Midterm 2 Flashcards Preview

Physiology MCQ > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Midterm 2 Deck (407)
Loading flashcards...
1

What determines the contractility?

isotonic tension

isometric tension

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

contraction speed

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

2

What influences the efficiency of the working fibers in the heart?

parasympathetic stimulation
sympathetic inhibition
direct electrical stimulation
sympathetic stimulation

Sympathetic stimulation

3

How does the cardiac output change during the direct stimulation of the heart?
the C.O. doesn`t change
the C.O. decreases slightly
the C.O. increases significantly
the C.O. decreases significantly

The C.O. doesn't change

4

How does the cardiac output change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

the C.O. decreases continuously
the C.O. increases continuously
the C.O. doesn't change
the C.O. increases slightly

The C.O. increases continuously

5

How does the systole/diastole rate change with direct stimulation of the heart?

systole and diastole decrease
systole increases, diastole decreases
systole doesn't change, diastole decreases
systole decreases, diastole increases

systole doesn't change, diastole decreases

6

How does the systole/diastole ratio change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

it increases
it decreases
it increases the muscle force only
the ratio doesn't change too much

The ratio doesn't change too much

7

How can we measure the cardiac output?
on the basis of the Ficks-principle
on the basis of the Van`t Hoff law
on the basis of the Laplace law
on the basis of Henderson- Hasselbalch equation

On the basis of the Ficks-principle

8

What formula can be used to calculate the cardiac output?
C.O.=QtO2x(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CvO2- CaO2)
C.O.=QtO2/ (CaO2xCvO2)

C.O. = QtO2/(CaO2-CvO2)

9

Can we apply the Stewart-principle for the determination of the cardiac output?
yes, because we measure the volume
yes, when we inject tritiated water
yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow
no

Yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow

10

What efficiency does the heart have?
80 %
30-40%
4%
10-20%

10-20%

11

What is the external work of the heart?
The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure
The quotient of pulse pressure and the circulatory mid- pressure
The product of cardiac output and the arterial mid-pressure
the difference of the pressure-work and the kinetic-work

The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure

12

What can we show with the help of the Rushmer-diagram?
the ratio of external and internal work
the ratio of the active and passive component of the external work of the heart
the difference between the external and internal work of the heart
the efficiency of the work of the heart

The ratio of the active and passive component of the external work

13

What does the passive work of the heart derive from?

from the tension during the isovolumetric contraction
from the isovolumetric relaxation
from the energy stored in the elastic components
from the tension of the aortic wall

From the energy stored in the elastic components

14

How do the pressure and volume of the left ventricle change during the fast ejection phase of systole?

the pressure does not change, the volume decreases significantly
the pressure drops, the volume decreases
the pressure increases, the volume does not change
the pressure increases, the volume decreases

The pressure increases, the volume decreases

15

How does the efficiency of the heart change with increasing ventricular volume?

It decreases
It increases
It does not change
It decreases, since the oxygen consumption is less

It decreases

16

What happens when we stimulate the heart muscle to the threshold potential?
Cl and Ca influx
K outflow, Na inflow
Na influx
Ca and Na influx

Na influx

17

What happens at a potential of +25 mV?
Na inflow stops, K inflow, Cl outflow
Ca inflow, Na outflow
Na inflow continues, K outflow stops
Na inflow stops; Cl inflow begins

Na inflow stops: Cl inflow begins

18

What influx happens during the plateau-phase of the heart muscle's AP?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
quick Ca inflow, slow K outflow
slow Ca outflow, quick K inflow
quick Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

Slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow

19

What is going on in the phase leading to the total repolarization of the heart muscle?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops
Ca inflow, slow K outflow
Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops

20

How does the potassium conductance change during phase 3 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it decreases
it does not change
it increases
its change is parallel to the sodium conductance

It increases

21

Which ion flux causes the plateau phase in the AP of the heart muscle?
potassium
chloride
sodium
mainly calcium

Mainly calcium

22

How does the sodium conductance change in phase 1 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it ceases suddenly
it increases
it decreases continuously
it does not change

It ceases suddenly

23

What is the most important difference between the action potential of the heart muscle and that of the skeletal muscle?

the AP of the heart muscle is shorter
the AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase
the contraction of the heart muscle starts after the AP
the AP of the skeletal muscle overlaps its mechanogram

The AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase

24

What answer is produced when the stimulus is given during the absolute refractory phase?
a new AP is generated
a new AP is produced when the stimulus is strong enough
no AP can be produced
AP is generated about 300 msecs later

No AP can be produced

25

Which statement is correct for the relative refractory period?
Only a slight stimulus may elicit a new AP
no stimulus can elicit an AP
a normal stimulus causes an AP
only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

Only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

26

Which statement is correct for the supernormal phase?
a very slight stimulus can provoke an AP
only a strong stimulus elicits an AP
AP cannot be elicited at all in this phase
only serial stimuli elicit a new AP

A very slight stimulus can provoke an AB

27

In which phase of the AP can a stimulus cause life threatening ventricular fibrillation?
absolute refractory period
supernormal phase
relative refractory period
immediately after the diastole

Supernormal phase

28

What is the center of the nomotopic stimulus formation?
septum
Purkinje fibers
sinoatrial node
bundle of His

Sinoatrial node

29

Which formation generates the pacemaker activity in the heart?
large round cells of the SA node
elongated cells of the sinoauricular node
sympathetic fibers
parasympathetic fibers

Large round cells of the SA node

30

Which formation synchronizes and delays the pacemaker signal?
large round cells of the SA node
elongated cells of the SA node
pacemaker cells of the SA node
working muscle fibers

Elongated cells of the SA node

31

The depolarisation of the pacemaker cells begins at what potential?
-90 mV
-35 mV
-55 mV
+35 mV

-55 mV

32

What kind of ion channels function in the period of spontaneous diastolic depolarisation?
Ih channels, slow Na- channels
slow Na-channels
fast Na-channels
Ih channels, T and L-type channels

LH channels, T and L type channels

33

Which channels determine the 0 phase of the action potential of the pacemaker cells?
fast Na-channels
slow Na-channels
Ih channels
T and L-type Ca- channels

Fast Na-channels

34

What are the characteristics of the subendocardial conduction?
the specialized fibre system projects deep into the ventricular muscle
The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle
it occurs in large animals
elongates the heart cycle

