Laboratory Diagnostics Flashcards
1
Q
What is quality assurance?
A
The minimization of errors during the preanalytical, analytical, and post analytical time frames in sample testing
2
Q
What are examples of quality assurance?
A
- SOPS
- Labeling, communication, and recording
- Appropriate collection devices
3
Q
What is quality control?
A
Techniques to test instrumentation, personnel performing tests, and diagnostic testing kits to ensure reliability of results
4
Q
What are examples of external quality control?
A
Commercially prepared products to test procedures
5
Q
What are examples of internal quality control?
A
Built into instrument or diagnostic equipment
6
Q
What is calibration?
A
Techniques to adjust an instrument to improve accuracy of results
7
Q
When should urinalysis be performed?
A
Within 20-30 minutes of collection or can refrigerate for up to 12 hours
8
Q
What do you evaluate with physically of urine?
A
- Volume
- Color
- Transparency
- Odor
- Specific Gravity
9
Q
How does color correlate with specific gravity?
A
Light urine decreased SG
Dark urine increased SG
10
Q
What does bile in urine look like?
A
Yellow to green foam
11
Q
What does hematuria or hemoglobinuria look like?
A
Red or reddish brown
12
Q
What does myoglobinuria look like?
A
Brown
13
Q
What does rabbit urine look like?
A
Yellow to cloudy white to orange
14
Q
What does horse urine look like?
A
More brown
15
Q
What is assessed with transparency?
A
Turbidity
16
Q
What is turbidity associated with/
A
Cellular debris
17
Q
What species have normally cloudy urine?
A
Horses
Cats
Rabbits, Hamsters, and guinea pigs
18
Q
Why is specific gravity of urine assessed?
A
the ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute filtrates from the glomerulus, indicating how well the kidney can concentrate or dilute urine
19
Q
What is the SG of glomerular filtrate?
A
The same as plasma
20
Q
What is Isosthenuria?
A
1.008-1.012 (same as plasma)
21
Q
What is hyposthenuria?
A
Less than 1.008
22
Q
What is hypersthenuria?
A
Greater than 1.012
23
Q
What does low specific gravity mean?
A
Tubules are not concentrating
24
Q
What does high specific gravity mean?
A
Tubules are over concentrating
25
Describe urine ph
Less than 7 acidic
Greater than 7 Alkaline
26
What does increased protein in urine mean?
Renal disease
27
What does increased glucose in urine mean?
Diabetes or excitement
28
What does increased ketones in urine in large animals mean?
Pregnancy toxemia due to rapid breakdown of fats
29
What does increased ketones in urine in small animals mean?
Diabetes
30
What do increased bile pigments in urine indicate?
Biliary obstruction
Hepatic infections
Toxicity
Hemolytic anemia
31
What blood components would be in urine?
Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria
32
What does increased leukocytes in urine indicate?
Infection
33
What does increased urobilinogen mean in urine?
Liver disease
GI disease
Intravascular hemolysis
34
What does hematuria indicate?
Urinary dz
35
What does hemoglobinuria indicate?
Intravascular hemolysis
36
What does myoglobinuria indicate?
Muscle over exertion
37
How much urine should be collected
at least 5 ml
38
How to view urine sediment?
Lower condenser and view through coverslip at 10x then 40x
39
What are the epithelial cells found in urine?
1. Squamos
2. Transitional
3. Renal
40
Describe squamos epithelial cells
1. Flat, irregular shaped with angular borders and small nuclei
2. Derived from urethra, vagina, and vulva
3. Largest cells
4. Not clinically significant
41
Described transitional epithelial cells
1. Variation in size with granular cytoplasm
2. Associated with inflammation such as cystitis or from catheterization
42
Described renal epithelial cells
1. Round with large nucleus, slightly larger than wbcs
2. Increased with renal tubular disease
43
What do casts indicate?
Renal tubular damage
44
Describe hyaline casts?
cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and round ends
45
What is the most common type of cast?
Granular
46
What do waxy casts indicate?
Chronic to severe renal tubular damage
47
What are the types of cellular casts?
