mi 116 unit 3 Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

what are micoorganisms?

A

grow in or on a host organism and cause diseases known as infections

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2
Q

what is an infection ?

A

establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host

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3
Q

what go pathogens produce ?

A

high temperature, nausea, vomiting or shock

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4
Q

what are the four types of pathogens?

A

bacteria, virus, fungi and protozoa

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5
Q

bacteria

A

single celled organisms that grow in a colony
can be cocci, spheres, bacilli, rods or spiral shaped
strept throat, pneumonia, and food poisoning

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6
Q

virus

A

cannot live outside a living cell and depends on host cell
can lay dormant at times
rhinovirus, warts

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7
Q

fungi

A

much larger then bacteria
yeast and molds
athletes foot, ringworm, tinea nigra
medically important fungi are dimorphic

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8
Q

protozoa

A

larger then bacteria
live on or in other organisms and have motile functionality
can ingest foot particles
pinworms, tapeworms, malaria

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9
Q

STEPS to require a break through the host

A

encounter-entry-spread-multiplication-damage-outcome

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10
Q

what are the four factors involved with the spread of infection ?

A

a host, an infectious microorganism, a mode of transportation and a reservoir
if broken, the infection will cease at any point

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11
Q

where do microorganism thrive?

A

warm temperatures, darkness and moist areas

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12
Q

exogenously

A

from outside the body (can be direct or indirect)

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13
Q

endogenously

A

from inside the body (flora transported to a different area)

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14
Q

exogenously (indirect)

A

vector (vehicle) or a fomite (mechanical or biological)

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15
Q

exogenously (direct)

A

host to host
can be hand holding, coughing or sexual contact

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16
Q

vector

A

usually an arthropod
needs a microorganism to enter and exit the body
tick or insect

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17
Q

fomite

A

inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious organism
food, water, latex gloves, etc

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18
Q

reservoir

A

site where an infectious organism can remain alive and from which transmission can occur
can be people, animals, insects or inanimate objects like food or dust

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19
Q

CHAIN of infection

A

infectious agents- reservoir- portals of exit-modes of transmission- portals of entry- susceptible host

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20
Q

HAIs

A

healthcare associated infections
-infections people acquire while they are receiving treatment in healthcare setting for another condition
-UTIs, surgical sit infection, pneumonia

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21
Q

nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired infection
-5% of hospital patients acquire an additional condition while in the hospital