The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle

35

What are the characteristics of the epicardial conduction?
it occurs in small animals
the specialized fibre system is on the surface of the ventricle
the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle
elongates the heart cycle

the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle

36

What is the function of the sinoatrial node?
ventricular activation
synchronizes atrial and ventricular contraction
delays the conduction time
nomotopic excitation

nomotopic excitation

37

What is the function of the atrioventricular node?
delays the excitation
synchronizing the contraction of the two ventricles
nomotopic excitation
fast ventricular activation

delays the excitation

38

What is the function of the annulus fibrosus?
ventricular activation
synchronization
nomotopic stimulus generation
heterotopic stimulus generation

Synchronization

39

What is the function of the His-bundle?

delays the conduction of the stimulus
nomotopic stimulus generation
fast ventricular activation
synchronization atrial and ventricular activity

Fast ventricular activation

40

Where is the conduction the slowest in the heart?

in the ventricle
in the His-bundle and the Tawara-stalk
in the SA node
in the AV node

In the AV node

41

Where is the conductance the fastest in the heart?

in the His and Tawara bundles
in the working muscle fibres
in the ventricles
in the atriovenrticular node

In the His and Tawara bundles

42

How does sympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

it decreases the frequency
it increases the frequency
there is no change
first it increases, later it decreases

It increases its frequency

43

How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

it increases the frequency
there is no change
it decreases the frequency
first it increases, later it decreases

It decreases the frequency

44

What mediates the sympathetic effect in the heart?

cAMP concentration decreases
inhibiting of the beta-1 receptor
stimulating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
stimulating the beta-1 receptor

Stimulating the beta-1 receptor

45

How does the AP of the heart change during sympathetic stimulation?
the steepness of the SDD increases
the MDP lowers
the steepness of the SDD decreases
the MDP does not change

The steepness of the SDD increases

46

How does the parasympathetic effect act in the heart?

via beta-1 receptor stimulation
via acetylcholine receptor stimulation
by inhibiting the beta-1 receptors
increasing the cAMP concentration

Via acetylcholine receptor stimulation

47

What nerval effect determines the heart function at rest?

sympathetic inhibition
sympathetic stimulation
parasympathetic stimulation
parasympathetic inhibition

Parasympathetic inhibition

48

What neural effects act on the heart in case of increased physical activity?

increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity

increased parasympathetic activity

reduced sympathetic activity

increased vagal stimulation

Increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity

49

What is the bathmotrop effect?

an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing contractility

An effect influencing treshold

50

What is the dromotrop effect?

an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing conductance
an effect influencing SDD

An effect influencing conductance

51

What is the inotrop effect?
an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing SDD

An effect influencing force generation

52

What is the chronotrop effect?
an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing conductance
an effect influencing threshold

An effect influencing frequency

53

How does the parasympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?

negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Negative inotrop, chonotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

54

How does sympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?

negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect.

negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

55

What is characteristic of the electro-mechanical coupling in the heart muscle?

its main element is the voltage sensitive channel on the membrane of the SR

the process is started by the opening of the Na-dependent Ca channel

its basis is the increase of the IC potassium level

the stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

The stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

56

What directly starts the cross bridge cycling in the heart muscle?

the calcium signal
conformation change of the voltage dependent DHP receptor and T-tubulus
opening of DHP-type Ca channels on the SP membrane
pumping of the calcium into the SR

The calcium signal

57

What mechanisms make calcium flow out of the IC?

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the EC, Na/Ca antiporter towards SR

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/ Ca antiporter towards EC

Na/Ca antiporter towards EC and SR

ATP dependent Ca pump towards the SR and EC

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/Ca antiporter towards EC

58

Which of the following statements is false?

regarding its function, the heart can be considered as an electric dipole

a dipole can be described by a vector

depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction

an electrical signal has direction, measure and polarity

Depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction

59

Who constructed the first ECG equipment?
A. L. Lavoisier.
G. R. Kirchhoff.
C. Bernard.
W. Einthoven.

W. Einthoven

60

Which of the following statements is true?

the sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero.

the sum of voltage differences measured between the vertices of the triangle around the dipole equals unity

the Einthoven's lead is a unipolar lead

the depolarization wave causes an upward defelction on the ECG

The sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero

61

What is the principle of the bipolar lead?

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third reference point

potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipol is measured

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third neutral point

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to standard voltage value

Potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipole is measured

62

What can be seen in the oscilloscope during full depolarization?

an upwards deflection

a downwards deflection

an isoelectric line - no deflection

an irregular line

An isoelectric line - no deflection

63

What is the Einthoven's first lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

64

What is the Einthoven's second lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

65

What is the Einthoven's third lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

66

Why is the integral vector of the heart not zero?

the measurement points do not form an exact triangle

the stimulus passing between the atrium and the ventricle is slowing down

the heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle

speed of conduction is different in all directions

The heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle

67

With which state of the atrial activity does the ventricular depolarization coincide?

depolarization
activated state
repose state
repolarization

Repolarization

68

What does the T- wave describe on the ECG?

atrial depolarization
SA node depolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial repolarization

Ventricular repolarization

69

What does the PQ segment describe on the ECG?

SA node depolarization
atrio-ventricular conduction
ventricular depolarization
atrial repolarization

Atrio-ventricular conduction

70

What does the QRS complex describe on the ECG?

full atrial depolarization
full repolarization
ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization, atrial depolarization

Ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization

71

What makes the Q wave point downwards?

ventricular depolarization spreads to the vertex of the heart
repolarization of the right ventricle
atrial repolarization
ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

Ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

72

What does the S-T segment describe?

full ventricular depolarization
ventricle is fully repolarized
atrium is depolarized, ventricle is repolarized
full repolarization of the atria

Full ventricular depolarization

73

What does the T wave represent?

atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial depolarization
ventricular depolarization

Ventricular repolarization

74

What does the T-P segment represent?

complete atrial depolarization
the beginning of ventricular repolarization
complete repolarization, state of rest
complete ventricular depolarization

Complete repolarization, state of rest

75

What is the essence of the unipolar lead?

to measure the voltage fluctuation between a point of the chest and a limb

to connect electrodes placed on the chest, and registers the integrated voltage fluctuations

to measure the voltage of a single conduction point only

to measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

To measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

76

Which type of ECG gives precise information about the heart's anatomical position?

vector cardiography
esophageal ECG
His-Bundle ECG
unipolar ECG

Vector cardiography

77

What causes heartsound I?