1. Epithelial
2. WBC
3. RBC
48
What do epithelial casts indicate?
acute nephritis
49
What do WBC casts indicate?
inflammation of the tubules
50
What do RBC casts indicate?
Bleeding into the tubules
51
Describe struvites
Coffin lids
52
What causes struvites?
Urease producing bacteria of the lower urinary tract disease
53
Describe amorphous phosphate and urates
Colorless granular precipitate
54
What causes phosphate crystals?
alkaline urine
55
What causes Urate crystals?
acidic urine
56
Describe ammonium biurate
Round and brownish with long spicules
57
What causes ammonium biurate crystals?
Liver disease or portocaval shunts
58
What species commonly has ammonium biurate crystals?
Dalmations
59
Describe calcium carbonate crystals
Dumbbells with radial striations
60
What species are calcium carbonate crystals common in?
Horses and rabbits
61
Describe Calcium oxylate crytals?
Small colorless envelopes
62
What causes monohydrate calcium oxylate crystals?
ethylene glycol toxicity
63
What causes dihydrate calcium oxylate crystals?
Can be found in healthy animals
64
Describe leucine crystals
small and round with sectioned centers
65
Describe tyrosine crystals
Spiculated and spindle shaped
66
Describe cystine crystals
Flat and 6 sided
67
What do leucine, tyrosine, and cystine crystals indicate?
hepatic dz
68
What is uric acid?
End product of metabolism and oxidation
69
What species normally produces uric acid?
dalmatians
70
What does bilirubin crystals in urine indicate?
Common in canine urine
71
What are the types of cells in hematology?
RBCs WBCs and Platelets
72
What are the types of WBCs?
1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Basophils
5. Eosinophils
73
What WBCs are granulocytes?
neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
74
What WBCs are agranulocytes?
lymphocytes and monocytes
75
What do neutrophils do?
phagocytize bacteria
76
What do lymphocytes do?
Immunologic defense
77
What do monocytes do?
Circulate briefly in the bloodstream before becoming macrophages in the tissues
78
What do basophils do?
Respond to allergic reactions
79
What do eosinophils do?
Respond to parasitic infection
80
What is the development cycle of RBCs?
1. Produced in the bone marrow
Rubriblast
Prorubricyte
Rubricyte
Metarubricyte
Reticulocyte
Mautre RBC
81
What is the development cycle of Granulocytes?
Produced in bone marrow
Progranulocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band
Mature
82
What is the development cycle of monocytes?
Produced in bone marrow
Monoblast
Promonocyte
Monocyte
83
Where are lymphocytes produced?
B cell production in bone marrow in mammals
B cell production in bursa of fabricus in avians
T cell production in thymus
Production in adults occurs in lymphoid tissues
84
What is the development of lymphocytes?
Lymphoblast
Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte
85
TUBES
1. Purple
2. Green
3. Gray
4. Blue
5. Red
6. Yellow
1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium Fluoride
4. Sodium Citrate
5. Serum Separator
6. Clot Activator
86
What are sodium fluoride tubes used for?
Glucose tests
87
What are sodium citrate tubes used for?
Coagulation studies
88
How are RBCs evaluated?
1. PCV
2. Hemoglobin
3. RBC Indices
4. Reticulocyte Count
5. Morphology
89
What is PCV?
% of RBCs in circulating whole blood
90
What does decreased PCV indicate?
Anemia or overhydration
91
What does increased PCV indicate?
Dehydration
92
What is hemoglobin?
Part of RBCs responsible for carrying O2 and CO2
93
What is hemoglobin count used for?
Calculating RBC indices
94
How do you calculate hemoglobin content?
1/3 of PCV
95
What is MCV?
Mean corpuscular volume
96
What is macrocytosis?
Increased MCV
97
What is microcytosis?
Decreased MCV
98
How do you calculate MCV?
(PCV x10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in femtoliters
99
What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin?
The hemoglobin volume
100
What is hypochromasia?
Decreased MCHC
101
What is hyperchromasia?
Increased MCHC
102
How do you calculate MCH?
(Hb concentration x 10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in g/dL
103
What is MCHC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
104
How do you calculate MCHC?
(Hb concentration x 100) / PCV as a whole number
Measured in g/dL
105
What is reticulocyte count?
