac rhythm be reported to the vet
A
Because even benign arrhythmias can quickly degenerate into a dangerous rhythm if not recongized
22
Q
What is the best indicator of the blood perfusion of internal organs
A
The MAP
23
Q
What is the mean arterial pressure
A
MAP is the average arterial pressure through the cardiac cycle
24
Q
What does a MAP of 60-70 mmHg indicate
A
That blood perfusion of internal organs is reduced and tissues may become hypoxic
25
What is the appropriate MAP range in dogs and cats
60-90 mmHg but ideally it is above 70 mmHg
26
What Psys pressure should we strive to maintain in small animals when using a doppler blood flow detector and sphgyometer
80-90 mmHg
27
What is the difference between direct and indirect BP monitoring
Direct involves monitoring through a catheter inside the artery w/ a pressure transducer while indirect occurs on the outside of the body using an external sensor and cuff
28
What are the two indirect methods for acquiring BP
Doppler and oscillometric
29
How does the doppler and oscillometric methods for acquiring BP differ
While they both use a cuff to occlude and release blood flow they differ in how pressure is measured
30
What measurments does an oscilometric BP machine display
Systolic, diastolic, and MAP
31
What BP measurment can be acquired when using a doppler
Systolic
32
What abnormalities are important to identify on an EKGs
Differences in time between each cardiac cycle, differences in height of waves, differences in length of waves, differences in direction of waves
33
What percentage of the circumference of the extremity should be covered by the cuff when obtaining BP
30-50% ideally 40%
34
In what plane should indirect BP be obtained
At the same horizontal plane as the heart
35
What do pale mucous membranes indicate
Intraoperative blood loss, anemia of any cause, or poor capillary perfusion
36
What does cyanotic mucous membranes indicate
Very low blood oxygen concentration
37
Why is oxygen saturation not a good indication of oxygen availability in anemic patients
Because their decrease in oxygenation is not due to a lack of the amount of oxygen molecules in the blood but from a decrease in the material that transports the oxygen
38
Why do Pao2 and Spo2 not give a good indication of oxygen availability in anemic patients
Because the carrying capacity of the blood is severely decreased due to the decrease in number of hemoglobin binding sites
39
What should oxygen saturation be if the patient is receiving 100% O2
Greater than 95%
40
What does a pulse ox of 90-94% indicate
Hypoxemia in the patient
41
What does a pulse ox of less than 90% indicate
Serious hypoxemia that is in need of therapy
42
What does a pulse ox of less than 85% for longer than 30 seconds indicate
A medical emergency
43
What is the gold standard for measuring oxygen carrying capacity
PaO2
44
What is a disadvantage of PaO2
Doesn't tell you how much oxygen is being delivered to the tissue
45
What is SaO2
Ratio of hemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin this is reported as a ratio/percent
46
What two things are required for a SaO2
A blood gas analysis and co-oximeter machine
47
What is the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
Relationship between PaO2 and SaO2 this can be used to PaO2 from the SaO2 only if no metabolic abnormalities exist
48
What shape is all oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
Sigmoidal
49
What is a normal SaO2
95-100% equating w/ a PaO2 of about 90 mmHg
50
What SaO2 level defines hypoxemia
90% equating w/ a PaO2 of approximately 60 mmHg
51
What is the level of saturation affected by
The oxygen's affinity to hemoglobin
52
What does alkalosis indicate in regards to a oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
An increased affinity and a left shift
53
What does acidosis indicate on a oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
Decreased affinity and a right shift
54
What are the 2 types of SpO2 transducers
Transmission and reflectance
55
What are the 2 wavelengths of ligth emitted from a SpO2 transducer
Infrared for oxygenated blood and red for deoxygenated blood
56
What are important concepts to remember when using SpO2 transducers
Accuracy largely depends on blood flow and anything that affects blood flow has the potential to alter SpO2 reading
57
If you are getting a low SpO2 but all other parameters are normal what is the likely cause
A perfusion issue not oxygen saturation issue
58
What does bagging or sighing the patient prevent/treat
