Flashcards in Midterm 1 Deck (279)
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1
Which of the following statements belong to Claude Bernard?
pricking of the third ventricle can increase the blood sugar
the liver and the muscle contain glycogen
pancreatic juice contains carbohydrate- splitting enzymes
the heart is the center of circulation
The liver and the muscle contain glycogen
2
What are the characteristics of environmental stability?
isovolaemia, isothermia, isohydria, isoionia
isoionia, isovolaemia, isometria, isotonia
isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia
isohydria, isothermia, isotonia, isoionia
Isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia
3
What does isotonia mean?
constant ionic composition
constant pH
constant water content of the blood plasma
constant osmotic pressure
Constant osmotic pressure
4
Who created the idea of "milieu interieur" ?
Cl. Bernard
A. L. Lavoisier
W. Harvey
K. Landsteiner
Cl. Bernard
5
What does isohydria mean?
constant osmotic pressure
constant pH
constant water content of the blood plasma
constant ionic combination
constant pH
6
What does isovolaemia mean?
constant osmotic pressure
constant ionic composition
constant volume
constant pH
constant volume
7
What does isoionia mean?
constant ionic combination
constant osmotic pressure
constant pH
constant water content of the blood plasma
constant ionic combination
8
How do water molecules occur in the cells?
in four molecular clusters
bound to proteins
entirely dissociated
forming irregular clusters
in four molecular clusters
9
Which pair below represents the two most important types of barriers?
plasma membrane, nuclear membrane
cell membrane, capillary wall
blood-brain barrier, epithelial membrane
cell membrane, epithelial membrane
cell membrane, capillary wall
10
What is typical of the cell membrane in terms of permeability?
it is a non-selective membrane
it works as a dialysing membrane
it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials
it is not permeable to water
it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials
11
What is a compartment?
anatomical space
part of the anatomical space
the fluid volume of an organ
a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space
a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space
12
What percentage of the body's mass is water?
60-65%
30-40%
80-90%
10-20%
60-65%
13
What percent of the blood is water?
75 %
90 %
22 %
10 %
90%
14
What is typical of the capillary wall in terms of permeability?
it withholds all material except colloids
it is only permeable to water
it is permeable to colloids
it only keeps out the colloids and is permeable all other material
it only keeps out the colloids and is permeable to all other materials
15
What kind of materials make up those parts of the membrane which determine the transport?
mostly carbohydrates
steroid compounds
lipids and complex proteins
heavy metals and calcium
lipids and complex proteins
16
What is typical of the facilitated diffusion?
it is a type of passive transport
it is a type of active transport
it belongs neither to the active nor the passive transport group
it can be regarded as active and passive transport
it is a type of passive transport
17
Which statement is true concerning material transport across membranes?
receptors are not involved
membrane channels are involved in this process
it runs exclusively with the help of carrier proteins
complex proteins are not involved
membrane channels are involved in this process
18
What is typical of active transport?
its biological importance is negligible
it can work only by using indirect energy sources
it can work only by using direct energy sources
facilitated diffusion is a major representative of this type of transport
it can work only by using a direct energy source
19
Which statement is true for extracellular space?
it is uniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space
it is not part of the total water space
it is about 65% of the total water space
it is about 35% of the total water space
it is about 35% of the total water space
20
What is true for the volume of interstitial space of soft tissues?
it is 120-150 ml/kg bwt
it is less than the fibrotic tissue space
its value is it is 250 ml/ kg bwt
it is less than the volume of the plasm
it is 120-150 ml/kg bwt
21
Which statement concerning the total water space is correct?
it is about 60 ml/kg bwt
most of it is plasma water
its major part is the intracellular space
it is uniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space
its major part is the intracellular space
22
How can you calculate the volume of the intravascular space?
plasma volume + transcellular space
interstitial space - transcellular space
extracellular space - (interstitial space + transcellular space)
plasma volume - red blood cell volume
extracellular space - (interstitial space - transcellular space)
23
What is typical for intracellular space?
it is a uniform space
it consists of one compartment
it contains two spaces
it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments
it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments
24
What is typical for the extracellular space?
it does not involve the interstitial space
it is not a uniform space
it is the biggest part of the transcellular space
substracting from it the transcellular space results in the interstitial space
it is not a uniform space
25
Which one of the following statements is valid for the Stewart dilution principle?
during the application of the principle there is no need to make any difference between living organisms and inorganic systems
it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments
with the help of this method, the velocity of the moving fluid in biological systems can be determined
when using this method an indicator of unknown amount is carried in the investigated system
it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments
26
What kind of factors should be investigated during the use of Stewart dilution principle in living organisms?
in practice non metabolisable, non extractable substances are used which do not cross the barriers
there is no need to take the extracted amount of substance into account
no such substance is known which could comply with all of the requirements
the sample is taken immediately after the administration of the indicator
no such substance is known which could comply with all the requirements
27
What is typical of the transcellular space?
it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane
its volume is 150 ml/kg bwt
it is a single anatomical space
it is the volume of the gastrointestinal tract
it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane
28
What method can be used for quantifying the total body water?
tritiated water or antipirin
only with quantifying density
inulin
exsiccation at 50(C
tritiated water or antipirin
29
What kind of operation is made during calculation based on the Stewart dilution principle?
Co is determined by measurement
S is determined by extrapolation
the outflown amount of S gives the actual concentration of the given substance
V = (S given in- S flowed out) / Co
V = (S given in - S flowed out) / Co
30
How can the volume of the interstitial compartment be determined?
by the injection of a substance which leaves the blood stream completely, but unable to cross cell membranes
with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes
in an indirect way (EC- intravasal volume)
by the injection of Evans-blue
in an indirect way (EC - intravasal volume)
31
What is the meaning of LBM (lean body mass)?
the amount of the fat in the body
total body water
total body mass
fat free body mass
fat free body mass
32
Which one of the following can be a possible method of the determination of total body water?