% of reticulocytes included in RBC count
106
What species does not have reticulocytes?
horses
107
What species has 2 kinds of reticulocytes and what are they?
Cats
Aggregate and punctate
Only punctate is counted
108
How are leukocytes evaluated?
1. Total leukocyte count
2. Differentiation
3. Morphology
109
What is used for manual wbc counts?
Neubauer system
110
What can interfere with WBC counts?
nRBCs
111
What species have nRBCs in peripheral blood normally?
Birds and reptiles
112
What is leukocytosis?
Increase in WBC
113
What is leukopenia?
Decrease in WBC
114
What is wbc diferentiation?
% of each type of wbc times total wbc count
115
What are thrombocytes?
anuclear cytoplasmic fragments from bone marrow megakaryocytes in mammals
116
How are thrombocytes different in non-mammalians?
Nucleated
117
How are equine thrombocytes different?
they are paler
118
How do you calculate platelets?
Average number of platelets in 10 HPF x 20,000
119
What is mean platelet volume?
Provides an average size of platelets
120
What does rouleaux indicate?
Common in horses but can also be seen in cats, dogs, and pigs
121
What does agglutination indicate?
IMHA
122
What causes hypochromasia?
iron deficient anemia
123
What causes basophilic stippling?
lead poisoning
124
What causes heinz bodies?
Oxidative damage
Aceteminophen toxicity in cats and dogs
onion toxicity in dogs
125
What causes Howell Jolly bodies?
Regeneration
126
What is poikilocytosis?
RBC variation in shape
127
What causes acanthocytes?
Liver dz but can be normal in young cattle and goats
128
What causes blister cells?
iron deficiency
129
What causes crystallized hemoglobin?
Normal in cats, llamas, and puppies
130
What causes dacryocytes?
bone marrow disorders
131
What causes drepanocytes?
Invitro in deer, angora goats, and some sheep
132
What causes eccentrocytes?
dogs ingesting aceteminophen and onions
133
What causes echinocytes?
Renal dz and rattle snake bites
134
What causes elliptocytes?
Normal shape for camelids and nonmammalian species
135
What causes ghost cells?
intravascular hemolysis
136
What causes leptocytes?
iron deficiency anemia and IMHA
137
What causes schistocytes?
disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
138
What causes spherocytes?
Hemolytic anemia
139
What causes stomatocytes?
Hereditary condition
140
What causes neutrophilic bands?
Indicate inflammation
141
What causes pelgar huet anomaly?
False left shift
142
What causes dohle bodies?
mild toxemia
more common in cats and horses
143
What causes cytoplasmic basophilia?
Toxicity and reactivity
144
What cause cytoplasmic vacuolization?
Abnormal lysosomes
145
What causes reactive lymphocytes?
Antigenic stimulation
146
What causes kurloff bodies?
Normal in male guinea pigs
147
What causes plasma cells?
End stage of b lymphocytes
148
What is total protein?
Combination of various proteins produced by liver
149
What protein is most abundant in plasma?
Albumin
150
What is the second most abundant protein in plasma?
Globulins
151
What is globulin commonly measured in large animals?
Fibrinogen
152
What causes hyperproteinemia?
Dehydration
inflammation
Reactive neoplasia
multiple myomas
153
What causes hypoproteinemia?
loss of proteins
154
What is coagulation?
complex interaction among vessel walls, epithelial cells, platelets, phospholipids, and soluble proteins called coagulation factors
155
What is the end product of coagulation
Thrombin
156
What are the types of hemostasis?
Primary and Secondary
157
What is primary hemostasis?
Vessel walls constrict to reduce blood loss and then platelets are attracted to and adhere to subendothelium
158
What are disorders of primary hemostasis?
1. Prolonged bleeding
2. petechia
3. eccymosis
159
What are laboratory evaluations for primary hemostasis?
Platelet count
buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)
160
What is secondary hemostasis?
Proteins known as coagulation factors that activate each other in a loop system
161
What are the disorders of secondary hemostasis?
Delayed hemorrhage
Large hematomas
Bleeding within body cavities
162
What are the pathways of secondary hemostasis?