Closure of semilunar valves
Closure of cuspidal valves
Sound of sudden ventricular filling
Turbulent flow following atrial systole

Closure of cuspidal valves

78

What causes heartsound II?
Closure of cuspidal valves
Sound of sudden ventricular filling
Closure of semilunar valves
Turbulent flow following atrial systole

Closure of semilunar valves

79

Which wave cannot be registered on v. jugularis during the heart-cycle?
Wave V
Wave C
Wave A
Wave P

Wave P

80

How long is a complete heart- cycle in dogs?
800 msec
270 msec
530 msec
220 msec

800 msec

81

What percent of the ventricular volume gets to the periphery during the fast ejection phase of ventricular systole?
60 %
80 %
90 %
50 %

80%

82

Of the following elements of the heart-cycle which is the longest in time?

isovolumetric relaxation
isovolumetric relaxation
ventricular systole
atrial systole

Ventricular systole

83

Which is the shortest element of the heart-cycle?
isovolumetric relaxation
atrial systole
fast phase of auxotonic contraction
isovolumetric contraction

Isovolumetric contraction

84

Where is there no valve in the blood flow?
v.cava - right atrium
right atrium - right ventricle
left atrium - left ventricle
left atrium - aorta

Vena cava - right atrium

85

Where you could find tricuspid valves in the heart?
left atrium - left ventricle
right atrium - right ventricle
left ventricle - aorta
right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

Right atrium - right ventricle

86

Where you could find bicuspid valves in the heart?
right atrium - right ventricle
left ventricle - aorta
left atrium - left ventricle
right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

Left atrium - left ventricle

87

What vessel carries venous blood?
a. radialis
a. carotis communis
v. pulmonalis
a. pulmonalis

A. pulmonalis

88

What vessel carries arterial blood?
v. pulmonalis
a. pulmonalis
v. cava cranialis
v. portae

V. pulmonalis

89

How is the mechanical performance of the heart controlled by the nervous system tone?

parasympathethic increases
sympathethic increases
sympathethic decreases
no effect on the mechanical performance

Sympathetic increases

90

How does the nervous system influence the heart basal activity?
sympathethic predominance
parasympathethic inhibition
parasympathethic dominance
no effect on the basal activity

Parasympathetic dominance

91

What is typical for the serial elastic component?
inhibits overextension of muscle
it is linked parallel with the contractile elements
it is stretched in diastole
it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

It is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

92

What is typical for the parallel elastic component?
energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

it is linked serial to the contractile elements

inhibits over extension of muscle

Energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

93

What is typical for the collagen-fiber system?

it is linked serial to the contractile elements
inhibits over extension of muscle
it is stretched in diastole and relaxed in systole
it has a fiber-mass value = 1

Inhibits over-extension of muscle

94

What is typical for the isometric phase of the heart activity?

movement at the same tension

SEC and PEC elements are tensed during this phase

there is tension but no movement

contractile elements are not contracting but are tensing

There is tension but no movement

95

What is typical for the isotonic phase of the heart activity?

sudden tension of the collagen fibers

no change in contraction of the contracting components during this phase

there is tension but no movement

there is movement but no change in tension

There is movement but no change in tension

96

What happens at the maximal loading of the heart?

collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance

collagen fibers relax and reduce their resistance to minimal

tension of contractile elements increase

SEC and PEC components contract maximal

Collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance

97

What conditions allow isotonic contraction?

muscle can not move the load
muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring
muscle is supported to a certain length

Muscle can freely move the load

98

What condition is needed for isometric contraction?

muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring
muscle can not move the load
muscle is supported to a certain length

Muscle can not move the load

99

What condition is needed for auxotonic contraction?

muscle is supported to a certain length
muscle can not move the load
muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring

Muscle works against a spring

100

What type of muscle contraction can be demonstrated in the preload experiment?

two components: first isometric, then isotonic
two components: first isotonic, then isometric
one component: isometric
one component: isotonic

Two components: first isometric, then isotonic

101

What do we demonstrate in the "afterload" experiment?

two different type of contractions: first isometric, then isotonic
two different type of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric
the isometric contraction
the isotonic contraction

Two different types of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric

102

What physiological situation can we demonstrate with the preload experiment?

heart keeps the balance with the peripheral resistance at the end of the contraction

heart muscle reaches a certain length at the end of the systole, then is starts to constrict

at the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict

at the end of the diastole the heart keeps balance with the peripheral resistance

At the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict

103

What is the difference between the mechanogram of skeletal and heart muscle?

The maximal tension in the heart muscle is at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length

The optimal sarcomere length is optimal for actin-myosin bridging at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length

Stretching skeletal muscle has significant energy reserves

The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)

The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)

104

Why is there no maximal tension in the heart muscle at 2 micrometer sarcomere length?

calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
calcium binding sites are 100% saturated below 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
below 2 micrometer not all the possible bridges can be formed
there is not enough calcium due to maximal sarcomere length

Calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length

105

Which of the below is the sarcomere length of the heart at default function?

2.2 micrometers
1.9 micrometers
2.5 micrometers
between 2-2.5 micrometers

1.9 micrometers

106

What is the reason for the difference between the length- tension diagram of heart and skeletal muscle?

the sarcomere structure is different

there is only a small amount of calcium in the skeletal muscle after stimulation

calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle

2.5 micrometer sarcomere length is optimal for the heart to work

Calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle

107

What does the EDV stand for?

stroke volume
cardiac output
volume at the end of systole
volume at the end of diastole

Volume at the end of diastole

108

What does the ESV stands for?

volume at the end of systole
volume at the end of diastole
cardiac output
stroke volume

Volume at the end of systole

109

What does the SV stands for?

volume at the end of diastole
stroke volume
volume at the end of systole
cardiac output

Stroke volume

110

How can the stroke volume be calculated?

End systolic volume - end diastolic volume

(end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x heart frequency

end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

end diastolic volume + end systolic volume

End diastolic volume - end systolic volume

111

Which of the parameters below describes the work of the heart?

end systolic volume
heart frequency
stroke volume
cardiac output

Cardiac output

112

Which equation describes the Cardiac Output?