Evans-blue injecting based on the dilution principle
dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105 C
it can be calculated after the estimation of fat content of the body
quantifying the density of the tissue in vitro
dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105 C
33
How can the volume of the extracellular compartment be determined?
it can not be quantified based on the dilution principle
with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes
with antipirin
with mannitol, inulin and tritiated water
with the help of Na+, Cl-, Br+ isotopes
34
Which one of the following statements is valid for the fat free body mass?
its water content is 73 % of the body mass
its water content is varying significantly
its density is varying
fat free body mass= TBW x 0.73
its water content is 73% of the body mass
35
What kind of properties should an appropriate indicator of the extracellular compartment own?
it can permeate the cell membrane, but can not permeate the capillary wall
it can not permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall
it can permeate the capillary wall, but can not permeate the cell membrane
it can permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall as well
it can permeate the capillary wall, but cannot permeate the cell membrane
36
What kind of substance is suitable for the determination of the intravascular compartment?
131-I albumin
a substance which permeates the capillary wall
inulin
no such substance exists
131-I albumin
37
What kind of distribution occurs during determination of the extracellular compartment?
the slow period of distribution is followed by a rapid one
it consists of 5 well distinguished periods
monophasic
it consists of more phases
it consists of more phases
38
How can the intracellular compartment be determined?
it can be measured only directly
IC = TBW / EC
it can be measured only by calculation
IC = TBM - EC
it can be measured only by calculation
39
What method can the intracellular compartment be measured with?
inulin is used for its determination
Evans-blue is used for its determination
in practice for its determination a substance is used which exits in total amount in the interstitium
no such substance exists, by which it can be measured
no such substance exists, by which it can be measured
40
Which one of the following statements is valid for the blood cell compartment?
it is part of the transcellular compartment
Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination
its determination is possible only from the value of the plasma compartment
its determination is not possible with marked red blood cells
Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination
41
Which one of the following statements is true?
the maintainance of isovolaemia of the EC compartment is primary
the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC
the composition of ions between EC and IC compartments are balanced in a few minutes
the movement of water is promoted by active transport
the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC
42
Which one of the following statements is true?
water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
the maintainance of isosmosis of the intracellular compartment is secondary towards the maintainance of isovolaemia
the osmolality of the IC and EC is equalized in a few hours
capillary wall is the main barrier in the movement of water
water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
43
When can hypovolaemia develop?
its hyperosmotic form develops in hemorrhage
endocrine dysfunction can not play a role in its development
its hyperosmotic form develops in case of decreased evaporation
its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake
its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake
44
In what kind of form can hypervolaemia develop?
its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction
its hyperosmotic form can not develop because of fluid intake
its hypoosmotic form is oedema
its hyperosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus
its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction
45
When can hypovolaemia develop?
its hyperosmotic form develops when burning occurs
its isosmotic form develops in hypoadrenocorticalism
its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea
in diabetes insipidus none of its forms develop
its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea
46
Which statement is characteristic of the regulating process of the fluid compartments?
the movement of substances starts in a few hours after the changes
it is more difficult for the organism to tolerate the volume shifts than to tolerate the shifts in isosmolality
the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the "shift"
the development of isovolaemia can last for 1-2 weeks
the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the shift
47
When can hypervolaemia develop?
its isosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction
its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well
its hyperosmotic form is oedema
its hypoosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus
its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well
48
How much is the concentration of urea in the blood plasma?
4-5 mmol/l
3-15 mmol/l
15-30 mmol/l
3-10 mmol/l
3-10 mmol/l
49
What is characteristic of "shift"?
its result is that isovolaemia will be originated first
it can influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC only very slowly
it does not influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC
it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance
it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance
50
How much is the concentration of Na-ions in the plasma?
144 mmol/l
140 mmol/l
110 mmol/l
95 mmol/l
140 mmol/l
51
How much is the concentration of glucose in mammals (except ruminants)?
4-5 mmol/l
2-3 mmol/l
3-10 mmol/l
4-5 g/l
4-5 mmol/l
52
How much is the value of the oncotic pressure?
kb. 1.6 kPa
4.3-5.7 kPa
1.2-1.5 kPa
2.7-3.4 kPa
2.7-3.4 kPa
53
How can the proteins get across the wall of the capillary?
by transcellular way, with cytosis
through the interendothelial channels and with diffusion
only through diffusion
they can not get through at all
by trancellular way, with cytosis
54
How much is the concentration of Cl- ions in the plasma?
27 mmol/l
150 mmol/l
110 mmol/l
5 mmol/l
110 mmol/l
55
What is HPLC?
ion exchange chromatography
affinity chromatography
a type of liquid chromatography
a type of electrophoresis
a type of liquid chromatography
56
Which one is the most important process of material exchange?
pino- or exocytosis
diffusion
transcellular processes
receptor mediated uptake
diffusion
57
Which components of blood plasma can be separated by paper- electrophoresis?
all proteins of plasma
albumin and subclasses of globulins
alpha-, beta- and gammaglobulins
albumin and fibrinogen
albumin and fibrinogen
58
What is the reflection coefficient?
the ratio of particles passing across the membrane
it is the measure of permeability
it gives the pressure, which is needed by the particle to cross the membrane
it is the concentration of permeable substances
it is the measure of permeability
59
Where are betaglobulins produced?
in the epithelium
in the liver
in the plasma cells
in the bone marrow
in the plasma cells
60
Which formula describes osmotic pressure?
P=r x C x R x T
P=r x C x T
P = C/V
P = (C/R) x T
P=r x C x R x T
61
In which cases can hypoproteinaemia develop?
during inflammation
as a result of genetic defect
in case of malignant tumours
hunger, disease of kidney
hunger, disease of kidney
62
What is true for the volume and osmolarity of the intracellular fluid?
high fluctuations can be tolerated
the slightest change threatens life
small fluctuations can be tolerated
it is independent from the EC volume and osmolarity
small fluctuations can be tolerated
63
What is paraproteinaemia?
appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma
lack of a protein fraction
a change of the ratio of protein fractions
the increase of the proportion of one protein fractions
appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma
64
What does "molarity" mean?
the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution
the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 kg of solution
the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution
the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent
the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution
65
What does "molality" express?
the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution
the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of solution
the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution
the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent
the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of solution
66
What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of NaCl solution?
only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water
the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration
-1.86 C
-3.72 C
-3.72 C
67
How much is the freezing point depression of blood plasma?