1. Extrinsic
2. Intrinsic
3. Common
163
What does the extrinsic pathway do?
initiates coagulation cascade
164
What does the intrinsic pathway do/
Proteins and clotting factors are activated
165
What are the laboratory evaluations for the extrinsic pathway?
1. Prothrombin time (PT)
2. Thrombin and calcium added to citrated plasma
3. Factor VII
166
What are the laboratory evaluations for the intrinsic pathway?
Activated Clotting Time (ACT)
Activated Partial Prothrombin Time (aPTT)
167
What are the laboratory evaluations for the common pathway?
1. Thrombin Time (TT)
2. Evaluate plasma fibrinogen levels
168
What parasites reside in the heart?
Dirofilaria immitis
169
What parasites reside in the subcutaneous tissue?
Dipetalonema
170
What parasites reside in the lungs?
Lungworms
171
What parasites reside in the abomasum?
Cryptosporidium and Trichostrongyles
172
What parasites reside in the digestsive tract?
Trichomonads
173
What parasites reside in the large intestines?
Whipworms, strongyles, and pinworms
174
What parasites reside in the small and large intestines?
Anplocephala
Eimeria
Cryptosporidium
175
What parasites reside in the small intestines?
Most intestinal parasites
176
What type of worm is Toxocara?
roundworm
177
What type of worm is Toxascaris?
roundworm
178
What type of worm is Parascaris?
roundworm
179
What type of worm is Ascaris?
roundworm
180
What type of worm is Ancyolostoma?
Hookworm
181
What type of worm is Uncinaria?
hookworm
182
What type of worm is Haemonchus?
hookworm
183
What type of worm is Ostertagia?
hookworm
184
What type of worm is Trichuris?
whipworm
185
What type of worm is Dipylidium?
tapeworm
186
What type of worm is Taenia?
Tapeworm
187
What type of worm is Anplocephala?
tapeworm
188
What type of worm is Moniezia?
tapeworm
189
What type of worm is Paragonimus?
Lungworm
190
What type of worm is Dictyocaulus?
lungworm
191
What type of worm is cystoisospora?
Coccidia
192
What type of worm is Eimeira?
Coccidia
193
What type of worm is strongyloides?
Strongyle
194
What type of worm is cyathostomes?
Strongyle
195
What type of worm is Oxyuris?
Pinworm
196
What type of worm is Strongylus?
Strongyle
197
What type of worm is echinococcus?
tapeworm
198
What type of worm is Gasterophilus?
Bot fly
199
What type of worm is Fasciola?
Liver fluke
200
What does toxocara infect?
cats and dogs
201
What does toxascaris infect?
dogs and cats
202
What does Parascaris infect?
horses
203
What does ascaris infect
Pigs
204
What does Ancylostoma infect?
Dogs and Cats
205
What does Uncinaria infect?
Dogs
206
What does Haemonchus infect?
Cattle, Sheep, and goats
207
What does Ostertagia infect?
cattle, sheep, and goats
208
What does Echinococcus infect?
Dogs and cats
209
What does Trichuris infect?
Dogs, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs
210
What does Dipylidium infect?
dogs and cats
211
What does Taenia infect?
dogs and cats
212
What does Anplochephala infect?
Horses
213
What does Moniezia infect?
Cattle, sheep, and goats
214
What does Paragonimus infect?
Cats and Dogs
215
What does dictyocaulus infect?
Cattle sheep and goats
216
What does cystoisospora infect?
Dogs, cats, and pigs
217
What does Eimeria infect?
Horses, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs
218
What does Strongyloides infect?
Cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs
219
What does Cyathostomes infect?
Horses
220
What does Strongylus infect?
Horses
221
What does Gasterophilus infect?
Horses
222
What does Fasciola infect?
Cattle sheep and goats
223
What does Capillaria infect?
Cattle, sheep, and goats
224
What does cryptosporidium infect?
Everything
225
What does Trichinella infect?
Pigs
226
What worms are transmammary/transplacental?
Roundworms and Hookworms
227
What worms are transferred by mosquitos?
Heartworm
228
What worms are transferred by skin penetration?
