Microbiology of Food (#3) Flashcards
(316 cards)
1
Q
any change in appearance, smell, or taste of a food that makes it unpalatable to the consumer; MAY be safe to eat
A
food spoilage
2
Q
T/F: food has to have HIGH levels of pathogens to get sick from spoiled food
A
true
3
Q
2 types of factors that cause susceptibility to microbial spoilage:
A
- intrinsic factors
- extrinsic factors
4
Q
type of susceptibility to microbial spoilage: food composition (chemical) + structure (physical); the food itself!
A
intrinsic factors
5
Q
type of susceptibility to microbial spoilage: environmental; what you do to the food; easier to control
A
extrinsic factors
6
Q
which is easier to control – intrinsic or extrinsic factors of susceptibility to microbial spoilage?
A
extrinsic (u control the environment!)
7
Q
categories of food spoilage (3):
A
- perishable
- semi-perishable
- nonperishable
8
Q
category of food spoilage: meat
A
perishable
9
Q
category of food spoilage: fruit and nuts
A
semi-perishable
10
Q
category of food spoilage: pantry foods (flour, surgar)
A
nonperishable
11
Q
the categories of food and their spoilage all have to do with their ____ composition
A
water
12
Q
the more water in a food, the more _______ it is
A
perishable
13
Q
types of food compositions (2):
A
- carbohydrates
- proteins or fats
14
Q
food composition: mold predominates; degrades food by hydrolysis; little odor; ERGOTISM
A
carbohydrates
15
Q
disease caused by Claviceps purpurea toxin; produces a HALLUCINOGENIC alkaloid that causes involuntary muscle contractions + hallucinations; grows in wet rain; problem in CARBS
A
ergotism
16
Q
food composition: bacterial growth predominates; putrefaction occurs
A
proteins or fats
17
Q
anaerobic breakdown of proteins; foul-smelling amine compounds
A
putrefaction
18
Q
_______ occurs in the spoilage of carbohydrates and _____ occurs in the spoilage of proteins or fats
A
ergotism; putrefaction
19
Q
intrinsic factors (food spoilage - 5):
A
- pH
- presence and availability of water
- redox potential (oxidation-reduction)
- physical structure
- antimicrobial substances
20
Q
LOW pH favors ____ and ____ (ex: vinegar, pickles)
A
yeast + mold
21
Q
in general, _____ water activity inhibits microbial growth
A
lower
22
Q
lower redox (less oxygen) favors growth of _________ bacteria; releases oxygen
A
anaerobic
23
Q
intrinsic factor: grinding and mixing promotes microbial growth (ex: ground beef)
A
physical structure
24
Q
intrinsic factor: coumarins, lysozyme, allicin, etc.
A
antimicrobial structures
25
allicin, an antimicrobial, is found in _____
garlic
26
extrinsic factors (of food spoilage - 3):
- temperature
- relative humidity
- atmosphere
27
lower temperatures ____ microbial growth
retard
28
_____ levels of relative humidity promotes microbial growth
higher
29
extrinsic factor: oxygen promotes growth; modified atmospheric packaging (MAP)
atmosphere
30
in the atmosphere, _______ promotes growth
oxygen
31
use of shrink wrap and vacuum technologies to package food in controlled atmospheres
modified atmosphere packaging (MAP)
32
MAP =
modified atmosphere packaging
33
when you use shrink wrap (form of MAP), you can increase the shelf life by ___-___ times since it is impermeable to oxygen
2-3x
34
food preservation methods (3):
- removal of microbes
- low temp.
- high temp.
35
to preserve foods, you can remove microbes through ______
filtration
36
to preserve foods, you can refrigerate them at ≤ ____°C degrees and freeze at ≤ _____°C
≤ 5 °C
≤ -18°C
37
your fridge should be preferably at ____ °C
4
38
your freezer should be preferably at _____ °C
-20°C
39
high temp. food preservation methods include (3)...
- cooking and holding at high temp.
- canning
- pasteurization
40
DANGER ZONE temperature for microbes:
5 - 60°C
41
you can leave food out for ____ hours max
2
42
pasteurization does not kill endospores until it reaches what temperatures?
5 - 60°C (danger zone)
43
60°C = _____°F
140°F
44
you are ____ times more likely to get struck by lightning than to get botulism that was COMMERCIALLY done
100x
45
during canning, food is heated to what temp and for how long?