-0.56 C
-1.86 C
-3.72 C
-0.3 C
-0.56 C
68
What is the osmolality of blood that can be deduced from its freezing point depression?
150 mosmol/kg
300 mosmol/kg
400 mosmol/kg
30 mosmol/kg
300 mosmol/kg
69
What does the principle of electroneutrality say?
the product of the concentration of diffusible ions is equal on both sides of the membrane
the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space
the pH is equal on both sides of the membrane
no chemical reactions occur on either sides of the membrane
the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space
70
What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of urea solution?
-3.72 C
the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration
-1.86 C
only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water
- 1.86 C
71
Which one of the components mentioned below maintains the oncotic pressure of body fluids?
Electrolytes
NaCl
urea
proteins
proteins
72
How much is the osmotic pressure of a solution with a concentration of 1 mol/liter?
2.27 kPa
1.52 MPa
2.27 MPa
5.6 MPa
2.27 MPa
73
What percentage do the ions represent of the total dissolved substances in the body fluids?
More than 90%
around 50%
around 30%
there are no free ions in the blood plasma
more than 90%
74
How much is the remnant nitrogen concentration in blood plasma?
50-100 mmol/liter
15-20 gram/liter
15-25 mmol/liter
30-35 gram/liter
15-25 mmol/l
75
What is the protein concentration of blood plasma?
30-40 gram/liter
60-80 gram/liter
15-20 gram/liter
3-5 mmol/liter
60-80 g/l
76
Which one of the below mentioned substances is a remnant nitrogen?
creatinine
globulin
transferrin
hemoglobin
creatinine
77
Which of the below describes the different protein fractions of the blood properly?
40% albumin, 60% globulin
60% albumin, 40% globulin
90% albumin, 10% globulin
20% albumin, 80% globulin
60% albumin, 40% globulin
78
Give the molecular weight range of the gamma globulin?
50-800 kDa
45-200 kDa
60-70 kDa
150-1000 kDa
150-1000 kDa
79
Which globulin fractions can be separated from blood by electrophoresis?
alpha, beta, gamma
alpha, beta, gamma, delta
alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma
globulin fractions can not be separated further
alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma
80
Pick the substance which is not considered to be remnant nitrogen
creatine
urea
amino acids
albumin
albumin
81
Which one of the tissue types mentioned below produce albumin?
the intestinal epithelium
the liver
the lymph nodes
the thymus
the liver
82
Where is the VLDL produced?
in the lymph nodes
in the liver
in the intestinal epithelium
in the brain
in the intestinal epithelium
83
How much is the effective hydrostatic pressure in the arterial side of the capillary?
around 5 kPa
around -0.7 kPa
around 2.5 kPa
around 1.6 kPa
around 1.6 kPa
84
How much is the net filtration?
around 30-40 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight
around 3-4 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight
around 8-10 ml/min/100 kg body weight
around 1-2 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight
around 3-4 ml/min/100kg bwt
85
Give the molecular weight range of the beta globulin?
90-350 kDa
60-70 kDa
45-200 kDa
50-800 kDa
90-350 kDa
86
How much is the effective filtration pressure in the venous side of the capillary?
around -0.7 kPa
around 2.5 kPa
around 1.6 kPa
around 5 kPa
around -0.7 kPa
87
How much is the protein content of the interstitial fluid?
60-80 g/l
120-130 g/l
20-30 g/l
10-15 g/l
20-30 g/l
88
How much is the protein content of the intracellular compartment?
40-60 mmol/l
60-80 g/l
20-30 mmol/l
40-60 g/l
40-60 mmol/l
89
How much is the sodium content of the interstitial fluid?
150 mmol/l
144 mmol/l
20-30 mmol/l
10-15 mmol/l
144 mmol/l
90
In how many percentage do the plasma proteins play a role in the buffering capacity of the blood?
7%
15 %
3%
45 %
7%
91
What is the range for the molarity of the body fluids?
mmol/ml
Ámol/l
mmol/l
mmol/100 ml
mmol/l
92
How much is the potassium content of the intracellular compartment?
40-60 g/l
20-30 mmol/l
60-80 g/l
95 mmol/l
95 mmol/l
93
What is the percentage of hemoglobin that plays a significant role in the buffering capacity of blood?
7%
35 %
15 %
hemoglobin does not take part in the buffering of blood
35%
94
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
serum is free of proteins
serum contains fibrinogen
plasma contains fibrinogen
fibrin can be found in the plasma
plasma contains fibrinogen
95
What does hematocrit mean?
the number of blood cells in unit volume of blood
the volume ratio of red blood cells and the volume of plasma
the volume of plasma in relations to the full volume of blood
the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood
the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood
96
Which species has the slowest blood sedimentation?
pig
cow
horse
dog
horse
97
In which case can you observe oligocytemic hypervolemia?
after excessive fluid intake
in case of long-lasting obesity
in fasting animals
in the second part of pregnancy
after excessive fluid intake
98
In what case can normocytemic hypovolemia be detected?
in case of permanent starving
immediately after blood loss
in summer heat, after heavy sweating
as an the effect of sympathetic stimulation
immediately after blood loss
99
in which case does normocytemic hypervolemia happen?
In the heat of summer
As an effect of sympathetic stimulation
in the case of obesity
after excessive blood transfusion
after excessive blood transfusion
101
Which species has the quickest blood sedimentation?
horse
cow
pig
dog
horse
101
What is the physiological pH of blood?