Atelectasis
59
How often do most anesthetists bag their patients during surgery
Every 5-10 minutes
60
What 3 factors go into determining the blood CO2 levels
Rate of production by the cells, rate of transport to the lungs, and the rate of elimination from the lungs
61
What is a normal ETco2 in a nonanesthetized patient
35-45 mmHg
62
What is the acceptable limit of ETco2 in an anesthetized patient
Up to 60 mmHg but typical is 40-55 mmHg
63
What are the 4 aspects of evaluating a capnogram
The baseline value, the ETco2 value, the waveform shape, and the rate at which changes occur
64
What are the 3 forms of CO2 in the blood
Dissolved in plasma (PaCO2), bound to hemoglobin on the RBC, and reaction w/ water producing bicarbonate and hydrogen ion formation
65
What is the normal PaCO2 value in anesthetized patients
45-60 mmHg
66
What is a capnography
Measurement of exhaled CO2 concentration
67
What is a capnometer
Machine that reports ETCO2 as a number
68
What is a capnograph
Machine that reports ETCO2 as a waveform and number
69
What is a capnogram
Waveform produced by capnograph
70
What 3 body systems does a capnography provide
Systemic metabolism, cardio, and ventilation
71
What are the 2 types of ETCO2 adapters
Mainstream and sidestream
72
What is a sidestream ETCO2 analyzer
Measurement takes place in the analyzer so the sample is aspirated from the adapter and carried to the analyzer producing a slight delay in results
73
What is the mainstream ETCO2 analyzer
Real time results because the measurements takes place in the adapter
74
What does it mean if a capnograph changes in height
The ETCO2 value is altered this can be increased or decreased
75
What does a slope in the capnograph indicate
Likely an airway obstruction
76
What does it mean if a capnograph has a change in width/frequency
There is a change in respiratory rate
77
What does a capnograph help w/
Differentiating between a physiologic and mechanical cause of an abnormal ETCO2
78
What does a PaCO2 value greater than 60 indicate
Hypoventilation is significant and requires intervention
79
When is body temperature loss greatest during an anesthetic event
In the first 20 mins
80
What body temperature range prolongs anesthetic recovery and a decreased anesthetic dose is required
89.6-93.2 F aka hypothermia
81
What are the 3 techniques for warming hypothermic patients
External passive warming, external active rewarming, and core rewarming
82
What is external passive warming
Helps minimize hypothermia by using various methods to conserve body heat such as towels and blankets
83
What is external active rewarming
Raises body temperature by using external heat producing devices
84
What is core rewarming
Use of various devices and practices to either warm the patient internally or prevent excessive heat loss from the respiratory tract
85
How do we potentiate hypothermia
Clipping, prepping, exposure, and vasodilation
86
What are the 3 ways blood oxygen is measured
Calculated oxygen content, partial pressure of oxygen, and percent oxygen saturation
87
What are the 3 groups vitals are separated into
Circulation, oxygenation, and respiration
88
What are the principles of patient monitoring
Monitor patients frequently using your hands, eyes, and ears, always check multiple parameters, never depend on instruments alone, and do not attempt to judge depth of anesthesia on the basis of drug doses or dial settings
89
What type of drape folding allows for easy unfolding and placement on the patient
Accordion
90
What is nosocominal infection
Infections that are acquired at the hospital
91
What is contamination
Presence of microorganisms on objects or wounds
92
What is sterilization
Elimination or destruction of all living organisms from a material
93
What is disinfection
Destruction of vegetative forms of bacteria but not spores
94
What are the different degrees of surgical aseptic maintenance
Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and dirty
95
What are the two categories of sterilization
Physical and chemical
96
What are the 3 forms of physical sterilization
Filtration, radiation, and heat
97
What is filtration sterilization
Use of a filter to separate particular material from liquids or gases
98
What is radiation sterilization
Destroys microorganisms w/o causing significant temperature elevation
99
What does thermal (heat) sterilization do
Denatures protein of microorganisms
100
What are the 2 forms of heat sterilization
Wet and dry
101
What is dry heat sterilization