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22
Q

iatrogenic

A

infection that is a result of interventions with a physician

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23
Q

communicable diseases

A

HIV, HBV, flu, chicken pox, malaria, tuberculosis, polio

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24
Q

HIV

A

blood borne pathogen
infects the CD4 and T cells in the human host

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25
hepatitis B
HBV, causes illness that primarily affects the liver transmits through needle, penetrating injury and inmate contact
26
MDRO
multi-drug resistant organism C-DIFF!!! MRSA, VRE, ESBLs,PRSP, MDR
27
MRSA
methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus a lot of the times comes from open skin comes from contact with infected objects or surfaces
28
VRE
part of the normal flora in the GI capable of causes disease when it affects blood, urine, or wounds large groups and resistant to a lot of drugs resistant to normal hand washing
29
C-Diff
clostridium diffcile bowel disease spore forming bacterium that releases toxins into the bowel, resistant to disinfectants, easy to spread and frequent in the hospital
30
tuberculosis (TB)
recurrent, chronic disease caused by the spore-forming Mycobacterium, tuberculosis mostly infects the lungs, communicable disease and treatable disease
31
how do you prevent disease transmission
wash your hands, get immunizations, get boosters, follow post exposure protocols
32
standard precautions
handwashing, gloves, PPE, Needle capping and biospills all patients are potentially infectious
33
whats the most effective way to preventing infection spread?
handwashing
34
when should you use gloves?
any time a procedure or contact may include body fluids, blood, secretions, excretions, mucous membranes, non intact skin and contaminated items
35
sequence for donning PPE
gown first, mask, goggles then gloves
36
sequence for doffing PPE
gloves, goggles, gown, mask
37
transmission based precautions
airbone, droplet, contact
38
airborne
required N95 mask pathogenic organisms that remain suspended in the air for long periods on aerosol droplets or dust patients places in negative pressure isolation room
39
what types of conditions require a N95 mask (airbone)
TB, chickenpox, and measles
40
droplet
must be 3ft within a patient wearing a surgical mask -infected with pathogenic organisms contact
41
what types of conditions are droplet
rubella, mumps, flu, and adenovirus
42
contact
-need gloves, gown and possible face shield and bouffant -a patient infected with a virulent pathogen that spreads by direct contact with the patient or by indirect contact w/ a contaminated object
43
what conditions are considered contact
staphylococcus aureus, hepatitis A, impetigo, varicella, and varicella zoster
44
gloves and gown rules
never leave outside patient room with "dirty gown" and "dirty gloves"
45
environmental precautions
bleached is used must by soap and water for hand hygiene
46
compromised/ immunosuppressed
AKA neutropenic and protective precautions -patient who is at increased risk for infection against contact with potential pathogens we have to wear PPE
47
aseptic technique
can be used in all clinical settings most of the time this is used in surgery and insertion of IV, catheters and drains
48
medical asepsis
performing a removal or destruction of material
49
surgical aspesis
used to prevent contamination of microbes and endospores before during and after surgery using sterile technique
50
sterilization
to control microorganisms we must have autocave steam under pressure, dry heat, gas and chemicals
51
disinfection
as many microorganisms as possible are removed from surfaces by chemical or physical means (boiling not always effective)
52
what procedures require sterile technique
angiography, arthrograms, hysterosalpinograms, x-ray in the oR and myelograms
53
sterile field
do not reach across a sterile field, must be more than one inch border, use sterile drape
54
OR zones
zone 1unrestricted, may enter in street clothes zone 2- semi-restricted , only person I scrubs and hair and shoes covered may enter zone 3-restricted, like zone 2 + mask
55
sterile gowning
only sleeves and front of gown down to waist are considered sterile
56
what is sterile during a sterile procedure
anything blue patient, table and other furniture covered with sterile drapes, personnel wearing sterile attire
57
dressing changes
must be ordered by a physician, wear gown if wound in patient, wash hands before beginning, ensure privacy, remove adherence tape from dressing, remove dressing with triceps or gloves hands, wrap dressing and places in plastic bag
58
skin preparation
circle motions, inside to out
59
urinary catheters
insertion of a tube the bladder using aseptic technique foley and straight used to empty bladder, relieve retention, irrigate the bladder
60
foley
has a balloon which is filled with sterile water to hold the catherter in place
61
straight
no balloon and used for short term/quick drainage
62
non aspetic techniques
Ng tubes, male urinals, bedpans, enemas, colostomies
63
barium enema
have patient in Sims position, lubricate enema tip, instruct patient to exhale, insert to umbilicus
64
enema tip
non sterile
65
endotracheal tubes
always associated with intubation used for inadequate breathing, inadequate arterial oxygenation, severe airway obstruction, shock, parenchymal diseases that impair gas exchange, etc
66
placement
distal tip of the tube should be 1-2 inches above the tracheal bifurcation, usually done through mouth or nose, cuff inflated with air and placed at mid trachea; pediatric tube does not have cuff
67
complications with tube placement
most common misplacement is intubation of the right main bronchus; wider than left main bronchus and straighter than left main bronchus; tube may not be placed far enough; erosion of tracheal mucosa due to cuff trauma
68
chest tubes
used to drain the intrapleural space and the mediastrunum (air and fluid)
69
how lungs work
negative pressure is needed to explain the lungs and when liquid or air is in the pleural cavity, the lungs cannot expand
70
nasogastric/ nasointestinal
patients cannot drink or eat with this used to administration of medication, gastric decompression and removal of flatus and fluids from the stomach
71
levin
single lumen is one line most commonly used
72
when is suction needed
excessive vomiting and unable to change position on their own; gurgling sounds
73
suctioning in an emergency
suctioning is not in our scope of practice
74
tracheostomies
used when theres an obstruction and we have to enter through a different way
75
complications of central venous lines
one third of CVC lines places incorrectly central line inserted on the right side should never corss the midline,left side needs to cross the midline and distal tip should not go bas SVC
76
tissue drains
drain every 24 hours unless filled before hand
77
ileostomy
surgical opening in the small intestine for colitis
78
colostomy
surgical opening in the large intestine for various disorders
79
ureteroilstomy
section at the end of the small bowl that is surgically removed and relocated as a passageway for urine to pass form the kidneys