7.2-7.55
7.1-7.6
7.35-7.45
7.0-7.3
7.35-7.45
102
In what case can oligocytemic normovolemia be detected?
in the first part of gestation
after transfusion
in case of acute blood loss
within a couple of hours following blood loss
within a couple of hours following blood loss
103
In what case can polycytemic hypovolemia be detected?
in summer heat
in laying position
shortage of water, in case of thirst
oxygen deficiency
shortage of water, in case of thirst
104
What percentage of the bloods buffer capacity is ensured by bicarbonates?
35 %
53 %
47 %
18 %
53%
105
What method is known for measuring the blood volume?
measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit
injecting deuterium into the circulation
using tricium marked water
with isotpically labelled sodium
measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit
106
What is the average value of the hematocrit?
0.62
0.32
0.46
0.4
0.4
107
What is the density of whole blood(g/dm3)?
1050
1048
1090
1030
1050 g/dm3
108
What percent of the blood's buffer capacity is ensured by non bicarbonate buffers?
53 %
35 %
47 %
5%
47%
109
What is the value for the blood cell volume (ml/kg bwt)?
120
45
35
80
35
110
What's the value for the blood volume (ml/kg bwt)?
45
80
35
120
80
111
Which formula is used for calculating the blood volume?
V = blood6 cell volume x 0.9 hematocrit
V = blood cell volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)
V = plasma volume / 0.9 hematocrit
V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)
V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)
112
The blood volume increases due to the effect of which factor?
gestation
increase in the amount of body fat
cold environment (winter)
starving
gestation
113
What is the definition of the minimal osmotic resistance?
the NaCl concentration where 10% of the red blood cells hemolyze
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis hasn't started yet
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis becomes complete
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started
114
The blood volume decreases due to the effect of which factor?
shortage on oxygen
standing position
decrease in the amount of the body fat
warm environment (summer)
standing position
115
What percent of the total amount of the blood is reticulocyte in a healthy animal?
0.1-0.2 %
1-2 %
5%
2-3 %
0.1-0.2%
116
What's the average lifetime of a red blood cell?
60 days
120 days
80 days
30 days
120 days
117
What ensures the red blood cells ability of changing shapes?
red blood cells can change their shape only in a negligible degree
the actin and myosin content of the red blood cell membrane
the elasticity of the red blood cell's lipid component
the spectrin molecules in the red blood cell membrane
the spectrin molecules in the RBC membrane
118
What is MCH?
the volume of the erythrocyte
the diameter of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin concentration of
the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
119
What is MCV?
the volume of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
the diameter of the erythrocyte
the volume of the erythrocyte
120
What is the MCHC?
the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
the volume of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
the diameter of the erythrocyte
the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
121
Which physical effects cause membrane hemolysis?
detergents
solvents
shaking
spinning in a centrifuge
shaking
122
What happens to the erythrocyte in a slightly hyposmotic solution?
their shape does not change
they hemolyse
they shrink
they become swollen
they become swollen
123
What happens to the erythrocyte in a hyperosmotic solution?
they shrink
they become swollen
they hemolyse
their shape does not change
they shrink
124
Which chemical effects cause membrane hemolysis?
shaking
acids, lipid solvents
heating
freezing, defrosting
acids, lipid solvents
125
What is meant by the maximal osmotic resistance?
hemolysis is just beginning
the hemolysis becomes complete
90% of the erythrocytes hemolyse
the erythrocytes do not start to hemolyse yet
the hemolysis becomes complete
126
How much is the molecular weight of a hemoglobin tetramer?
150 000 Da
32 000 Da
65 000 Da
6 800 Da
65 000 Da
127
How many subunits are present in one hemoglobin
8
2
6
4
4
128
How much is the hemoglobin content of the blood?
80-160 g/l
1.5-2 g/l
80-160 mmol/l
15-30 mmol/l
80-160 g/l
129
How many globin molecules form one hemoglobin molecule?
4
1
6
2
4
130
How many polypeptide chains does a globin molecule have?
6
1
4
2
4
131
What is the composition of an adult globin?
2 beta + 2 gamma chains
2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
1 alpha + 1 beta chain
2 alpha + 2 beta chains
2 alpha + 2 beta chains
132
What is the composition of a fetal hemoglobin molecule?
2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
2 alpha +2 beta chains
2 beta + 2 gamma chains
1 alpha + 1 gamma chain
2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
133
What is the difference between the fetal and the adult hemoglobin molecule?
the adult hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity
the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity
the fetal hemoglobin is not present after birth
the adult hemoglobin is the only form present after birth
the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity
134
How many oxygen molecules can be bound by one hemoglobin at full saturation?
1
2
4
8
4
135
How does the hem bind the oxygen?
Fe3+ reversible
Fe2+ irreversible
Fe3+ irreversible
Fe2+ reversible
Fe2+ reversible
136
What percentage of the total blood CO2 is transported as carbamino-HB?
20 %
16 %
5%
0.003 %
20%
137
What is typical of the hemoglobin binding affinity?
the O2 affinity is 200 times higher than the CO-affinity
the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity
the CO2 affinity is 200 times higher than the oxygen affinity
there is no important differences between the CO and the O2 affinities
the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity
138
What is the percentage of total blood buffering capacity belonging to hemoglobin?
50 %
15 %
35 %
5%
35%
139
What is the basis for the hemoglobin's buffering character?
the deoxygenated Hb is a stronger base than the oxygenated
the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker base than the oxygenated
the oxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the deoxygenated
the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated
the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated
140
Which organ is the site of erythrocyte degradation?
the spleen
the venous plexus of the skin
the kidney
the red bone marrow
the spleen
141
What percentage of erythrocytes die daily?