Sterilizing materials that cannot tolerate moisture but can withstand high temperatures avoiding rust or corrode but is more difficult to control but takes 1-2 hrs
102
What is moist heat sterilization
Accomplished by boiling water or by steam under pressure creating a higher temp
103
What things can undergo moist heat sterilization
Gowns and instruments, and possibly syringes can be autoclaved
104
What are the requirements for something to be sterilized in an autoclave
Must meet 250 degress and a PSI of 15 for 15-25 minutes
105
What position should instruments w/ hinges or box locks be left in when in the autoclave
In the unlocked position
106
What is flash sterilization
Emergency sterilization that is at 131 degrees C for 3 minutes
107
Why should packs be left to cool slowly
To reduce condensation
108
What are the 4 types of sterilization indicators
Autoclave tape, melting pellet glass, culture strips, and chemical sterilization indicator strips
109
Why is hydrogen peroxide replacing ethylene oxide
Due to the high toxicity of ethylene oxide
110
Why is chlorhexidine a popular antimicrobial
Because of its rapid onset and long residual activity
111
What tools should never be sterilized
Arthroscope/laparoscope, fiberoptic light cable, and the camera
112
Why is it important that CidexPlus is rinsed thoroughly from laparoscopic instruments
Because glutaraldehyde is carcinogenic and can lead to chemical synovitis and injuries to chondrocytes
113
How should operating room cleaning be maintained
W/ daily and weekly schedules
114
How many times should the surgical site be scrubbed and rinsed
3 times
115
How long is the contact for sterile scrub like povidone-iodine
At least 5 minutes
116
Why are one step preps beneficial
They are easy to apply, faster than traditional scrubbing, effective for antimicrobial kill, rapid onset, and a long residual effect if used properly
117
What is the most common position for surgical patients
Dorsal recumbent
118
What should anyone entering the OR be wearing
Cap, mask, booties, and scrub suit
119
What are the requirements of hand scrub
Contact w/ the surfaces of the fingers, hand, and forearm and contact time for 5 minutes
120
Can waterless hand antiseptics replace or supplement surgical hand scrubbing
Supplement because it is easy to apply, effective against microorganisms, and nonirritating to the skin
121
What are the 2 methods for putting sterile gloves on
Closed gloving and open gloving
122
Can nonsterile personnel lean or reach across sterile fields
No
123
What is the sterile region after gowning and gloving
The front of the gown between the waist, just below the shoulders, and the sleeves
124
What is the optimal approach to draping a surgical site
2 drape layers the first being the four quarter drapes and a large drape that covers the entire animal
125
What drapes can be added to improve antiseptic techniques
Incisional drapes or antiseptic-impregnated adhesive drapes
126
What is important to remember when opening a surgical pack
Make sure the opening faces away from you
127
Why should drapes that get splashed w/ saline or blood be replaced and removed
Because they are no longer impermeable to bacteria known as strike through
128
What is open gloving
Bringing your fingers together to insert your hand into the first glove using the other hand to get the glove all the way over the hand without touching apart of the glove that does not naturally touch your skin then put the other glove on this occurs without a gown w/ sleeves
129
What is closed gloving
While wearing a gown w/ sleeves and w/o letting your fingers escape the sleeve you carefully fold your fingers over each other to get your sleeve into the glove then simultaneously pulling the glove on and exciting your hand through the sleeve then use the first hand to get the second sleeve and hand into a glove in a sterile way
130
What is normal systolic for patients
120 mmHg
131
What is the normal diastolic range in patients
70-80 mmHg
132
What is aspesis
Prevention of sepsis by destruction of microorganisms this usually refers to cleansing skin or mucous membranes of pathogenic organisms but w/ resident flora
133
What is aseptic
W/o infection and free from contamination
134
Why do we sterilize
To protect patients and staff to promote optimal healing, provide sterile instrumentation, and to provide a way for non-sterile people to handle sterile items
135
What factors affect the effectiveness of sterilization