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

C.O. = (end systolic volume - end diastolic volume) x frequency

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) / frequency

C.O. = (end diastolic volume + end systolic volume) x frequency

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

113

Who formulated the "law of the heart"?
C. Bernard
H. Starling
A. L. Lavoisier
W. Einthoven

H. Starling

114

Which are the most important components of the Starling's preparations?

Intact systemic circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of lung circulation

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, intact systemic circulation

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

Intact lung circulation, intact heard, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

115

What happens when you increase the venous return in the Starling's preparation?

Stroke volume does not change, frequency increases, cardiac output increases

Stroke volume and frequency increase, cardiac output increases

End diastolic volume increases, stroke volume and frequency do not change

End diastolic volume increases immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

End diastolic volume increaes immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

116

What happens when you increase the peripheral resistance in the Starling preparation?

End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency, and cardiac output do not change

End diastolic volume increases immediately, stroke volume and frequency do not change, cardiac output increases

Stroke volume does not change, frequency and cardiac output increases

Stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output increases

End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output do not change

117

How does the Starling law apply in case of change in posture?

The peripheral resistance changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

Venous return changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

Changing posture the altered frequency provides the immediate capability to adapt

The systolic reserve provides the background of the higher heart performance

Venous return changes when the animal stands up or lies down

118

What is the heterometric autoregulation?

During one cycle the same amount of blood is pumped out from the left and right heart

The different blood volumes entering the left and right side of the heart requires no compensation

Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side, as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood

increased venous return decreases the work of the heart

Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood

119

What does the Starling "heart law" tell us?

The performance of the heart is equal even in changing conditions

Increased venous return does not alter the performance of the heart

Increased expansion of the heart muscle increases the performance of the heart slightly

Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

120

What does the compliance of the heart depend on?

the inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate

the end systolic pressure

only the peripheral blood pressure

the peripheral blood pressure has no effect

The inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate

121

What is the correlation between EDV and SV values?

Negative correlation
Positive correlation
Logarithmic correlation
no correlation

Positive correlation

122

Which parameters influence the end diastolic volume?

diastolic filling time, contractility, aortic pressure
ventricular compliance, diastolic filling time, contractility
ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time
ventricular compliance, aortic pressure, diastolic filling time

Ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time

123

Which parameters influence the end systolic volume?

Venous blood pressure, duration of the systole, contractility

ventricular compliance, contractility, duration of the systole

contractility, duration of the systole

contractility, aortic pressure

Contractility, aortic pressure

124

How does age affect the compliance?

Decreases with age
Increases with age
Compliance curve is shifted to the right in old age
Ventricular compliance is not altered by age

Decreases with age

125

What is the ratio of adult and young EVDP to reach the same EVD?
1.5 to 1
2 to 1
3 to 1
4 to 1

2 to 1

126

Which formula can be used to derive the peripheral resistance?
Q = delta P / R
Q = C.O. / R
Q=R/C
Q = delta P x R

Q = delta P / R

127

What is the critical closing pressure?

the pressure at which muscles of vessels relax

the pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone

the pressure at which resistance of vessels decrease

the pressure at which the myogenic tone of vessels increase

The pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone

128

What does the Laplace-law state?

The pressure is a function of wall tension
The pressure is determined by the radius of the hollow organ
keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius
Q = delta P x R

Keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius

129

How does the viscosity of the blood change with the increase of the hematocrit value?

the change is determined by the diameter of the red blood cells
it does not change
it decreases
it increases

It increases

130

What is characteristic of laminar flow?

liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

the maximum velocity of the flow occurs close to the wall of the tube

vortex development

the flow is determined by the velocity, density and viscosity of the fluid, and the diameter of the tube

Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

131

Which of the following is not true for turbulent flow?

it can be described by the Reynold's number

liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

when the Reynold's number is over 3000 the flow is turbulent

liquid layers mix due to vortex formation

Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

132

What is the physiological importance of laminar flow?

while moving in the parietal stream blood cells
decrease their resistance

it stimulates heart work

the slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange

due to the faster flow rate alongside the walls of vessels the blood cells do not stick to the wall

The slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange

133

What is the function of the arterial section of the circulation?

enhances the capacity of the circulation

acts as a reserve for blood

forms an exchange surface

builds up resistance

Builds up resistance

134

What is the function of the capillary section of the circulation?

enhances the capacity of the circulation

acts as a reserve for blood

forms an exchange surface
builds up resistance

Forms an ion exchange surface

135

Which units belong to the serially attached elements of the circulation?

Arteries, veins
Capillaries of separate organs
Arteries, capillaries, veins
Arteries of separate organs

Arteries, capillaries, veins

136

With which formula can you calculate the total resistance of the serially attached elements of the circulatory bed?

sum of the reciprocal resistance of the elements

the difference of the smallest and largest resistance

resistance of the elements should be multiplied by each other

sum of elementary resistances

Sum of elementary resistances

137

What is the role of the Windkessel function?

it insures a continuous flow of blood

it stabilizes the blood pressure in the aorta

keeps the pressure constant during systole/ diastole in the large arteries

during diastole the aorta can actively pump blood to the periphery

It insures a continuous flow of blood

138

What determines the tone of resistance vessels?

myogenic tone

myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

myogenic and sympathetic vasodilator tone

sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

Myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

139

Where is the highest number of elastic elements?
arterial end of capillary
muscular arteries
aorta
arterioles

Aorta

140

Which blood vessels are the most important resistance segments?
aorta
muscular arteries
capillaries
arterioles

Arterioles

141

In which vessels can resistance be adjusted?
in muscular arteries
in capillaries
in the aorta
in veins

In muscular arteries

142

Where can continuous capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues

in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

in renal glomeruli

In muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

143

Where can fenestrated capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues
in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
in renal glomeruli

In the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

144

Where can porous capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues
in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
in renal glomeruli

In renal glomeruli

145

Where can sinusoid capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues

in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

in renal glomeruli

In the liver and hemopoietic tissues

146

What characterizes the capillaries of the skin?

lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions
single-layered, continuous endothelium
ability of contraction
lack of pore-like intracellular channels

Single-layered continuous endothelium

147

What characterizes the capillaries of the intestinal mucosa?

thin endothel layer
free transport of substances
small and large pores
reflection of all proteins

Small and large pores

148

What characterizes the capillaries of the kidney?