0.1 %
1%
2-3 %
5%
1%
142
Where does the major processes of hemoglobin degradation occur?
in the blood
in the kidney
in the macrophages
in the liver
in the macrophages
143
Is there any free hemoglobin present in the blood of a healty animal?
no
yes but only in negligible amounts
yes and sometimes it also appears in the urine
yes in relatively high concentrations
no
144
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule recycles?
the iron and the hem
the iron and the amino acids of the globin
the hem and the amino acids of the globin
all parts of it do recycle
the iron and the amino acids of the globin
145
What form of the hem is present in the phagocyte?
biliverdin
bilirubin-II
bilirubin
urobilinogen
bilirubin
146
In what form is the bilirubin found in the blood vessels?
there is no bilirubin in the blood vessels in healthy animals
in free form
in haptoglobin bound form
in albumin bound form
in albumin bound form
147
What happens with the bilirubin in the hepatocytes?
it is conjugated with glucoronic acid and with sulphates
it is oxidated
it is reduced
it is secreted to the bile in unchanged form
it is conjugated with glucorinic acid and with sulphates
148
What is the bilirubin -II?
albumin bound bilirubin
bilirubin -glucuronid
free bilirubin
oxidized bilirubin
bilirubin-glucuronid
149
What is the urobilinogen?
the oxidased product of the bilirubin -I
the reduced product of the biliverdin
the reduced product of the bilirubin -I
the oxidased product of the bilirubin-II
the reduced product of the bilirubin-I
150
Where does the bilirubin- urobilinogen transformation take place?
in the gall-bladder
in the kidney
in the liver
in the lumen of the gut
in the lumen of the gut
151
What happens with the urobilinogen that is reabsorbed from the intestinal tract?
it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney
through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to bilirubin
through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to biliverdin
goes to the circulation and is reabsorbed in full measure from the renal tubules
it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney
152
Where are the red blood cells produced?
in the yellow bone marrow
in the red bone marrow
in the liver
in the spleen
in the red bone marrow
153
Which red blood cell precursor can be found in the blood?
proerythroblast
normoblast
reticulocyte
committed progenitor cell
reticulocyte
154
In which red blood cell does hemoglobin synthesis take place?
only in the non dividing normoblasts
in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow
in the committed progenitor cells
in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts
in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts
155
The expulsion of the nucleus takes place in which red blood cell precursor?
in the non dividing normoblasts
in the proerythroblasts
in the dividing normoblasts
in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow
in the non-dividing normoblasts
156
Which are the most important physiological factors that have an influence on erythropoiesis?
nutrient-, microelement-, vitamin supply
oxygen supply, kidney, age
liver function, spleen
environmental temperature
oxygen supply, kidney, age
157
Where is the erythropoietin produced?
in the liver
in the spleen
in the kidney
in the red bone marrow
in the kidney
158
How long do the blood platelets live?
3-5 days
60 days
120 days
5-10 days
5-10 days
159
In which species do thrombocytes show phagocyting activity?
thrombocytes of the birds
thrombocytes of the carnivores
thrombocytes of the herbivores
none of the above
thrombocytes of the birds
160
What is typical of the motion of the blood platelets?
only the platelets of birds are able to move actively
they are unable to move actively
they drift passively attached to other blood cells
they are able to actively migrate in every species
they are unable to move actively
161
What species have platelets that contain a nucleus?
the herbivores
the carnivores
the birds
none of the above
in other animals (e.g. birds, amphibians) thrombocytes circulate as intact mononuclear cells
162
How many thrombocytes could be found in the blood per litre?
5-11 x 10^9
2-3 x 10^12
5-15 x 10^11
2-8 x 10^11
2-8 x 10^11
163
Platelets derive from which primordial cell line?
from megakaryocytes
from monoblasts
from myeloblasts
from normoblasts
from megakaryocytes
164
What do the alpha- granules of the platelets contain?
glycogen granules
blood clotting factors
hydrolases and catalases
peroxidases and prostaglandins
blood clotting factors
165
What do the dense- granules of platelets contain?
peroxidases and prostaglandins
acid hydrolases and catalase
serotonin taken from plasma
blood clotting factors
serotonin taken from plasma
166
What do the dense- tubules of the platelets contain?
catalases and acid hydrolases
serotonin
blood clotting factors
peroxidases and prostaglandins
peroxidases and prostaglandins
167
What is the role of the actin edge of the platelets?
its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules
it hinders the shrinking of the clot
its high CAM content helps the adhesion
ensures active cell motion
its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules
168
What is the role of the microtubular edge of the platelet?
ensures adhesion
helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances
it is the transport system of the granule
the granules pass out of the cell along it
helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances
169
Which species has "neutrophilic" blood?
the pig
cattle
the horse
the birds
the horse (+ cat and dog)
170
Which species has "lymphocytic" blood?
the cat
the dog
the horse
cattle
cattle
171
How many leukocytes are in the blood per litre on the average?
5-15 x 109
5-15 millions
7-11 x 1012
5000-15000
5-15 x 109
172
Which is the largest leukocyte?
lymphocyte
monocyte
neutrophil granulocyte
eosinophil granulocyte
monocyte
173
What do the granules of neutrophil granulocytes contain?
destroyed bacterium particles
stored nutritients
enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)
histamine and serotonin
enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)
174
How long does a circulating neutrophil granulocyte live?
6-7 days
3-5 days
2-3 days
6-7 hours
6-7 hours
175
What is the lifespan of a neutrophil granulocyte?
2-3 days
6-7 hours
3-5 days
6-8 days
2-3 days
176
What is the colour of the granules in a neutrophil granulocyte?
red
purple-red
purple-blue
light blue
purple-red
177
When is the shift of the blood-count to the left?
when there are many old neutrophil granulocytes
when there are many granulocytes with lobular nuclei
when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes
when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobes in the nuclei
when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes
178
When is the shift of the blood-count to the right?
when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobated nuclei
when there are many young granulocytes
when there are many Staab cells
when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes
when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes
179
What cell elements help the active motion of neutrophil granulocytes?
the bean-shaped nucleus of young granulocytes
the microtubuli
the actin filaments
the stick-shaped nucleus of old granulocytes
the actin filaments
180
What is the clathrin?
a protein, which has a role in the motion of cells
a protein, which helps in the active migration of the cells
a protein which plays a role in exocytosis
a complex which takes part in endocytosis
a complex which takes part in endocytosis
181
What is the opsonisation?
immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes
the antigen-antibody complex activate the complement-system, the antigen-C3b complex stimulate the phagocytosis
the phagocyted particles fuse with the granules of the cells during this reaction
the number of the granules decrease in the neutrophilic granulocytes during this reaction
immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes
182
What is immune adherence?
inhibition of immune processes
complement activated phagocytosis
intracellular digestion
granule exocytosis
complement activated phagocytosis
183
What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?
phagocytosis
allergic effect
anti allergic effect
they produce antigen specific antibodies
anti allergic effect
184
What is the lifespan of eosinophil granulocytes in the circulation?