Time, temperature, concentration (dilute or concentration), organism type/number/stage, and surface to be treated
136
What is ethylene oxide used for
Items that cannot withstand high temp or steam
137
What are physical characteristics of ethylene oxide
Colorless, flammable, toxic, and explosive
138
What does ethylene oxide do
Destroys metabolic pathways w/in cells and capabe of killing all microorganisms
139
What can exposure of ethylene oxide cause
Skin burns, respiratory irritation, vomiting, headaches, and birth defect
140
What things are typically sterilized w/ ethylene oxide
Leather, wool, rayon, optical equipment, and electric items
141
What is the exposure time of ethylene oxide
12 hrs exposure time
142
What are characteristics of hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
Safer than ethylene oxide and only takes an hour w/ no aeration
143
What is chemical disinfection
Agents used on living tissue
144
What are factors of chemical disinfection
Surface, degree of soil, contamination, potency of solution, and contact time
145
What are characteristics of chemical disinfection (cold sterile)
Won't dull instruments, used for things that can't tolerate heat, soak instruments in tray w/ disinfectant, don't consider items sterile, minor procedures only, ineffective against spores, and exposure time of at least 3 hours
146
What is autoclave tape
Strips that change color and only verifies that the pack has been exposed to steam
147
What is fusible melting pellets
Indicates temp reached 244 degrees but does not ensure time or steam
148
What are culture strips
Contain bacterial spores and tests verifies that the method killed those bacter but it takes time to grow and read
149
What are chemical indicator strips
Color change when it hits proper time and stream
150
What blades are used to surgical clip
40 to 50 blade
151
How do you hold clippers when surgically clipping
Flat to the skin to prevent clipper burn and go in the same direction as hair growth first then make a final pass in the opposite direction
152
Why do we use a hand vacuum over a surgical clip
To be sure all the small hairs are gone
153
What are times we don't clip hair
Feline castration, tail docking, dewclaw, and in large animals
154
What is the area we clip for surgery
Typically 4 inches each direction of proposed incision site
155
What is the area we clip for exploratory surgery
4 inches each direction of proposed incision site and lateral to the nipples
156
What area do we shave for an orthopedic surgery
Shave the circumference of the limb to the foot
157
What is iodine effective against
Bacteria, mold, yeast, and protozoa
158
What are the 3 forms of iodine
Aqueous, tincture, and iodophor
159
What are characteristics of aqueous iodine
Increase in iodine, increase in bacterialcidial, and can be cytotoxic if not diluted right
160
What are characteristics of tincture iodine
Alcohol not used
161
What are characteristics of iodophor iodine
It has surfactant for slow release, reduces irritation, residual bactericidal effect for 4-6 hrs, and inhibited by presence of organic debris
162
What is the difference between scrub ad solution
scrub has detergent and has to be washed off
163
What is chlorhexidine effective against
Bacteria, mold, yeast, and viruses
164
What are characteristics of chlorhexidine
Rapid onset and long residual effect that is not inhibited by alcohol or presence of organic debris, no cytotoxicity w/ proper dilution, more effective, less irritating, less staining, more expensive, should only be mixed w/ distilled water, and comes as a scrub/solution
165
What species can be allergic to chlorhexidine
Cats
166
What body structures tend to get irritated by chlorhexidine
Eyes and tympanic membranes
167
What are alcohols effective against
Bacteria
168
What are characteristics of alcohols
No residual activity, inhibited by organic debris, and painful/cytotoxic in open wounds
169
What are common position aids used for sx
V trofts, rolled towels, and sand bags
170
What does the suffix -ostomy mean
Creating an artifical hole
171
What does the prefix para- mean
Next to or beside
172
What is the difference between the prefix of incision- and excision-
Incision- is cutting into something while excision- is cutting something off
173
What is anastomosis mean
Bring two ends together
174
What is an onychectomy
Declaw
175
How long is a sterile double wrapped pack considered sterile when left unopen and in a closed cabniet
8 weeks
176
How long is a sterile single wrapped pack considered sterile when left unopen and in a closed cabniet