Hookworms and some whipworms
229
What worms are ingested by crayfish?
lungworm
230
What worms are transferred by fleas?
tapeworms
231
What worms are transferred by ingestion of muscle?
Trichinella and Toxoplasma
232
What worms are facultative?
Strongyloides
233
What worms are zoonotic?
1. Roundworm
2. Hookworm
3. Tapeworm
4. Toxoplasma
5. Strongyloides
6. Sarcocystitis
234
What zoonotic trait does roundworms cause?
Visceral Larval migrans
235
What zoonotic trait does hookworms cause?
Cutaneous Larval migrans
236
What zoonotic trait does Toxoplasma cause?
Toxoplasmosis
237
What type of parasite is Melophagus?
Fly: sheep ked
238
What type of parasite is Hypoderma?
Fly: cattle grub
239
What type of parasite is Oestrus?
Fly: nasal bot
240
What type of parasite is Cuterebra?
Fly warbles
241
What type of parasite is Anopleura?
Sucking lice
242
What type of parasite is Pediculus?
Sucking lice
243
What type of parasite is Mallophaga?
Biting lice
244
What type of parasite is Felicola?
Biting lice
245
What type of parasite is Trichodectes?
Biting lice
246
What type of parasite is Ctenocephalidaes?
Flea
247
What type of parasite is dermacentor?
Dog tick
248
What type of parasite is Ixodes?
Deer tick
249
What type of parasite is Rhipicephalus?
Brown dog tick
250
What does Dermacentor transmit?
RMSF, Tularemia, Q fever
251
What does Ixodes transmit?
Lyme
252
What does Rhipicephalus transmit?
Ehrlichia and Babesia
253
What type of parasite is Sarcoptes?
Mange mite
254
What type of parasite is Demodex?
mange mite
255
What type of parasite is Cheyletiella?
Mite: walking dandruff
256
What type of parasite is Choprioptes?
Tail and Leg Mange MIte
257
What type of parasite is Psoroptes?
Large animal ear mite
258
What type of parasite is Otodectes?
Small animal ear mite
259
What type of parasite is Notoedres?
Scabies mite
260
What are the types of chemistries that assess kidney function>
CREAT
BUN
SDMA
Uric Acid
261
What parasite causes ocular larval migrans?
ROundworm
262
What is creat?
byproduct of muscle metabolism
263
What does creat measure?
glomerular function
263
What does increased creat indicate?
Kidney dz
264
What can affect the results of creat?
Hydration status
265
What is BUN?
end product of protein metabolism that is excreted by the kidneys
266
What does BUN measure?
glomerular filtration and renal function
267
What is indicated by increased BUN?
Renal insufficiency and decreased urine output
268
What is indicated by decreased BUN?
Anorexia, Liver dz, and increased urine output
269
What is SDMA?
An early indicator of kidney disease. Can detect changes at only 25% loss of kidney function
270
What chemistries assess pancreatic function?
Glucose
Amylase
Lipase
271
What does increased urine glucose indicate?
Diabetes
272
What does increased serum or plasma glucose indicate?
Diabetes
Stress
Cushings
Corticosteroids
273
What is amylase?
breaksdown complex starches and glycogen
274
What is increased amylase indicate?
Pancreatitis
Cushings
GI Obstruction
Renal dz
275
What is lipase?
breaks down long chain fatty acids of lipids
276
What does increased lipase indicate?
Pancreatitis
277
What are the tests for lipase function?
cPL and fPL
278
What is the best indicator for renal disease in avians?
Uric acid
279
What chemistries assess liver function?
Bilirubin
TP
Albumin
Globulins
Enzymes
Bile Acids
280
What is bilirubin?
breakdown of hemoglobin by macrophages in the spleen
281
What does increased bilirubin indicate?
Hepatic dz or cholestasis
282
What affects total protein?
Absorption and distribution
283
What does increased total protein indicate?
Dehydration
284
What does Decreased total protein indicate?
Shock and overhydration
285
How much of albumin makes up total protein?
35-50%
286
What is albumin?
binding and transport protein
287
What does increased albumin indicate?
Rare but can indicate shock
288
What does decreased albumin indicate?
Many causes but liver dz and starvation are the most common
289
How are globulins determined?