small and large pores

lamina densa has a strong positive charge

lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions

the large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

The large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

149

What characterizes the capillaries of the hemopoietic organs?

place of transport is the Disse-space

thin endothel layer

ability of contraction

lamina densa has a strong negative charge

Place of transport is the Disse-space

150

Which type of capillary is the most common in the body?
porous
continuous
fenestrated
sinusoid

Continuous

151

From the following, which is not a venule type?
postcapillary
collecting
elastic
muscular

Elastic

152

What is the peculiarity of veins?

they are not all able to contract actively

veins only with a diameter larger than 5 cm can store significant amount of blood

they have an important role in maintaining blood pressure

they expand without resistance, and then suddenly they resist

They expand without resistance and then suddenly they resist

153

What is true for the parallelly connected sections of the circulation?

the total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

the total resistance is equal to that of the organs

the total resistance is hardly greater than that of the organs

the total resistance is equal to 1/Rt = (1/ R1 + 1/R2 +... 1/Rn) xn

The total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

154

Which units are part of the parallelly connected parts of circulation?

arteries, capillaries and veins
the circulatory bed of the individual organs
arteries, veins
capillaries of different organs

The circulatory bed of the individual organs

155

How does the diameter of the individual vessels change in the different sections?

diameter of vessels decrease to arterioles, then radically increase to capillaries, then continuously grows up to the big veins

the diameter of vessels continuously decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, then it does not change

diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction

diameter of arteries and veins is the order of cm, while that of the capillaries is the order of mm

Diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction

156

How does the total diameter of the vessels change in the different sections?

total diameter of arteries and veins is hardly smaller than that of capillaries

total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the total diameter of large arteries

total diameter of capillaries is 100 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

Total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

157

In which section can the most blood be found?
in veins
in capillaries
in arteries
in arterioles

In veins

158

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in capacity vessels?
90 %
79 %
11 %
60 %

79%

159

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in resistance vessels?

2%
79 %
11 %
30 %

11%

160

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in the heart?
40 %
1%
22 %
10 %

10%

161

What maintains blood pressure?

work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system

the work of the heart solely

the Windkessel function of the aorta

the myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone of arterioles

Work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system

162

Which of the following factors is not significant in maintaining blood pressure?

elasticity of vessels
hemoglobin content of the blood
cardiac output
peripheral resistance

Hemoglobin content of the blood

163

What is the value of the systolic blood pressure?
10.7 kPa
6 kPa
16 kPa
12 kPa

16 kPa

164

How much is the value of diastolic blood pressure?
12 kPa
6 kPa
16 kPa
10.7 kPa

10.7 kPa

165

What is pulse- pressure?

difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure
quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
static pressure on the vessels

Difference between diastolic and systolic pressure

166

What is mid- pressure?
difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure
quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
static pressure on the vessels

Corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure

167

What is ordinary respiratory pressure?

difference between diastolic and systolic pressure

simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure

static pressure on the walls of the vessels

quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure

Static pressure on the walls of the vessels

168

What determines the value of mid- pressure the most?

static pressure of blood
circulating quantity of blood
elasticity of the vessels
cardiac output and the peripherial resistance

Cardiac output and peripheral resistance

169

What determines most the pulse- pressure?

cardiac output and arterial compliance

total quantity of circulating blood

cardiac output

static pressure of blood

Cardiac output and arterial compliance

170

How does the increase of heart rate influence blood pressure?

it decreases blood pressure

it has no effect on blood pressure

it increases blood pressure

it becomes fluctuating

It increases blood pressure

171

How does the increase of peripheral resistance influence peripheral effusion?

it decreases it continuously, then effusion increases after some minutes

it has no effect on peripheral effusion

it increases peripheral effusion

it decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

It decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

172

How does the increase of arterial blood volume influence blood pressure?

pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase
systolic pressure increases
diastolic pressure increases
static pressure on the vessels increases

Pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase

173

How does expansion of blood- vessels change in the elderly?

in a healthy individual age does not influence the elasticity of the vessels

pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases

compliance increases

elasticity decreases

Pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases

174

Where can the highest value of blood pressure be measured?

in the arteries
in the a. pulmonalis
in the left ventricle and in the aorta
in the right ventricle

In the left ventricle and in the aorta

175

Where can the lowest value of blood pressure be measured?

in the right ventricle
venous side of the capillary
in the left atrium
in the right atrium

In the right atrium

176

What causes the notch on the descending side of the arterial pulse wave?

reflection pressure

static pressure

the difference in the pressure between two points of the artery

dimmed effect of systolic pressure

Reflection pressure

177

How much is the velocity of pulse- wave?
40 cm/sec
7 m/sec
0.3 mm/sec
1.2 m/sec

7 m/sec

178

How does the value of pressure-pulse change towards the periphery?

it decreases
first it increases, then later it decreases
it increases
it does not change

It increases

179

How does the value of flow-pulse change from the aorta towards the small arteries?

it does not change

first it increases, then it decreases

it increases

it decreases

It decreases

180

On which section of the circulation does pulse-wave attenuate?

in the metarterioles
in the capillaries
in the small arteries
in the venule

In the metarterioles

181

How does the value of mid-pressure change towards periphery?

it increases
it decreases continuously
first it decreases, then it increases
it does not change

It decreases continuously

182

On which section of the circulation does blood flow become continuous?

in the capillaries
in the small arteries
after the metarterioles
in the venule

In the metarterioles

183

Which process is dominant in the material exchange?

transcytosis
resorption
filtration
diffusion

Diffusion

184

What process determines the interstitial volume?

filtration/resorption
diffusion
filtration
filtration, diffusion

Filtration/resorption

185

On which interface do we find single muscle sphincter?

small arterioles - metarteriola

metarterioles - capillary

small arterioles - capillary

capillary - venule

Metarterioles - capillary

186

What is the percentage of capillaries that are open during resting state?
1-2 %
10-20 %
5-10 %
50 %

5-10%

187

How much time does the total gas exchange in capillaries during resting state take?

400-500 msec
1 sec
20-30 msec
200-300 msec

200-300 msec

188

Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of diffusion?

number of red blood cells
concentration gradients
permeability
surface area

Number of red blood cells

189

How large is the water transport by diffusion?