115°C for 25-100 minutes
46
canning kills ______ microbes
spoilage
47
T/F: spoilage of commercially canned foods is common
false (very rare)
48
endospores don't like ______ so you don't have to worry about botulism in fruit
acid
49
at what pH ensures that botulism won't occur in cans?
< 4.6
50
you need a ______ canner for high pH foods
pressure
51
gas production in can; DEADLY; caused by endospores in an anoxic environment; swollen cans
botulism
52
1 teaspoon of botulism endospores can kill ______ ppl
10,000
53
method of high temp. food preservation; kills pathogens and substantially reduces number of spoilage organisms
pasteurization
54
T/F: different pasteurization procedures heat for different lengths of time
true
55
regarding pasteurization, SHORTER heating times result in improved _______ (have to increase temp then)
flavor
56
different modes of pasteurization (3):
- LTH (low temp holding)
- HTST (high temp short time)
- UHT (ultrahigh-temp processing)
57
mode of pasteurization: 63°C for 30 min
low temp holding (LTH)
58
mode of pasteurization: 72°C for 15 seconds, then rapid cooling
high temp short time (HTST)
59
mode of pasteurization: 138°C for 2 seconds - 20 min
ultrahigh-temperature processing (UHT)
60
which mode of pasteurization STERILIZES the food?
UHT (ultrahigh temp processing)
61
sterilization temp = greater than _____°C
> 135°C
62
suppose you are cleaning out your fridge and find a container of meat-loaf that you made last month. Upon opening the container, you smell a putrid odor and the meat appears to be slimy. Would you get sick if you eat the meat-loaf?
maybe -- spoilage microorganisms are present which indicates that pathogens MAY be present (or have previously grown in the food)
63
water activity tolerated by most spoilage bacteria =
0.9
64
chemical agents "generally recognized as safe;" tested by FDA; could save a lot of financial loss; use acids as a method to protect food
GRAS
65
GRAS are a _____-based preservation
chemical
66
GRAS use _____ as a method to protect food
acids
67
GRAS =
generally recognized as safe
68
type of GRAS; could be mutagens and cause damage in DNA of food (not you)
propionic acid/oxides
69
type of GRAS that some ppl are sensitive to
parabens
70
type of GRAS that is a carcinogenic precursor; could be bad if there's a lot in food
nitrite (as in sodium nitrite)
71
use of ionizing radiation (gamma radiation) to extend shelf life of foods; excellent penetrating power; can be used to sterilize SOME foods
radappertization
72
radappertization uses Cobalt-60 as a source for what process?
cold sterilization (doesn't cook it)
73
radappertization (and the use of Cobalt-60 for cold sterilization) is approved by WHO for which food?
ground beef
74
symbol that means food was radiated; not seen in stores; only in food for lab animals right now
red dura symbol
75
____ in ____ ppl will get a food borne illness each year
1 in 6
76
about ____ ______ cases of foodborne disease occur every year in the US
48 million
77
____% of foodborne illnesses are attributed to known pathogens
18%
78
at least ______ deaths occur to to foodborne diseases (usually susceptible ppl)
3,000
79
types of transmission
of FOODBORNE DISEASE (3):
- breakdown in hygiene
- fecal-oral route
- fomites
80
type of transmission of foodborne disease: most foodborne pathogens are from HERE
fecal-oral route (FECES!)
81
type of transmission of foodborne disease: inanimate object that spreads disease; food is considered this (other ex: blanket, water, door knob)
fomites
82
2 types of foodborne illnesses:
- food intoxication (poisoning)
- food infection
83
type of foodborne illness: ingestion of preformed microbial toxins in foods; toxins make you sick, not microbes; growth of the pathogen host is NOT required
food intoxication (poisoning)
84
type of foodborne illness: results from the ingestion of pathogens in food; ingestion followed by colonization and growth in host
food infection
85
T/F: if you your reheat food and kill the microbes, you can still get sick from toxins
true
86
the onset of illness from food intoxication is usually pretty _____
rapid (basically just ate poison)
87
T/F: pathogens may produce toxins IN the host
true
88
when pathogens produce toxins in the host, they are ______-mediated infections but _____ microbes have to be there
toxin-mediated; live
89
when pathogens produce toxins in the host, it is a _____ infection dose level, where a ____ concentration level is needed to make you sick + outcompete microflora
high; high
90
________ cause most foodborne illnesss, NOT ______
viruses; NOT bacteria
91
recovery from viral foodborne illnesses is usually ____
rapid
92
5 top causes of foodborne illnesses IN ORDER:
#1: norwalk-like viruses
#2: Salmonella spp.