2-3 days
6-7 days
3-5 days
3-8 hours
3-8 hours
185
What is the lifespan of the eosinophil granulocytes in tissues?
3-5 days
3-8 hours
2-3 days
6-7 hours
3-5 days
186
What is the colour of the granules of eosinophil granulocytes?
purple-blue
red ish
purple-red
dark purple
red ish
187
What do the granules of eosinophil granulocytes contain?
hyaluronidase, myeloperoxidase
histamine and serotonin
histaminase and aryl- sulphatase
contractile particles
histaminase and aryl-sulphatase
188
What is the chemotaxis?
the passive movement of cells
emptying of chemical substances
synthesis of peptide signals
directed motion towards a chemical signal
directed motion towards a chemical signal
189
What is the main task of basophil granulocytes?
they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination
they phagocytose the antigen
they produce enzymes with anti-allergetic effect
they take up the IgM from the plasma
they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination
190
What kind of enzymes play a central role in "respiratory burst"?
protease, lysosim, nuclease
NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase
NADH-reductase, acid and alkaline phosphatase
phosphatases, proteases
NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase
191
Which is not chemotaxin?
histamine
tissue debris
immunglobulins
complement factors
immunoglobins
192
What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?
activating the complement system
phagocyting the broken fragments of cells
activating the materials made by basophil granulocytes
inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes
inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes
193
What colour are the granules of basophil granulocytes?
dark purple
red
purple-blue
purple-red
dark purple
194
What do the granules of the basophil granulocytes contain?
nucleases, phosphatases
histamine, heparin, serotonin
dismutase, peroxidase
hyaluronidase, dismutase, nuclease
histamine, heparin, serotonin
195
What is the processs of degranulation?
the granules of granulocytes fuse with phagocytosed particles
the growth of the granules in the granulocytes
IgE binding causes the emptying of basophil granulocytes
the content of the granule of the cell depletes the cytoplasm
IgE binding causes the emptying of basophil granulocytes
196
What causes the degranulation?
specific antigens
certain factors of the complement system
the Fc part of the IgE
the IgE - antigen complex
the IgE antigen complex
197
What causes the non-specific degranulation?
Certain parts of the complement system
the specific antigen
the Fc part of the IgG molecule
the IgE-antigen complex
certain parts of the compliment system
198
What is the primary function of the mononuclear macrophages?
antiallergic effect
antigen presentation
antigen elimination
anti-body production
antigen presentation
199
What is the characteristics of the phagocytosis of the macrophages?
they are not able to take up big particles
they phagocytose liquids only
they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too
the macrophages are not able to phagocytose
they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too
200
Which substance produced by the MPS cell has a role in loosening the tissues?
interferon
histamine
prostaglandin
collagenase
collagenase
201
Which of the following MPS cells encourages the immune response?
interleukin-1
collagenase
serotonin
angiotensin convertase
interleukin-1
202
What effect has interleukin-1 on the marrow?
increases the IL-2 production of the pre- blood cells
increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes
acute phase proteins are produced
the process of cell- division is inhibited
increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes
203
How does interleukin-1 influence the function of the T lymphocyte?
IL-2 production is inhibited
immune processes are inhibited
IL-2 production increases
anti-body production increases
IL-2 production increases
204
What kind of granules can be found in the cytoplasm of lymphocytes?
granules that contain immunoglobulin and are painted
a purplish colour
there are no granules
a few basophil granules
just a few azurophil granules
just a few azurophil granules
205
What kind of particles can lymphocytes phagocyte?
they do not have phagocytotic activity
they can only phagocyte liquid antigens
they can only phagocyte small solid particles
they can phagocyte both liquid and solid substances
they do not have phagocytotic activity
206
What is the job of B lymphocytes?
they are the main element of the cellular immune response
after becoming a plasma cell they produce immunoglobulins
they eliminate tumor cells and virus-infected cells
they present antigens
after becoming a plasma cell they produce immunoglobulins
207
What is the role of the T lymphocytes?
they produce immunoglobulins
they perform phagocytosis
they take part in the cellular immune response
they inhibit the formation of humoral immune response
they take part in the cellular immune response
208
In what organ does the formation of blood cell take place?
Lymph nodes
in the spleen
in the liver
in the red bone marrow
in the red bone marrow
209
Which pre-blood cell (progenitor cell) settles down outside the marrow during the fetal period?
T progenitor cell
B progenitor cell
proerythroblast
megakaryoblast
T progenitor cell
210
Who discovered the blood-groups?
K. Landsteiner
C. Bernard
H. Starling
W. Einthoven
K. Landsteiner
211
What are hemagglutinogens?
anti-bodies found in the red blood plasma
antigens found on the surface of the red blood cells
protein molecules found on the surface of blood cells
genetically determined antigens appearing in the blood plasma
antigens found on the surface of the RBCs
212
What kind of molecules are hemagglutinogens?
glucoproteids
oligosaccharides
glucolipids and glucoproteins
proteids
Glucolipids and glucoproteins
213
What hemagglutinogens belong to the same blood group?
chemically very similar antigens
they are coded by genes located on the same chromosome
they are coded by genes located on gene locuses that are near each other
genes that are located on the same gene locus
genes that are located on the same gene locus
214
What kind of molecules are the agglutinogens of the human AB0 blood-group?
glucolipids
glucoproteids
oligosaccharids
proteids
glucolipids
215
What blood-group forms without the presence of the H antigen?
all kinds of blood groups can appear
no blood group appear
0 blood group
only A or B blood groups
no blood group appear
216
What blood-group antigen is the gene of the N- acetylgalactose transferase enzyme responsible for?