0.6 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

0.06 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

30 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

300 ml/sec/100g of tissue

190

How large is the water transport with filtration and resorption?

0.6 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

0.06 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

30 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

0.06ml/sec/100g of tissue

191

Which of the following substances do not move by diffusion?

small molecular weight metabolites
the small molecular weight nutrients
gases
proteins

Proteins

192

Which of the following substance exchange is limited by its diffusion capability?

proteins
glucose
gases
small molecular nutrients

Proteins

193

How does the the oxygen diffusion change in the capillaries?

the partial pressure of the O2 linearly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 slightly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 increases as it flows towards the veins

The partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins

194

What is typical of the flow dependent material exchange?

the concentration increases in a small degree toward the venous side of capillaries

the concentration in the capillaries increases significantly towards the venous capillaries

it has a crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances

the growing flow rate reduces the substance deposition toward the tissues

It has crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances

195

What is typical of the diffusion limited transport?

the concentration does not change alongside the capillaries

the concentration rapidly increases in the tissue toward the venous side of the capillaries

it is typical of the transport of the easily diffusing substances

capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

Capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

196

What do we call Starling forces?

all the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

all the forces that affect the oncotic pressure

all the facts that regulate the capillary permeability

all the facts that affect the effective hydrostatic pressure

All the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

197

What is typical for capillaries?

in the arterial capillaries filtration, in the venous resorption occurs

in some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens

because of the loss of fluid the hydrostatic pressure decreases towards the venous side of the capillary

the effective filtration pressure is constant alongside the capillaries

In some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens

198

How can we calculate the effective filtration pressure?

on the basis of the difference between the oncotic pressure in the capillary and the blood pressure

on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure

on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

it is the product of the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

On the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

199

What determines the filtration rate?

the oncotic pressure of the plasma
the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitium
the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma
the effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

The effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

200

Which formula describes filtration rate?

Q= P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary

Q= P hydrostatic x coefficient of the capillary filtration

Q= P effective / coefficient of the capillary filtration

Q= (P onc.- P hidr.) x coefficient of the capillary filtration

Q = P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary

201

How much surplus filtrate is produced normally?

1-2 ml / 100 kg
10-15 ml / 100 kg
3-4 ml / 100 kg
30-40 ml / 100 kg

3-4 ml/100kg

202

What happens with the filtrate surplus at the interstitium?

the veins carry it away

it increases the oncotic pressure in the interstitium

it increases the hydrostatic pressure in the interstitium

the lymph vessels carry it away

The lymph vessels carry it away

203

What is the most important fact which plays a role in the maintenance of the venous circulation?

the work of the heart
the presence of the valves
the peripheral resistance
the gravitation

The work of the heart

204

How does the venous blood pressure change?

it is low in the small veins and the venules but grows toward the right atrium

it decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

it increases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

it does not change between the venules and the big veins but then it decreases suddenly

It decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

205

What is the most important factor in the extrinsic regulation of the circulation?

local autoregulation

nutritive demand of the tissues

the regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels

the effects of the parasymphatetic tone on the blood vessels

The regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels

206

What happens when the blood pressure drops in an organ of high metabolic rate?

the tissue is damaged

nutrient supply to the cells decrease

vessel contraction compensates this change

normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

Normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

207

What happens if the blood pressure increases in a given organ of steady metabolic rate?

because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

because of the relaxation of the vessels the blood pressure decreases

the metabolic rate increases in the tissues

oedema evolves

Because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

208

In which range can the autoregulation restore normal perfusion?

90-110 Hgmm
40-140 Hgmm
80-120 Hgmm
20-240 Hgmm

40-140 Hgmm

209

What is the Bayliss- effect?

the circulation is under endocrine control

the constant midpressure of the arteries ensures microcirculation

increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion

the vessels reply to the decrease of pressure with relaxation

Increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion

210

What plays a role in the local adjustment of perfusion?

simply the laws of physics

parasymphathetic neural regulation

symphathetic neural regulation

myogenic answer

Myogenic answer

211

What role does the endothel layer have in the regulation of perfusion?

the factors produced by it influence contraction state of the muscular layer of the vessels

the NO produced by it contracts the vessels

the EDCF produced by it increases the blood flow

ERDF production of smooth muscles is stimulated

The factors produced by it influence contraction state pf the muscular layer of the vessels

212

How do smooth muscle elements react to acetylcholine in the walls of blood- vessels with a continuous endothel?

contraction
indirect relaxation
direct relaxation
EDCF mediated contraction

Indirect relaxation

213

What determines the diameter of blood-vessels?

the quantity of acetylcholine and other factors in the plasma

hormone producing ability of the endothel cell

the equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production

the metabolic state of the smooth muscle of the blood vessel

The equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production

214

What stimulates NO synthesis?

release of endothelins
decreased bradikinin, histamine levels
decreased adenosine concentration
increased adenosine concentration

Increased adenosine concentration

215

Which substance is not part of the EDCF-family?

substance P
cyclooxigenase dependent factors
endothelins
angiotensin-II

Substance P

216

What changes take place in the tissues when their metabolic rate increases?

partial pressure of oxygen increases in the tissue
due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases
concentration of EC metabolites decreases perfusion
with their humoral signals enothel cells decrease perfusion

Due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases

217

What is hyperaemia?

susceptibility to bleeding
increased hematocrit value
local increase of perfusion
high blood pressure

Local increase of perfusion

218

When can we speak of active hyperaemia?

when increased perfusion is generated locally to compensate the decrease of systemic blood pressure

when increased perfusion is due to the increase of systemic blood pressure

when increased perfusion is a secondary effect

when perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

When perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

219

In what ways can the decreased partial pressure of O2 influence perfusion?

primarily by stimulating NO release

decreased partial pressure of O2 acts only indirectly on smooth muscle

mediated by an increased partial pressure of CO2

by increasing hydrogen concentration

Primarily by stimulating NO release

220

Where is the pressor center located?

in the caudal region of the reticular formation

in the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation

in the caudomedial region of the reticular formation

in the lateral region of hypothalamus

In the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation

221

Where is the depressor center located?

in the caudal region of the reticular formation

in the dorsolateral region of reticular formation

in the ventromedial region of the reticular formation

in the medial region of hypothalamus

In the ventromedial region of the reticular formation

222

What is true for depressor effect?