#3: Clostridium perfringens
#4: Campylobacter jejuni
#5: Staphylococcus aureus
93
s. aureus has a really _____ incubation period
short (1-8 hrs)
94
Salmonella enterica has a really _____ incubation period
long (10-14 days)
95
common skin bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus
96
what kind of foodborne ilness does Staphylococcus aureus cause?
food intoxication (poisoning)
97
is Staphylococcus aureus gram-positive or negative?
gram-POS
98
what kind of oxygen level classification is Staphylococcus aureus?
facultative aerobe
99
Staphylococcus aureus can thrive in ____ salt and ____ water activity levels.
high salt; low water activity
100
sources of Staphylococcus aureus (3):
- human nasal cavity
- skin
- skin sores
101
what kind of toxins do Staphylococcus aureus produce?
enterotoxin (intestinal toxin)
102
what does enterotoxin mean?
intestinal toxin
103
what type of toxin is an enterotoxin?
exotoxin
104
bacteria produce this type of toxin and then RELEASE it into their environment; "super antigen;" activates a STRONGER immune response (violent symptoms) than a normal antigen; don't even need T cells
exotoxins
105
toxin that is part of the bacteria; never release it until they die
endotoxin
106
enterotoxins made by Staphylococcus aureus are _____ _______ and resistant to what 2 things?
heat stable
- digestive protease
- stomach acid
107
how long does it take Staphylococcus aureus to produce enterotoxins in the danger zone?
2-4 hours
108
what kind of foods does Staphylococcus aureus grow in?
high-salt foods
109
there are around ________ staphylococcal food intoxication cases per year in the US
185,000
110
if you heat foods contaminated by Staphylococcus aureus, can you still get sick?
yes! (toxins are heat stable)
111
is Staphylococcus aureus considered a fecal-contaminate?
no (more skin)
112
food contaminated by Staphylococcus aureus occurs usually during food _______
preparation
113
contaminated foods by Staphylococcus aureus are kept for several hours in the _______
danger-zone
114
symptoms of Staphylococcal Food Intoxication (3):
- EXPLOSIVE vomiting
- diarrhea
- subnormal body temp (usually no fever)
115
onset of Staphylococcal food intoxication is ______
rapid
116
onset of Staphylococcal food intoxication =
1-8 hours (bc u ate poison, violent response)
117
duration of Staphylococcal food intoxication =
1-2 days (quick recovery)
118
food infection results from the ingestion of ______ _____, while food intoxication results from the ingestion of ______ ______.
foodborne pathogens; microbial toxins
119
is Clostridium botulinum gram-positive or negative?
gram-POS
120
does Clostridium botulinum form spores?
yes
121
what kind of oxygen level classification is Clostridium botulinum?
strict anaerobe (needs anoxic conditions)
122
sources of Clostridium botulinum (2):
- soil
- water
123
what kind of botulism implications is Clostridium botulinum involved in (3)?
wound, infant, and food BOTULISM
124
what specific kind of toxin does Clostridium botulinum create?
neurotoxin
125
what type of toxin is a neurotoxin?
exotoxin
126
since Clostridium botulinum produces neurotoxins, it affects ______ ______, which can cause the heart to stop, breathing to cease, and babies to be constipated
nervous tissue
127
neurotoxins are heat ______
labile (susceptible to heat, but not worth the risk)
128
Clostridium botulinum is part of the same genus that causes ______
tetanus
129
since Clostridium botulinum is found in soil and water, is is considered an "_______ pathogen"
accidental
130
neurotoxins by Clostridium botulinum are produced best in ______ protein, ______ acid foods
high protein, low acid (hi pH)
131
neurotoxins by Clostridium botulinum can be destroyed by high heat at what conditions (temp + how long)?
80°C for 10 min.
132
what kind of foods is Clostridium botulinum found in?
nonacid home-canned vegetables (corn, beans, smoked and fresh fish)
133
for any pH below ______, you don't have to worry about botulism
4.6 (likes high pH)
134
1 teaspoon of botulism can kill _________ ppl (****correct)
100,0000
134
what 2 things is required for endospores involved in botulism (by Clostridium botulinum) to germinate?