Estimating the difference between albumin and TP
290
What is indicated by increased globulins?
Inflammation and infections
291
What is indicated by decreased globulins?
Failure of passive transfer or overhydration
292
What do variations in enzymes indicate?
Hepatic DZ
293
What are the liver enzymes?
ALT
AST
ALP
LDH
GGT
294
What are bile acids
Formed in the liver from cholesterol, secreted into bile, and stored in the gallbladder. Then reabsorbed in ileus
295
What is indicated by increased bile acids?
All forms of liver dz and portosystemic shunts
296
What is indicated by decreased bile acids?
Delayed gastric emptying and small intestine bacterial overgrowth
297
What causes hypernatremia?
Dehydration
298
What causes hyponatremia?
Overhydration, renal dz, V/D, CHF
299
What causes hyperkalemia?
Renal disease and addisons
300
What causes hypokalemia?
Fluid loss, V/D
301
What causes Hyperchloremia?
Hyperparathyroidism
Excessive vitamin d
Bony metastes
302
What causes hypochloremia?
Malabsorption
Eclampsia
Pancreatic necrosis
Post parturient lactation
303
What causes hyperphosphatemia?
Renal disease and ethylene glycol poisoning
304
What causes hypophosphatemia?
Malabsorption
Diabetes
Sarcomas
Cushings
305
When is decreased magnesium significant?
Only in sheep and cattle it can cause muscle tetany
306
What is thyroxine?
T4 baseline measurement of resting thyroid hormone concentration
307
What is free thyroid hormone?
measures the portion of t4 not bound to proteins
308
What are the basic parts of a microscope?
Eyepiece
Condenser
Stage
Objectives
Focus
309
How long are cultures held in the incubator?
Grown overnight and held for 48 hours
310
What temperature is an incubator?
98.6 F or 37 C
311
How are fungal cultures grown?
At room temperature in the dark
312
What are the types of media in microbiology?
Nutritive
Selective
Differential
313
What does nutritive media grow?
All types
314
What does selective media grow?
specific types of bacteria
315
What does differential media grow?
Differentiates between different types
316
What are the basic types of media?
Agar
Broth
Plate
Tube
Slant
317
What is CNA?
Columbian Acid Agar
Selects for Gram Positive
318
What is Hektoen Enteric Agar?
Selects for salmonella and shigella
319
What is MAC?
MacConkey II Agar
Selects for Gram Negative
Differentiates between lactose fermenting and non-lactose fermenting
320
What is MH?
Mueller Hinton Agar
Antibiotic Sensitivity
321
What is SS?
Salmonella- Shigella Agar
Selects for pathogenic gram negative
322
What is TSA?
Trypticase Soy Agar AKA Blood Agar Plate
General nutritive media plate used to observe hemolytic reactions
323
What is a DTM tube?
Dermatophyte Test Medium
Isolates pathogenic fungi
324
What is NA?
Nutrient Agar Slant
Cultivates and transports nonfastidious organisms
325
What is TSB?
Tryticase Soy Broth
used in blood cultures
326
What is a UREA tube?
Urea Agar Slant
Determines Urease production of bacteria
327
What specimens are sterile?
1. Blood
2. Urine
3. Spinal Fluid
4. Joint Fluid
5. Solid Organs
6. Milk
7. Lower Respiratory Tract
328
What specimens are non-sterile?
1. hair and fur
2. Skin
3. Sputum or Saliva
4. Intestinal Tract or Feces
5. Ears
6. Upper Respiratory Tract
329
What is an acid fast stain?
Determines if bacteria is acid fast positive or negative
330
What is a catalase test?
Used on all gram positive cocci to determine if staph or strep
331
What is positive and negative on a catalase test?
Positive: Staph
Negative: Strep
332
What is a coagulase test?
Used on all staph
Positive: More pathogenic
333
What is a gram stain test?
Differentiates between gram positive or gram negative
334
What is positive and negative on a gram stain test?
Purple is positive
Pink is negative
335
What is an indole test?
Positive is E. coli
336
What is the Kirbi-Bauer test?
Susceptibility test for staph or gram (-) rods
337
What is an oxidase test?