it causes vasoconstiction in the periphery

has a positive chronotrop and dromotrop effect

has spontaneous activity which decreases heart rate

it is mediated by n.vagus

It is mediated by n.vagus

223

What is true for pressor effect?

has spontaneous activity, and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons

it causes vasodilatation

has a negative chronotrop and dromotrop effect

it is mediated by n.vagus

Has spontaneous activity and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons

224

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the resistance vessels?

general vasoconstriction

vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region

general vasodilatation

vasoconsriction in skeletal muscle, vasodilatation in the splanchnic region

Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasocontriction in the splanchnic region

225

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the capacitance vessels?

vasodilatation

mild vasoconstriction

a little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction

has little or no effect

A little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction

226

Of the following organs which is under parasympathetic control?

resistance vessels
skeletal muscle arterioles
skin vessels
heart

Heart

227

What is the role of parasympathetic system in the adjustment of the diameter of blood vessels?

no significant effect
strong vasodilator effect
mild vasoconstrictor effect
strong vasoconstrictor effect

No significant effect

228

In which organ can indirect parasympathetic vasodilatation be found?

corpora cavernosa
salivary gland
uterus
pancreas

Salivary gland

229

In which organ can direct parasymathetic vasodilatation be found?

salivary gland
skin
uterus
liver

Uterus

230

What is the effect of a small quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

general constriction

coronary constriction

dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions

dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

Dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

231

What is the effect of a large quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

generalized vasoconstriction

dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions

coronary constriction

Generalized vasoconstriction

232

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the blood vessels?

beta-adrenergic constriction

alpha-adrenergic constriction

alpha-adrenergic dilatation

beta-adrenergic dilatation

Alpha-adrenergic constriction

233

What did the Heymans experiment prove?

the presence of volume receptors

the presence of osmotic receptors

the presence of baroreceptors

the presence of gas receptors

The presence of baroreceptors

234

How does blood pressure change after the destruction of baroreceptors?

blood pressure does not change substantially

blood pressure increases beyond 180 mmHg

blood pressure decreases below 80 mmHg

blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

Blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

235

In case of what blood pressures does baroreceptor reflex regulate?

between 50-170 mmHg
below 80 mmHg
over 120 mmHg
between 80-120 mmHg

Between 50-170 mmHg

236

What defensive processes act below 50 mmHg blood pressure?

maximal parasympathetic effect, ceasing sympathetic activity

continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity

in different parts of the organism simultaneously either increased parasympathetic or increased sympathetic activity can be observed

slow increase in sympathetic activity

Continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity

237

What kind of protecting processes begin above 17O mmHg blood pressure?

continuous maximal sympathetic and discontinued parasympathetic activity

mixed sympathetic and parasympathetic activities

maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity

slight parasympathetic increase

Maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity

238

Where are baroreceptors located?

glomus caroticum
a. pulmonalis
glomus aorticum
arcus aortae

Arcus aortae

239

Where are oxygen sensitive receptors located?

glomus aotricum
a. pulmonalis
sinus caroticus
arcus aortae

Glomus aotricum

240

What kind of effects are responsible for vasodilation?
increasing parasympathetic effect
decreasing sympatethic effect
increased tissue oxygen concentration
decreased tissue CO2 level

Decreasing sympathetic effect

241

In which animal do we find sympathetic cholinergic vasodilatation?

in birds
in ruminants
in dog and cat
in horse and pig

In dog and cat

242

What mechanism acts against hypervolemia?

a peptide that is produced in the left ventricle

increases sodium excretion
ANP is produced and it decreases sodium excretion

ADH is produced and increases water loss

decreased ADH and increased ANP production

Decreased ADH and increased ANP production

243

What is the Bainbridge reflex?

increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously

increasing volume of the atria decreases heart frequency

it is the same as the Starling mechanism

it is a depressor reflex

Increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously

244

How is cardiovascular and respiratory interrelated?

the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

the increase of the pCO2 in the glomus caroticum causes significant sympathetic activation

the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant parasympathetic activation

The increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

245

In the long run what is the most important regulator of coronary circulation?

the actual stage of the heart cycle

the aortic pressure change

the metabolic state of the heart

the arterial mean pressure

The metabolic state of the heart

246

In which phase of heart cycle does the blood flow backward in the coronary artery?

never
slow ejection
fast ejection
fast filling

Fast filling

247

what phase of the heart cycle gets more blood into the coronary artery?

diastole
systole
slow filling
fast ejection

Diastole

248

What characterizes the regulation of brain circulation?

the perfusion is kept constant in different regions of the brain

the intravasal / EC volume is kept constant

mostly the sympathetic innervation regulates the ampleness of vessel

the principal local regulator is the pO2

The intravasal / EC volume is kept constant

249

In which range of mean pressure is the brain circulation constant?

90-110 mmHg
80-120 mmHg
30-200 mmHg
60-160 mmHg

60-160 mmHp

250

What is the most important role of the skin circulation?

supporting heat balance

blood storing function

covering the high oxygen and nutrient demand of this organ

enlarging the resistance segment of the circulation

Supporting heat balance

251

What characterizes the splanchnic circulation?

extensive metabolic autoregulation

low capacity

double circulation, portal system

myogenic autoregulation

Double circulation, portal system

252

Among the following statements which is true for the splanchnic circulation?

low capacity

the liver has no significant reservoir function

the autoregulation has primary role

main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

The main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

253

What characterizes the fetal circulation?

the left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle

two-thirds of blood flows to cranial areas from the aorta

the pressure of the pulmonary artery is 5 mmHg higher than the pressure of the aorta

O2 saturation of the a. umbilica is 85%

The left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle

254

Which are the structural proteins of the muscle?

actin and myosin

actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments

contractile proteins

microfilaments

Actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments

255

What is the primary energy store for the muscle?

creatinphosphate
ATP
glycogen
lipids

Creatinphosphate

256

Which muscle has the biggest quantity of creatinphosphate?

heart muscle
smooth muscle and striated muscle
skeletal muscle
smooth muscle

Skeletal muscle

257

What are the functions of elastic elements in the muscle?

decrease heat loss

decrease resistance

they prevent excess shortening

they support the work of the muscle passively

They support the work of the muscle passively

258

What kind of stripes and zones are in the sarcomere?