- anoxic conditions
- high pH (low acid)
135
botulism endospores may contaminate ____ foods before harvest or slaughter
raw
136
most foodborne cases of botulism occur from eating foods that are not ______ after processing
cooked
137
home-canned foods implicated in greater than ___% of foodborne outbreaks of botulism
> 72%
138
less than ____% of foodborne outbreaks of botulism occur from commercially processed cans
< 10%
139
infant botulism usually occurs in infants up to 2 months old from what?
raw honey
140
in most cases of infant botulism, they are less than ____ _____ old
< 6 months
141
onset of botulism from Clostridium botulinum =
18-24 hours (quick)
142
is the onset of botulism fast or slow?
fast
143
symptoms of botulism (Clostridium botulinum - 3)
- heart paralysis
- difficulty swallowing, speaking, and breathing
- constipation (in babies)
144
duration of botulism =
1 - 10 days (BUT neurological damage could permanent - ex: stroke)
145
mortality % of botulism:
3-5%
146
while the rate of mortality from botulism is 3-5%, the first person who gets it has a mortality rate more like ___%
21% (more potent)
147
treatment of botulism =
antitoxin
148
absorbs toxins but illness has to be diagnosed quickly to be effective
antitoxin
149
outbreak caused by sautéed onions showed what risk about botulism?
food in bulk can be anoxic in the middle without stirring
150
outbreak caused by baked potatoes showed what risk about botulism?
food wrapped tightly (like in saran wrap) can be anoxic
151
wound botulism occurs from what?
drugs + dirty needles
152
3rd leading cause of foodborne illness
Clostridium perfringens
153
Clostridium perfringens can be food ________ but here we are talking about _________
intoxication; INFECTION
154
around how many cases of Clostridium perfringens food infection occur each year in the US?
1 million
155
in FOOD, spores from Clostridium perfringens are activated by _______ and germinate under ______ conditions
cooking; anoxic
156
in intestines, a ______ number of Clostridium perfringens cells must be ingested
large
157
infectious dose of Clostridium perfringens:
> 10^8 cells
158
what specific kind of toxin does Clostridium perfringens produce?
enterotoxins
159
enterotoxins affect the ______ and _______
stomach + intestines
160
what type of toxins are enterotoxins?
exotoxins
161
what triggers the production of enterotoxins from Clostridium perfringens ?
sporulation of vegetative cells in the intestine ***
162
since enterotoxins are exotoxins, when are they secreted from the bacteria, Clostridium perfringens?
when they sporulate
163
Clostridium perfringens produces toxins when they _______ and Clostridum botulinum produces toxins when they _________
sporulate; germinate (botulism)
164
cells sporulate when they are in _____ conditions
harsh
165
vegetative cells of Clostridium perfringens are killed by _______, extended _______, and ______
cooking, extended refrigeration, and freezing
166
T/F: Clostridium perfringens cells in food can be killed if brought up to a high enough temp with stirring
true
167
onset of Clostridium perfringens food infection =
7-15 hours (fast!)
168
symptoms of Clostridium perfringens food infection (2):
- diarrhea (mostly)
- cramps
*fever and vomiting are rare!!
169
duration of Clostridium perfringens food infection =
12 -24 hours (short lived)
170
since the duration of Clostridium perfringens is very short lived, it resembles what?
viral infection
171
what kind of food is Clostridium perfringens is found in?
foods cooked in BULK and then left out
172
Clostridium perfringens is commonly found in foods cooked in bulk and then left out at what temp. range + for how long?
20-40°C for short time periods
173
2nd leading cause of foodborne illnesses
Salmonella enterica
174
Salmonella serovars reacts differently to ___________ than Salmonella enterica
antibiotics
175
Salmonella enterica are considered all the same SPECIES, so they are all _____________
pathogens
176
is Salmonella enterica gram-positive or negative?
gram-NEG (bacillus)
177
source of Salmonella enterica =
sewage (GI of birds and other animals)
178
T/F: Salmonella enterica is NOT considered a fecal contaminant
false (it is)
179
what kind of foods/sources is Salmonella enterica found in (5):
- meat (poultry, beef, pork)
- fruits + beg
- EGGS (custards, cakes, pies, eggnog)
- dairy products
- handling ANIMALS
180
what type of foodborne illness is caused by Salmonella enterica?