3 weeks
177
What goes into a drape pack
4 drapes and 4 towel clamps
178
What size are cat and dog drape packs
For cats 20x20 and for dogs 30x30
179
What is placed on top in a gown pack
The huck towel
180
What are the scrubbing methods
Timed for 5 minutes or counted 10-25 brush strokes on all 5 surfaces with both of these methods start at your fingers and move to your elbow
181
How do you rinse your arms when scrubbing
Fingers first then up to elbows
182
What are alcohol based rubs
A 1 step hand sanitizer on steroids
183
How should you stand after scrubbed, gowned, and gloved
Clasp hands in front of you, keep hands above the waist, never fold your arms, go thru doors backwards, don't lean or reach over the sterile field, only touch sterile items, and never turn your back to the surgical field
184
What are the roles of the surgery anesthetist
Monitoring the patients anesthetic depth, adjusting vaporizer accordingly, IV fluid maintenance, PPVs as outlined, and complete paperwork and monitor equipment by verify working condition, check anesthesia machines, and turn on the heated surgery table to 85 degrees
185
What are the roles of the surgical technician
Pack preparation, assist during surgery by assist in draping, open inner pack wraps, arrange pack instruments, and pass instruments to surgeon as directed
186
What are the roles of the O.R technician
Set out gown packs and gloves for surgeon and surgical tech, set out cap and mask for surgeon and surgical tech, set out drape and instrument packs on appropriate stand and open the outer wraps when told, obtain proper suture size and blade and hand it to surgeon sterilely, know where the emergency drugs are kept, and have post operative analgesic ready to administer when surgeon is closing
187
What is the incisive papilla
A raised structure located at the midline behind the maxillary incisors in dogs and cats
188
What are the structures of the periodontium
The gingival tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, and cementum
189
What things can be missed w/o dental rads
Root resorption, caries, periapical radiolucency, periodontal bone loss, retained root tips, unerupted teeth, osteomyelitis, neoplasia, tooth and jaw fractures, foreign bodies, and disease of the tempromandibular joint
190
How long does it take for plaque to mineralize into calculus
As early 24-48 hrs after it adheres to the tooth surface
191
What is periodontal debridement
Non surgical instrumentation that focuses on removal hard and soft deposits from supragingival surfaces of teeth
192
What should be done during periodontal debridement to prevent aspiration
An ET w/ a cuff and gravity
193
What is a splash block in a COHAT
Wound irrigation directly into an open incision providing topical anesthesia
194
What is local anesthesia in a COHAT
Inflitration of local anesthetic along planned incision lines or into the periodontal ligament of a tooth of interest
195
What is regional anesthesia in a COHAT
The delivery of a local anesthetic to specific nerves to block an entire region of the body
196
What does the inferior alveolar nerve block do
Prevents sensation of the soft tissue and bone of the entire ipsilateral mandible
197
What does the maxillary nerve block do
Prevents sensation in the entire maxillary quadrant on buccal and palatal sides of the teeth
198
When can attempts of saving a tooth with advanced periodontal surgery be made
When the owner can perform daily brushing
199
Why should the bristles of the brush be at a 45 degree angle when brushing an animals teeth
To enable some bristles to slide into the sulcus
200
What is a technicians role in oral surgery
Proper equipment ready, place the regional nerve block, take preoperative and postoperative dental rads, retract tissue, and assist in hemostasis
201
What is endodontics
Subspecialty of density that deals with the treatment of the inside of the tooth
202
What is the only thing that has been recent research shows is related to feline tooth reabsorption
Vitamin D levels in commercial cat food
203
What is assed first the warming blanket and electrocautery or the drapes
The warming blanket and electrocautery
204
What secures quarter drapes to the patient
Backhands towel clamps
205
When can light handles or sterile light covers be placed
After the patient is draped
206
What can inadequate surgical preparation result in
Hinder surgical technique, increase risk of infection, and result in prolonged anesthesia
207
