(M) Lesson 2: Pre-Analytical Considerations in Phlebotomy Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
This word means “before analysis”
A
Pre-Analytical
2
Q
T or F: Pre-analysis begins during testing and ends with a test order
A
False (begins when a test is ordered and ends when testing begins)
3
Q
Refers to the resting metabolic state of the body early morning after 12 hours of fasting (influenced by variables such as age, gender, and body conditions that CANNOT be eliminated)
A
Basal State
4
Q
T or F: Basal state results are used to establish the reference values used for test results to know what normal and abnormal numbers are
A
True
5
Q
T or F: RBC and WBC values are lower in newborns
A
False (higher)
6
Q
Refers to how fast the kidney can filter creatinine
A
Creatinine clearance
7
Q
T or F: Kidney function decreases with age
A
True
8
Q
T or F: RBC counts are elevated at places with lower altitudes
A
False (higher altitude = lower oxygen levels trigger more RBC production)
9
Q
This triggers higher concentration in test results due to a lack in solvent (water)
A
Dehydration
10
Q
These increase with ingestion of fatty foods
A
Lipids
11
Q
These are altered by drinking excessive water
A
Electrolytes
12
Q
These chemicals increase in patients on high-protein diets
A
Ammonia and Urea
13
Q
This is a byproduct of protein metabolism
A
Urea
14
Q
This occurs naturally in the body and undergoes detoxification in the liver to turn into urea
A
Ammonia
15
Q
This increases with ingestion of carbohydrates and sugary food
A
Glucose
16
Q
T or F: Melatonin increases at night and decreases during the day
A
True
17
Q
When are Renin and TSH at peak levels?
A
Predawn hours of the morning during sleep
18
Q
Also known as the stress hormone
A
Cortisol
19
Q
What are the peak hours of cortisol production?
A
Later in the morning (around 8am)
20
Q
T or F: Chemotherapy drugs can cause an increase in blood cells (WBCs and platelets)
A
False (decrease)
21
Q
What test is IMMEDIATELY followed after chemotherapy to measure blood components?
A
CBC Test
22
Q
What does increased level of liver enzymes mean?
A
Liver failure
23
Q
These increase amylase and lipase
A
Steroids and diuretics
24
Q
T or F: During exercise, arterial pH and PCO2 levels are reduced to an acidic level
A
True
25
T or F: Glucose decreases by moderate muscular activity
False (increases)
26
This metallic element increases in the plasma whenever we exercise
Potassium
27
These 2 skeletal muscle enzymes increase during exercise
Creatinine Kinase and Lactate Dehydrogenase
28
T or F: Fever decreases insulin and glucagon levels
False (increases)
29
This chemical allows glucose to enter the cell
Insulin
30
This substance promotes glucose production
Glucagon
31
T or F: Fevers can increase cortisol
True
32
T or F: Blood components are higher for males than females
True
33
T or F: RBCs, hemoglobin, and hematocrit are all directly proportional
True
34
T or F: Androgen plays a key role in stimulating RBC production
True (Testosterone)
35
During intramuscular injections, these 2 substances increase
CK and LDH
36
Refers to jaundiced specimen having a deep yellow to yellow-brown color of serum or plasma
Icteric Specimen
37
This is responsible for the yellow pigment of the skin for jaundiced patients
Bilirubin
38
T or F: Bilirubin can interfere with chemistry tests based on color reactions
True
39
T or F: Moving positions too quickly causes blood fluids to filter into the tissues, increasing plasma volume
False (decreasing)
40
T or F: It is advisable to extract samples from the initial position of the patient
True
41
T or F: Mild anemia is normal in pregnancy
True (RBC counts are lower)
42
Characterized by decreased pulmonary function, increased RBC count, and hemoglobin level
Chronic Smoking
43
T or F: Smoking can increase the concentration of immunoglobulins
False (decrease)
44
T or F: WBCs increase with stress
True
45
T or F: Stress can increase serum iron levels
False (decrease)
46
T or F: Temperature plays a factor in triggering hemoconcentration
True
47
What is the mortal sin of medical technologists?
Patient Misidentification
48
T or F: Urea is photosensitive
False (Bilirubin)
49
This cold temperature range describes improper transport conditions of samples
2-6 degrees celsius
50
T or F: Glucose can decrease if RBCs come in contact with the serum due to the RBCs consuming them
True
51
Healed burn sites and areas with extensive scarring are still not ideal locations for blood draw due to?
Impaired circulation
52
T or F: Tattooed areas are acceptable places to draw blood from
False (impaired circulation, more susceptible to infection, and contains dyes that can interfere with testing)
53
"Sclerosed" means what?
Hardened
54
"Thrombosed" means what?