food infection
181
of cases of Salmonella enterica food infection per year
1 million
182
less than ___% of Salmonella enterica cases are reported
< 4%
183
we see more Salmonella enterica cases during the _____
summertime
184
which Salmonella enterica cause food infection (accord. to class)?
serovars Typhimurium and Enteritidis
185
where do Salmonella enterica colonize in your body?
small and large intestine
186
what does Salmonella enterica invade and grow in after colonizing the intestines?
phagocytic cells
187
infectious dose range of Salmonella enterica:
10^7 - 10^9 viable cells
188
virulence factors of Salmonella enterica (3):
- endotoxins
- enterotoxins
- cytotoxins
189
virulence factor of Salmonella enterica: part of Lipid A of LPS (only in gram-neg); are absorbed and contribute to symptoms
endotoxins
190
virulence factor of Salmonella enterica: kill intestinal cells
cytotoxins
191
since Salmonella enterica cells can take over phagocytic immune cells to prevent them from being destoryed (acting like a virus), they are considered ______ pathogens
invasive pathogens
192
food infection from Salmonella enterica can occur from _____ ________ of food via handler, lifestock or cross-contamination in the kitchen
fecal contamination
193
food infection from Salmonella enterica comes from contaminated foods not _______ before consumption
heated (kills it)
194
onset of Salmonellosis:
8 - 48 hours
195
T/F: there isn't a distinguishing symptom of Salmonellosis
true
196
symptoms of Salmonellosis (6)
- headache
- chills
- vomiting
- diarrhea
- fever
- enterocolitis***
197
are antibiotics usually given to treat Salmonellosis?
no (doesn't rlly shorten illness)
198
duration of Salmonellosis:
2 - 5 days (little longer)
199
_____-____% of victims of Salmonellosis continues to be carriers of the bacteria for 4-8 weeks in their feces
10-20%
200
is Escherichia coli gram-positive or negative?
gram-NEG
201
what shape is Escherichia coli?
coccobacillus (short rods -- NOT BACILLUS)
202
what oxygen level classification is Escherichia coli?
facultative aerobe
203
source of Escherichia coli =
sewage (GI tracts of animals)
204
strains of Escherichia coli (4):
- Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
- Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
- Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
- Shiga Toxin-Producing/enterohemorrhagic (STEC or EHEC)
205
strain of E. coli: "traveler's diarrhea;" common in water sources (ex: Mexico); can also produce toxins
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
206
strain of E. coli: infantile diarrhea
Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
207
strain of E. coli: watery diarrhea; invades phagocytes
Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
208
strain of E. coli: BLOODY diarrhea; extremely deadly; causes bleeding in GI tract + kidney failure
Shiga Toxin-Producing/enterohemorrhagic (STEC or EHEC)
209
the Shiga ______ in STEC got it;s name because it is similar to the one made by Shigella dysenteriae
toxin
210
food that ETEC (Enterotoxigenic) is found in
contaminated drinking water (and foods grown in it)
211
foods that STEC) is founded in (5):
- undercooked ground beef
- unpasteurized dairy products
- fruit juices
- spinach
- water
212
T/F: ppl don't cook raw veggies like lettuce so ppl can get STEC more easily; washing it is not protective
true
213
Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli (O157:H7) is the leading cause of _______ ______ in CHILDREN :(
kidney failure
214
what type of foodborne illness is caused by Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli?
food infection
215
infectious dowse of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli is unknown, but may be as low as _____ bacterial cells
10
216
what specific type of toxic does Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli produce?
verotoxin (the Shiga-toxin)
217
kidney toxin; attaches to the kidney and causes an immune response to attack your own kidneys
verotoxin
218
what 2 things can verotoxins cause in the human body?