When should surgically pain medication be given
Before pain occurs and in intervals
208
What should happen to the skin of an aspiration is to be done
It should be aseptically prepped to prevent infection
209
What kind of dehiscence may result in sudden death
Pneumothorax
210
What is strike through
Excessive drainage of a wound causing serum to seep through the bandage to the external environment
211
What is an active drain
A drain that is sealed to the environment and actively collecting fluid from the wound into a reservoir
212
What is a passive drain
A drain that provides an exit port for fluid to the external environment
213
What is a dewclaw removal
Amputation if the vestigial first digit in the front and hind legs
214
When should dewclaw and tail docks be done
Within the first 3-5 days of life
215
What would happen if you left glue in an open wound from a claw is removed
Chronic lameness and foreign body
216
How long should cats be in the hospital after having an onychectomy
Until all the bandages have been removed so w/in 24 hrs
217
Why should tissue exposed to the air continue to be moistened
To prevent tissue desiccation
218
What steps are taken to prevent stuff from being left in the patient
Preoperative and postoperative sponge counts are recommended and instruments should be assessed to prevent objects from being left in the abdominal cavity
219
Is the contents of the GIT considered sterile
No its contaminents
220
What are characteristics of intestinal devitalization
Lack of motility, gray/green/black discoloration, severe thinning of the visceral wall, lack of bleeding on cut section, lack of flurescein dye uptake, and lack of doppler blood flow
221
What is GDV
Dilation of the stomach w/ ingesta and gas coupled w/ a signature rotation of the stomach into an abnormal position
222
What is normal post cystotomy
Mild hematuria w/ or w/o blood clots and frequent urination can be expected
223
What is a hernia
A protrusion of tissue from its normal cavity
224
What is an umbilical hernia
The bowel, omentum, and or abdominal fat protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall under the skin of the umbilicus
225
What is an ingunial hernia
Intestines, uterus, broad ligament, intra-abdominal fat, and/or another abdonminal organ protrudes through the inguinal canal as a result of a defect in the constrains of the canal
226
What is a diaphramatic hernia
Abdominal contents protrude through an opening in the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity
227
What should animals w/ a diaphragmatic hernia have
Oxygen, cage confinement to ensure maximal oxygenation, minimal stress, and constant monitoring for respiratory insufficiency before surgery
228
How should animals w/ a diaphragmatic hernia be positioned
In sternal recumbency w/ the shoulders higher than the pelvis or gently raising the animal up from the front end may help reduce abdominal structures back into the abdomen from the thoracic cavity and improve respiration
229
What is an amputation
Partial or complete removal of a body part
230
What will prevent overdistention w/ permanent urinary bladder dysfunction
Keeping the bladder empty via urinary catheriziation or manual expression
231
What should animals w/ cervical injury be held in
In a harness
232
What do animals w/ spinal injury need regardless of having surgery or not
Extensive cage rest
233
What should not be placed in articular cartilage
Retractors
234
What should be done to cartilage in surgery to prevent permanent damage
Keeping it moist
235
What is important to do after a long bone or joint surgery
Encourage limb use for optimal recovery
236
Which are better for infected wounds monofilament or multifilament
Monofilament
237
How should you select a suture
It should be at least as strong as the tissue that it is holding together and the smallest diameter to hold the tissues together
238
What is the weakest point of a tied suture
The knot
239
Why are sutures w/ low memory or no memory beneficial
They are easier to handle w/ improved knot quality
240
What do eyed needles require that causes greater trauma to the tissue
A loop of suture through the needle eye
241
How does a surgical assistant assist on a postoperative care of a surgical patient
Cleaning the wound, placing a bandage, submitting a biopsy sample, and or writing the surgical report
242
What are needle holders designed for
Handling the suture needle and performing instrument suture ties
243
What are thumb forcepts commonly used for