Clotted
55
T or F: You must choose veins that are proximal to damaged ones
False (distal)
56
T or F: Edema may yield inaccurate results due to tissue fluid contamination
True
57
Refers to swelling or mass of blood caused by blood leaking from a blood vessel during or following venipuncture
Hematoma
58
T or F: Lymph node removal causes lymphostasis
True (obstruction or stoppage of lymph flow)
59
T or F: Lymphostasis does not change blood composition in the arm
False (it can if blood gets contaminated with lymph fluid)
60
What is the most prominent vein for obese patients?
Cephalic Vein
61
T or F: Patients taking aspirin have a less chance of excessive bleeding
False
62
T or F: You can apply a pressure bandage instead of maintaining pressure
False (Never apply pressure bandages instead of maintaining pressure)
63
Refers to temporary loss of consciousness due to insufficiency of blood flow to the brain
Syncope
64
Refers to fainting due to a nervous system response to abrupt pain, stress, or trauma
Vasovagal Syncope
65
Refers to the sensation of spinning as a symptom of syncope
Vertigo
66
Refers to tiny, non-raised red (or purple) spots that appear on the patient’s skin when a tourniquet is applied due to minute drops of blood escaping the capillary wall resulting from a capillary defect or platelet abnormality
Petechiae
67
→ tube inserted into a vein or artery
→ ready access to the patient’s circulation
→ eliminates the need for multiple draws
→ uses include:
- administering of fluids or medication
- drawing blood
- central venous pressure reading
Vascular Access Device
68
T or F: You can apply a tourniquet or perform venipuncture on an arm with a VAD
False
69
Refers to a catheter placed in an artery (most common in a radial artery)
Arterial Line (A-Line/Art-Line)
70
Refers to a surgical procedure that fuses veins with arteries commonly used for hemodialysis treatment
Arteriovenous shunt/AV fistula
71
→ used for administering medication and drawing blood
→ uses the vein in the lower arm above the wrist
→ can be left in place for up to 48 hours
→ flushed with heparin or saline to prevent clotting
Heparin or Saline Lock
72
T or F: Drawing coagulation specimen is not recommended when a Hep-Lock is in place
True
73
→ thin plastic tube/catheter
→ inserted in a vein to administer fluids
Intravenous (IV) Sites
74
T or F: Blood specimen can be contaminated or diluted with IV fluid causing erroneous test results
True
75
T or F: Draw blood above the IV site if both arms have one
False (below the IV)
76
T or F: Blood can only be collected within 24 to 48 hours of the time the IV was discontinued
False (should not be collected within 24 to 48 hours of the time the IV was discontinued)
77
Refers to a needle-less closed device that is sometimes connected to an arterial or central venous catheter
Blood Sampling Device
78
→ indwelling line that consists of tubes inserted into main vessels
→ used for administering fluids and medications, monitoring pressures, and drawing blood
Central Vascular Access Device (CVAD)
79
Device wherein the line is inserted into large veins (subclavian advancing into the superior vena cava)
Central Venous Catheter (CVC) or Central Line
80
Surgically-implanted disk-shaped chamber attached to the indwelling line placed on the upper chest just below the collar bone
Implanted Port
81
Line is inserted into a vein (in an extremity) and threaded into a main vein leading to the heart
Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC)
82
This is the most common complication in venipuncture
Hematoma
83
What is the color of arterial blood?
Bright red
84
Refers to blood loss due to blood draw
Iatrogenic Anemia
85
Refers to an adverse condition brought by the effects of treatment/procedure
Iatrogenic
86
T or F: Life is threatened if more than 5% of blood volume is removed at one time
False (10%)
87
What artery is near the basilic vein?
Brachial Artery
88
Refers to back flow of additive into the patient’s vein from the tube during the venipuncture procedure
Reflux
89
→ decrease in fluid content or plasma volume
→ caused by stagnation of the normal venous blood flow because of tourniquet application
→ increased concentration of RBCs and other non-filterable large molecules
Hemoconcentration
90
Complication wherein RBCs are damaged and hemoglobin escapes into the fluid portion of the specimen
Hemolysis
91
Slight hemolysis is indicated by what hue of red?
Pinkish
92
Moderate hemolysis is indicated by what hue of red?
Dark Pink to Light Red
93
Gross hemolysis is indicated by what hue of red?
Dark Red
94
T or F: Short-draw serum tubes are generally unacceptable
False (acceptable)
95
T or F: Never pour two partially filled additive tubes together to fill one tube (affects the blood-to-additive ratio)
True
96
What forms in wrong/expired collection tubes?
Microclots
97
T or F: Tube vacuum can be lost if the bevel backs out the skin slightly
True
98
T or F: When probing, move the needle horizontally
False (retract a bit first before probing)
99
T or F: If vein disappears as the tube is engaged or when tourniquet is removed, that is an indicator of a collapsed vein
True
100
T or F: You can palpate the site of entry near the needle
False (this is painful for the patient)