- hemorrhagic colitis
- hemolytic uremic syndrome
219
bloody diarrhea caused by verotoxins
hemorrhagic colitis
220
kidney failure caused by verotxins; mortility rate is 50%
hemolytic uremic syndrome
221
mortality rate of hemolytic uremic syndrome = _____%
50%
222
Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli has an extremely _______ infectious dose
low
223
Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli bacteria are destroyed by proper _____ treatment
heat
224
onset of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection:
3-5 days (several days)
225
symptoms of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli (4):
- bloody stool
- kidney failure
- brain damage
- death
*fever + vomiting are rare
226
duration of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection =
5-10 days
227
___________ cases of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection occur in the US per year, with ______ resulting in death
73,000
60
228
4th leading cause of foodborne illness
Campylobacter
229
____% of chicken and turkey carcasses are contaminated with Campylobacter
90%
230
are Campylobacter gram-positive or negative?
gram-NEG
231
what shape is Campylobacter?
spiral shaped rods*
232
what oxygen level classification is Campylobacter?
microaerophilic (like less than atm. oxygen)
233
T/F: Campylobacter is not motile
false (it is!)
234
source of Campylobacter:
GI track of animals (chickens, turkeys, hogs, household dogs)
235
how can Campylocbacter be destroyed (4)?
- pasteurization
- sensitive to air
- freezing
- gastric acid
236
T/F: Campylocbacter is heat-tolerant
true
237
Campylobacter is termed heat toleratn bc they grow at ____°C, not at _____°C
42°C (like warm temp.), not 25°C
238
what type of foodborne illness does Campylobacter cause?
food infection
239
more than ____ _______ cases of Campylobacter food infection occurs every year in the US
2 million
240
which two species of Campylobacter are most commonly linked to foodborne illness?
C. jejuni + C. fetus
241
foods involved in Campylobacter food infection (4):
- poultry
- pork
- raw clams *
- dairy
242
Campylobacter multiplies in the _______________ and then invades the _________
small intestine; epithelium (of the instestine)
243
since Campylobacter colonizes the small intestines and then invades the epithelium, it is termed "_________"
enterovasive
244
what kind of toxins does Campylobacter produce?
- enterotoxin
- cytotoxin
245
Campylobacter toxins: _________ causes intestinal distress and __________ kills epithelial cells
enterotoxin; cytotoxin
246
infectious dose of Campylobacter:
500 - 10^4 bacteria (pretty low)
247
ppl who are take _______ are more susceptible to Campylobacter food infection
anti-acids (raises pH of stomach)
248
onset of Campylobacter =
2-10 days
249
symptom of Campylobacter (2)
- *****HIGH fever (>104°F)
- ulceration of ileum (occasionally) and some bloody feces
*vomiting uncommon
250
duration of Campylobacter:
1-10 days (can be a long time)
251
is Listeria monocytogenes gram-positive or negative?
gram-POS
252
what shape is Listeria monocytogenes?
coccobacillus
253
what oxygen level classification is Listeria monocytogenes?
facultative anaerobe
254
what kind of tolerances is Listeria monocytogenes (3)?
- psychotolerant (grow in fridge!)
- acid-tolerant
- salt-tolerant
255
sources of Listeria monocytogenes (4):
- soil
- water
- vegatation
- silage (grass)
or any food tbh
256
foods that Listeria monocytogenes is found in:
- uncooked meat
- fruit + veg
- processed foods
- unpasteurized milk + milk products
257
T/F: we eat Listeria monocytogenes all the time
true (only the immunocompromised get it)
258
who are the most VULNERABLE to Listeriosis (4)?
- very old
- very young
- immunocompromised
- PREGNANT
259
will you get antibiotics for Listeria monocytogenes?
no
260
Listeria monocytogenes proliferates in ___________ so it is termed a ______ pathogen
phagocytes; invasive
261
infectious dose of Listeria monocytogenes:
<1000 in susceptible individuals** (low dose for them)
262
Listeria monocytogenes is known for causing what in certain individuals?
miscarriages
263
there are fewer than ______ cases of Listeria monocytogenes food infection per year
100
264
while there are few cases, Listeria monocytogenes is said to cause ____% of all the DEATHS from foodborne illnesses
20%
265
onset of Listeria monocytogenes:
few days - 2 months
266
how long does it take for gastrointestinal symptoms from Listeria monocytogenes to occur?
> 12 hours
267
since it could be a few days to MONTHS for Listeiosis to appear, it is said to have. a long _______ period
incubation
268
symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes
- bacteremia (bacteria in blood)
- meningitis
- miscarriage**
269
duation of Listeriosis:
usually 5-10 days
270
responsible for the largest meat recall in the US (2002)
Listeriosis
271
along with the largest meat recall, Listeriosis also called a ________ recall in 2011
cantaloupe (didn't wash em before selling)
272
what should at-risk people not eat to avoid Listeriosis (4)?