Done on non-lactose fermenting
Positive turns blue and is Pseudomonas or Aermonas
338
What is a UREA test?
Used in Lactose fermenting bacteria if the indole is negative (EG not E Coli). If it is positive then it is Klebsiella or Proteus
339
What are the gram positive cocci?
Staph and Strep
340
What does Staphylococcus cause?
Skin and other infections
Bumblefoot in birds
341
What does Streptococcus cause?
Pneumonia, Mastitis, Septicemia
342
What are the gram negative cocci?
Neisseria and Moraxella bovis
343
What does Neisseria weaveri cause?
Infectious agent in dog bites
344
What does Neisseria iguanae cause?
Abscesses in iguanae lizards
345
What does moraxella bovis cause?
Pinkeye in cattle
346
What are the gram negative rods?
Bacterioides
Fusobacterium
Pseudomonas
Aeromonas
347
What do bacterioids cause?
Diarrhea, abscesses, mastitis, periodontitis
348
What does Fusobacterium cause?
Dog and Cat bites infection
Thrush in horses
Foot rot in cattle
349
What does pseudomonas and aeromonas casue?
Serious non-enteral infections in exotics
350
What is bacillus anthracis?
Gram negative rod
Causes sudden death in cattle and sheep
351
What is Clostridium piriformis?
Gram negative rod
Causes acute fatal enteritis in rodents and foals
352
What is Cornybacterium equi?
Gram Negative Rod
AKA Rhodococcus equi
Foal Pneumonia
353
What is Cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Gram Negative Rod
Lymphadenitis in sheeps and goats
354
What is Cornybacterium renale?
Gram Negative Rod
UTI in cattle, sheep, and pigs
355
What is Listeria
Gram negative rod
infects brain stem
356
What is Erysipelothrix?
Gram Negative Rod
Dogs and Fowl: Septicemia
Swine: Diamond Skin Dz
357
What is Nocardia?
Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatamous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)
358
What is Actinomyces?
Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatomous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)
359
What is dermatophilus?
Gram Negative Rod
Rain Rot Skin Infection
360
What is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Gram negative rod
Pnuemonia in primates
361
What is Mycobacterium avium?
Gram negative rod
Fatal GI and Respiratory dz in birds
362
What is Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Gram negative rod
Johnes dz in cattle
363
What is mycoplasma?
Pneumonia and arthritis
364
What are the gram negative spirochetes?
Campylobacter
Yersinia
Leptospira
Borrelia
Helicobacter
365
What are the gram negative Coccobacilli?
Bordetella
Pasteurella
Brucella abortus
366
What does Campylobacter cause?
Chronic debilitating diarrhea
367
What does bordetella cause?
Respiratory dz in dogs and cats
368
What does Pasteurella cause?
Respiratory dz in rabbits
369
What does Brucella abortus cause?
Abortions in cattle
370
What are the obligate intracellular bacteria?
Chlamydia
Ehrlichia
Rickettsia
371
What does chlamydia cause?
Genital and URI infections in humans, cats, pigs, and birds
372
What does ehrlichia cause?
Hemorrhagic fever
373
What does Rickettsia cause?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
374
What are the types of fungi?
Dermatophytes
Saprophytes
Yeast
Dimorphic Fungi
375
What are the dermatophytes?
Microsporum and Trichophyton
376
What do dermatophytes cause?
Ringworm
377
What are the types of Saprophytes?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Rhizopus
378
What does Aspergillus cause?
Pneumonia in birds
379
What does Mucor and Rhizopus cause?
Lymph node, lung, and liver dz
380
What are the types of yeast?
Candida
Cryptococcus
Mallassezia
381
What does candida cause?
yeast infection of MM of mouth, genitals, respiratory and ears
382
What does cryptococcus cause?
Severe nasal infections in dogs and cats
Meningitis in humans
383
What does mallasezia cause?
Ear infection
384
What are the types of dimorphic fungi?
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides
385
What does Histoplasma cause
Respiratory infections in dogs, cats, and humans
386
What does blastomyces cause?
Respiratory and skin infections in dogs and humans
387
What does coccidioides casue?
Respiratory dz in dogs and humans
388