B blood-group antigen
0 blood-group antigen
A blood-group antigen
it is not in connection with blood group antigens
A blood group antigen
217
What blood-group antigen is the gene of the galactosil transferase enzyme responsible for?
0 blood-group antigen
A blood-group antigen
B blood-group antigen
it is not in connection with blood group antigens
B blood group antigen
218
What are hemagglutinins?
antibodies that agglutinate stranger red blood cells
antigens found on the surface of red blood cells
protein markers found on the surface of red blood cells
genetically determined glucoproteid molecules found in the plasma
antibodies that agglutinate stranger RBCs
219
What are natural hemagglutinins?
antibodies produced against hemagglutinogens, which are always found in the plasma
antibodies present without previous immunization
antibodies produced after blood transfusion
antibodies that agglutinate the red blood cells of animals belonging to the same species
antibodies present without previous immunization
220
What are artificial hemagglutinins?
antibodies produced solely against blood- group antigens brought artificially into the organism
these kind of antibodies are not formed after blood transfusion
antibodies forming just after previous immunization
antibodies produced against blood-group antigens of animals belonging to different races
antibodies forming just after previous immunization
221
What are heteroagglutinins?
substances present in the preformed plasma
they can be seen in blood plasma after blood transfusion
they agglutinate red blood cells of different blood-group antigens of the same race
they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race
they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race
222
What are isohemagglutinins?
they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race
they agglutinate the red blood cells of different races
they are always present in the preformed plasma
its presence is characteristic to human AB0 blood- group only
they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race
223
What is characteristic of the hemagglutinins of the human ABO blood group system?
they are present in the plasma even at birth
they develop postnatally
their concentration is independent of the age
they appear in the plasma after an incompatible transfusion
they develop postnatally
224
What does biochemical polymorphism mean?
structural units with different function but with same chemical structure
molecules with similar biochemical function of different species
molecules of simular function but different structure
a synonym for blood groups
molecules with similar biochemical function of different species
225
How many human blood group systems are known?
5
2
4
15
15
226
To which class of immunglobulins belong the heamagglutinins of the human ABO blood goup?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgM and IgG
IgM
227
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "A blood group" contain?
anti-A
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
no antibody
anti-B
228
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "B blood group" contain?
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
no antibody
anti-A
229
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "AB blood group" contain?
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
no antibody
no antibody
230
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "0 blood group" contain?
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
anti-B
no antibody
anti-A and anti-B
231
Do the hemagglutinins of the "AB0 blood group" damage the incompatible fetus?
yes
no, because they are unable to get to the placenta
yes, but only after the second pregnancy
generally not, but occasionally it may happen
no because they are unable to get to the placenta
232
What happens with the RBCs of the donor in case of an incompatible transfusion?
red blood cells agglutinate
red blood cells hemolyze
red blood cells agglutinate,then hemolyze
it depends of the amount of RBCs transfused
red blood cells agglutinate, then hemolyse
233
What is characteristic of the human Rh blood type system?
hemagglutinins appear in elderly persons
codominant inheritance
natural antibody can be found in the plasma
no preformed antibody can be found
no prefromed antibody can be found
234
The anti-Rh antibody belongs to which class of immunoglobulins?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgM ad IgG
IgG
235
In which case does Rh incompatibility emerge?
father Rh- / mother Rh + / fetus Rh+
father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh+
father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh-
father Rh- / mother Rh+ / fetus Rh-
father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh +
236
Is the fetus damaged in case of Rh incompatibility?
yes, during the first pregnancy
yes, but only at third or fourth pregnancy
yes, at second pregnancy and later
no, because antibodies are unable to get through the placenta
yes, at second pregnancy and later
237
What happens the in case of Rh+ blood transfusion to a Rh- person?
a harmful reaction
in the first mistaken transfusion, the transfusion-sickness appears only in mild form
red blood cell agglutination, then hemolysation
hemolysis is experienced only after the second transfusion
hemolysis is experienced only after the second transfusion
238
What procedure can be used for animal blood typing?
immunization, and systematic saturation
immunization, then separation of the required antibody
antibody separation from the plasma of known blood-group
synthesis of the required antibody
immunization and systematic saturation
239
Which species has the largest number of blood group systems?
cattle
the pig
the dog
the horse
the pig
240
What is a freemartin?
the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders
a fetal defect, mainly in horses
infertile female of a set of twins of different genders
twins who have the same blood type
infertile female of a set of twins of different genders
241
What is a chimer?
the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders
fetal defect, mainly in horses
infertility caused by hormones
both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate
both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate
242
Which species can be a blood donor to another species in the case of emergency ?
cat to dog
dog to cat
horse to pig
horse to cattle
dog to cat
243
Which animal species may display mother/ newborn incompatibility?
dog
sheep
horse and pig
cattle
horse and pig
244
How can you treat the mother/ newborn incompatibility?
the colostrum is given only 24 hours after birth
an immediate exchange transfusion is required in the newborn page
milk should be given instead of colostrum
the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours
the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours
245
What is the correct order of the major steps of the hemostasis?
vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting
thrombocyte reaction, vessel reaction, blood clotting
fibrinolysis, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting
thrombocyte reaction, fibrinolysis, blood clotting
vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting
246
What are the causes of the hemophilia?
the increase of clot formation
the decrease of clot formation
the increase of clot removing intensity
the decrease of clot removing intensity
the decrease of clot formation
247
What can cause thrombosis?
decrease of local clot formation
increase of the intensity of clot-removing processes
increase of clot- forming processes or decrease of clot- removing processes
increase of clot- forming processes or increase of the intensity of clot- removing processes
increase of clot forming processes or decrease of clot removing processes
248
What is characteristic of the blood-vessel- reaction in hemostasis?