- soft cheeses
- refrigerated smoked meats
- deli meats
- undercooked hot dogs
273
how many ppl died from the Listeriosis cantaloupe recall?
33 ppl
274
most foodborne infections are thought to be caused by ______
viruses
275
symptoms of viral food infections (3):
gastroenteritis charactertized by:
- diarrhea
- nausea
- vomiting
276
incubation period of viral food infections:
12-24 hours
277
recovery of viral food infections is _____ and _______
spontaneous + rapid (usually within 24-48 hours)
278
how long is recovery typically for viral food infections?
24-48 hours (quick! = 24 hr flu)
279
______ viruses are responsible for most mild foodborne infections in the US
Noro
280
Noro viruses cause ___ _______ out of the ___ ______ foodborne illnesses in the US
9 million out of 13 million
281
which viruses collectively cause 100,000 cases in the US (3)?
- rotavirus
- astrovirus
- hepatitis A
282
"diarrhea virus"
rotavirus
283
how are Noro viruses spread?
food + fecal contamination
284
Noro viruse is related to the ______ virus
polio
285
cell-associated __________________ are responsible for the symptoms of salmonellosis
enterotoxins + endotoxins
286
what 2 protozoans are known for causing foodborne diseases?
1) Giardia intestinalis
2) Cryptosporidium parvum
287
Giardia intestinalis + Cryptosporidium parvum are known for causing "________ / _______ diarrhea"
back-packers / wilderness
288
Giardia intestinalis + Cryptosporidium parvum can be spread via food (contaminated by ______ matter in untreated water that is used to wash, irrigate, or spray crops, and via drinking water (+ fruits/veg grown in water)
fecal
289
what kind of foods are involved in Giardia intestinalis and Cryptosporidium parvum growth?
- fresh foods such as fruit, often IMPORTED from other countries
290
a protozoan spread through CAT FECES or undercooked meat (espeically pork) or mice
Toxoplasma gondii
291
T/F: if youre not treated for Giardia intestinalis, it can REOCCUR
true
292
the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is through a _____ gut to reproduce
cat's
293
Toxoplasma gondii can cause ____ like symptoms
flu
294
prenatal infection from Toxoplasma gondii can cause _____ and _____
blindness + stillbirth
295
who is most at risk for Toxoplasma gondii infection?
pregnant women
296
there is a hypothesis that Toxoplasma gondii causes something mentally in _____ where they are attracted to cats
mice
297
cryptosporidium protozoa make ______ that are resistant to ______
cysts; chlorine
298
in 1993, there was a outbreak of cryptosporidium protozoa in the water source in _________
Milwaukee
299
aside from water sources, cryptosporidium protozoa can also occur in ______
animals
300
infectious agent made of PROTEINS that cause disruption in neural tissue; mechanism is unclear; GENETIC link; misfolded protein that causes other proteins to misfold
prion
301
prions are very STRONG, where you have to put them at _____°F for several hours to denature it
900°F (no way to kill it logistically before consuming so just don't eat it)
302
symptoms of prion disease (4):
- depression
- loss of motor coordination
- dementia
- death
303
linked to consumption of meat products (BEEF) from cattle afflicted with BSE (prion)
vCJD (Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)
304
vCJD =
mad cow disease
305
it is believed that mad cow disease came from feeding cow _____
cow (cannabolism)
306
if there is one "mad cow" in the herd, what do you have to do?
kill the whole herd
307
vCJD (mad cow disease) causes _____ in brain tissue + symptoms that resemble _____
holes; dementia
308
there is now a ban on feeding cattle _____ and ____ meal to stop the development of new cases of BSE in Europe
meat + bone
309
there have been no case of vCJD in the US, only where?
Great-Britain
310
food safety measures (4):
- clean (wash hands + surfaces often and fuits/veg)
- separate (don't cross contaminate)
- cook (to proper temp)
- chill (refrigerate promptly)
311
ways refrigerate perishable food within ______ hours
2 hrs
312
if temp is above ____°F, you should refrigerate food within 1 hour
90°F
313
use cooked leftovers within _____ days
4
314
should you wash meat?
no, creates microscopic tears in meat + and aerosal in the air
315
does container size matter for leftovers?
yes, smaller is better (large containers can go anoxic with endospore prod. and it takes longer to get to 4°C)