To hold tissues while dissecting or suturing
244
What do tissue forceps do
Self locking mechanism to clamp and hold tissues
245
How are tissue forceps choosen
According to the damage that may be inflicted to tissue
246
What are hemostatic forceps used for
To clamp, crush, and hold blood vessels w/ a self locking mechanism
247
What are retractors used for
To retract tissues and provide good visibility of the surgical site
248
How do waterless hand antiseptics and surgical hand scrubbing relate to each other
Waterless hand antiseptics are easy to apply, effective against microorganisms, and nonirritating to the skin that can be a supplement to traditional hand scrubbing but should not replace surgical hand scrubbing
249
What should happen w/ gowns or drapes that become wet w/ saline or blood
They are no longer impermeable to bacteria and need to be removed and replaced
250
What should be done w/ instruments that are contaminated
Passed off the instrument table to an operating room technician or placed in an isolated region of the instrument table
251
What organ is highly mobile and can be lifted out of the abdomen
The spleen
252
What are brachydont teeth
Relatively small distinct crown compared w/ the size of their well developed root and apices of the roots are open for a limited time during the eruption and development of the teeth preventing the teeth from continually growing
253
What are hypsodont teeth
Large reserve crown beneath the gingival margin and root structure allowing for continued growth and/or continued eruption
254
What are the two types of hypsodont teeth
Radicular and aradicular
255
What are radicular hypsodont teeth
The apices remain open for a significant portion of the adult life but they eventually close
256
What are aradicular hypsodont teeth
They lack of a true root structure and lifelong tooth growth that compensates for occlusal wear
257
What is the rule of 4 and 9 w/ the triadan numbering system
Canines will always be 04 and the first molar is 09
258
What are diphyodonts
There are have 2 sets the deciduous that are then replaced by the permanent
259
What is the most common dental numbering system
The triadan system
260
What does occlusion mean
The spatial relationship of teeth w/in the mouth
261
What does malocclusion mean
Incorrect alignment of teeth or jaws
262
What is abrasion
Tooth wear associated w/ agrressive chewig on external objects
263
What is attrition
Tooth wear associated w/ tooth to tooth contact over time
264
Why should the ultrasonic scaler tip never be directed at the tooth in a 90 degree angle
Because it will cause damage to the enamel
265
What are the 3 parts of dental instruments
The handle, the shank, and the working end
266
What are scalers designed to be used on
The tooth crown
267
Where are curettes designed to be used
Subgingivally
268
What position is the handle of the universal scaler held in during vertical scaling stroke
Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
269
What does the infraorbital nerve block do
Prevents sensation from the tip of the needle rostrally on the ipsilateral maxilla
270
What does the middle mental nerve block do
Prevents sensation of the ipsilateral rostral lower lip from the labial frenulum rostrally
271
What is a bass technique of brusing teeth
Places the bristles of the brush at a 45 degree angle against the tooth along the gingival margin to enable some bristles to slide into the sulcus
272
What is the stillman technique of brushing teeth
Used in areas of periodontal surgery where bristles apical to the gingival margin are moved w/ a gentle sweeping motion in the coronal direction against the gingiva w/o placement of bristles into the healing sulcus
273
What should you always do before extracting a pets tooth
Get permission from the owner
274
What do regional nerve blocks do during extractions
Lower inhalant requirements and provide postoperative pain relief
275
Why is venous return from the back half of a dog w/ GDV heart compromised
A result of compression of the vena cava from the dilated stomach
276
What is a mucometra
Enlargement of the uterus w/ a sterile mucoid
277
What is a hydrometra
Enlargement of the uterus w/ a sterile serous fluid
278
Why should an animal w/ a chest tube be handled carefully
To prevent inadvertent introduction of air around the lungs and death of the animal
279
How should a tube be secured in a patient
Tube is air-tight, that all connections to the environment are closed, and that equipped w/ a protective clamp