it lasts only a few hours
it is not a reflex process
it is a result of smooth- muscle hyperpolarisation
thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process
thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process
249
What is true for thromboxane-A2?
it is an eicosanoid
it is a product of erythrocytes
it has no role in the blood-vessel-reaction
it causes blood- vessel-reaction by itself
it is an eicosanoid
250
What are the characteristics of the thrombocyte reaction?
as a result of it, red thrombus forms
the collagen fibers of the injured blood vessels have a role in this process
red blood cells adhere to the wound
the thrombocytic cAMP production begins
the collagen fibers of the injured blood vessels have a role in this process
251
Which of the following statements is true for blood-clotting?
its final product is prothrombin
its extrinsic way is started by the appearance of collagen fibers
it is due to a proteolytic cascade reaction
its intrinsic way is started by the elastic fibers of vessels
it is due to a proteolytic cascade reaction
252
What is true for fibrin?
it is the precursor of fibrinogen
the loose form of it develops from its stable form
it stimulates the prothrombine activating complex
the factor XIII has an important role in stabilizing it
the factor XIII has an important role in stablizing it
253
On what processes does thrombin have an effect on?
proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
it inactivates factors No. I. and XIII.
it is the antihemophilic factor IX
it stimulates blood- clotting via protein C
proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
254
What is the characterisctic of thrombin?
it is an albumin fraction
it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin
it inhibits plasminogen
it prevents blood- clotting
it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin
255
What is true for the extrinsic way of blood-clotting?
it can be prevented by thromboplastin
it joins with the intrinsic way when convertin is activated
factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor No.X.
it is regulated by the proconvertin feed- back
factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor no. X
256
What is true for thromboplastin?
it activates the Christmas-factor
being released from wounded tissues, it activates
thrombokinase
it is another name for the Stuart-Prower factor
it activates factor No.X.
It activates factor no. X
257
Which of the following statements is true for the intrinsic way of blood-clotting?
the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process
it starts because the positive charge of the collagen fibers of the vein wall are exposed
it begins with the activation of factor X
Hageman-factor is stimulated by the Christmas-factor in this process
the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process
258
Which statement is true for the Christmas-factor?
it is a transmitter
it has an important role in activating the Stuart-Prower factor
it has an important role in the extrinsic way of blood-clotting
it can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent
it has an important role in activating the Stuart-Prower factor
259
Which statement is true for fibrinolysis?
macrophages loosen the blood clot from outside
plasminogen is the active enzyme of this process
blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot
it starts a few weeks after the blood- clotting
blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot
260
What is plasmin?
a structural protein typical of the red blood cells
a small molecular weight substance
a lipid cleaving enzyme
an efficient protease
an efficient protease
261
Which statement is true for thrombolysis?
thrombin activates the plasminogen
plasmin acts in an uncontrolled way
Ca2+ ions trigger it
the dissolving of the white and red thrombus is separated in time
thrombin activates the plasminogen
262
What is the characterisic of viamin K?
it is a water soluble vitamin
its role in blood clotting is explained by its coenzyme function
its lack does not causes clot-forming deficiency
it can phosphorilate blood-clotting factors
its role in blood clotting is explained by its coenzyme function
263
Which statement is true for vitamin K?
agonists can prevent the coemzyme function of it
its oxidated form is the coenzyme of the carboxylation of the glutamin
clot-forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin
its main role in blood-clotting is producing the vessel reaction
clot forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin
264
What is the primary step in the thrombocyte reaction?
the von Willebrand factor is inhibited
the PGI2 and NO production stops
the thrombocytes produce blood-clotting factors
the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed
the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed
265
Which process is concerned with the self-strengthening functions of thrombin?
proaccerelin- accerelin transformation
fibrinogen-fibrin transformation
the stabilization of the loose fibrin net
the activation of protein C and plasminogen
proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
266
Which process ensures the self- inhibiting function of the thrombin?
the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion
protein C and plasminogen activation
the increase of proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
stabilisation of the loose fibrin net
protein C and plasminogen activation
267
What is the basic function of the thrombin?
activation of the proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
helping the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion
fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization
protein C and plasminogen activation
fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization
268
What activates blood-clotting factor No. XII.?
Ca2+ ions
blood-clotting factor No. XIa.
blood-clotting factor No. XIIIa.
the injury of the vessel endothel, kininogen, kallikrein
the injury of the vessel endothel, kiniogen, kallikrein
269
Which substances belong to the "activator complex" helping factor No.X.?
IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3
XIa, Ixa, Ca2+
VIIIC, TF3, Xia
XIIa, Xia, Ca2+, TF3
IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3
270
Which enzyme dissolves the fibrin net of the bood clot?
thrombin
plasmin
collagenase
trypsin
plasmin
271
Which plasma protein is activated by thrombin in the process of anticoagulation?
plasmin
antiplasmin
protein C
plasminogen
protein C
272
Which enzyme is activated by the thrombin in the process of fibrinolysis?
protein C
antiplasmin
plasmin
plasminogen
plasminogen
273
After blood loss ceases what kind of processes follow?
Vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls
Vascular reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, reparation of vessel walls
Transmission of white or red thrombus, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls
Thrombocyte reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis
vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls
274
Which coagulation factor is responsible for the balance of coagulation- anticoagulation mechanisms?
thrombin
factor IV
fibrinogen
factor XIII
thrombin
275
Where can be the enzymes responsible for coagulation found?
In the thrombocytes
In the blood plasma and the thrombocytes
In the blood plasma
In the endothel cells
in the blood plasma and the thrombocytes
276
Which factor fixes and activates the enzymes of the cascade?
X.
V.
IV.
II.
IV
277
Which coagulation factor is first common one for the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?
factor III
factor VII
factor X
factor IV
factor X
279
Which is the most important enzyme of the coagulation?
fibrin-stabilizing factor
accerelin
Stuart-Prower factor
thrombin
thrombin
279