Z-stripe, H-zone, M- stripe
A-stripe, Z-stripe
H-zone, M-stripe, I- stripe
A-stripe,M-zone, Z- stripe

Z-stripe, H-zone, M-stripe

259

What is the fibrillum?

unit part of the sarcomere
muscle fibres in a muscle
elementary contraction unit
muscle cells

Muscle fibres in a muscle

260

In which list do you find a protein which is not a component of a sacromere?

actin, titin, nebulin

meromyosin, actinin, titin

titin, nebulin, alpha-actinin, actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin

alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin

Alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin

261

What is the function of the tropomyosin?

stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme
covers the active surface of actin
it has Ca binding capaticy
gides the actin fibre

Covers the active surface of actin

262

What is the troponin complex?

complex protein which stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme

a single protein which have Ca binding capacity

complex protein which fixes myosin

complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin

Complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin

263

What do the myosin isotypes determine?

The efficiency of sarcomere
The angle of moving
The power of muscle
What thickens the muscle fibre

The efficiency of sarcomere

264

What does the crossbridge cycle start?

The tropomyosin is slipped
The calcium signal
The activity of myosin ATPase
The magnesium

The calcium signal

265

How many times does the intracytoplasmic calcium level grow during activation?
10 x
1000 x
200 - 600 x
50 x

200-600 x

266

What is the calcium transient?

Ca influx

Ca outflux

Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space

Ca outflux induced by decreasing calcium level

Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space

267

What happens if the ATP is taken away from the system?

The muscle stops in relaxed state

The head of myosin can not bind to the actin

Permanent, inactive contraction

The myosin moves and separates from actin

Permanent, inactive contraction

268

What happens if the calcium is taken away from the intracytoplasmic space?

Muscle relaxation

The head of myosin links to the actin

Permanent, inactivate contraction happens

The myosin does not separate from actin

Muscle relaxation

269

What occurs in the sarcomere, when the ATP-ase cleaves the bound ATP?

The head of myosin binds to the actin

Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves

The tropomyosin is moved from activate points of actin

The myosin separates from actin

Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves

270

What binds to the TnC non-specific binding site?

Calcium
Tropomyosin
Magnesium
Sodium

Magnesium

271

What links to the TnC specific binding site?

Calcium
Tropomyosin
Magnesium
Sodium

Calcium

272

What happens if a calcium signal is present?

The myosin separates from actin

The head of myosin bends to 55 degrees

The head of myosin detaches from actin

The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed

The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed

273

What happens when ADP and Pi is released from the acto-myosin complex?

a two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees)

a three-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 plus 15 degrees)

a one-step bending of the myosin head (55 degrees)

a two-step bending of the myosin head ensuring altogether a 15 nm sliding

A two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees)

274

What's the physiological background of rigor mortis?

there is too much ATP present

ATP is not available

there is too much calcium present

calcium is missing

ATP is not available

275

What is true for cross bridge cycling?

a lot of heads are moving in synchronized form

repetitive pendular movement is present for all myosin heads

an asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur

synchronous ATP cleavage is present in all light chains of myosins

An asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur

276

What is true for electromechanic coupling?

it lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch

it is the generation AP in the myoneural junction

it is the calcium release through effect of the AP

it is the depolarization of the myolemma

It lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch

277

What happens with the intracytoplasmic calcium level when a twitch occurs?

the calcium level is increased continuously

the calcium level is constantly high

the calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases

the calcium level is increased and then stays constant until the next AP

The calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases

278

What is the connection between the AP and the calcium maximum?

The maximum of calcium level coincides with AP

The maximum of calcium level preceeds the AP

The calcium level is not influenced by AP

The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP

The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP

279

In which muscle type can we find a "diad"?

In the heart muscle
In the skeletal muscle
In the smooth muscle
in all types of muscles

In the heart muscle

280

What happens in the triads?

Chemical signal is transformed to electrical signal

Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal

Ca efflux from the cell

Release of ryanodin as a transmitter

Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal

281

What type of channel can we find on the membrane of the terminal cysternae?

Voltage dependent calcium channel

L-type calcium channel

Ryanodine sensitive calcium channel

There is no channel, but a voltage dependent membrane protein on this membrane

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channel

282

What happens if the ryanodine sensitive calcium canal is opened?

Ca influx from EC to cells
Ca influx into the SR
Ca influx from EC to IC
Ca influx from SR to IC

Ca influx from the SR to IC

283

How can the calcium signal attenuate its own effect?

positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR

negative feedback: it opens more sodium channels

it stimulates the Ca-Na symporter

it inhibits the ATPase depedent pumps

Positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR

284

What is aequorin?

Reaction of this material with calcium forms a visible precipitate

Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal

a ryanodine receptor blocking agent

a protein channel for calcium

Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal

285

What are "sequesters"?

Cell organelles that pump calcium into the EC

Transport proteins

Intracellular calcium storing sites

Voltage dependent channels

Intracellular calcium storing sites

286

What pumps calcium back into the SR?

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels

Carrier proteins

Voltage dependent calcium channels

ATP dependent calcium channels

ATP dependent calcium channels

287

What pumps calcium into the EC?

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels

Na-Ca symporter

Voltage dependent calcium channels

Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins

Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins

288

During long-term muscle work energy for the muscle is provided by:

anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation

anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic glycose oxidation

fat oxidation

protein decomposition

Anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation

289

How long is sufficient for the energy to be stored in form of ATP?

for 2-3 hours
for 2-3 seconds
for 2-3 minutes
for 20-30 seconds

For 2-3 seconds

290

How long is sufficient the energy stored as creatinine-phosphate?

for 2-3 hours
for 2-3 seconds
for 20-30 seconds
for 2-3 minutes

20-30 sec

291

Why does anaerobic glycolysis have to cover the sudden, intensive energy requirement?

because enzymes of aerobic glucose oxidation are not present

because aerobic glucose oxidation produces less energy

because aerobic glucose oxidation is initially inhibited

because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process

Because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process

292

What is the source of anaerobic glycolysis in case of excessive stress?

glycogen
fat
glucose and later fats
lactic acid

Glucose and later fats

293

What will be the fate of lactic acid produced during glycolysis?

it will be burnt in aerobic processes

it will be excreted through liver

it will be stored in the muscle

it will be entering the Cori-cycle in the liver

It will be entering the Con-cycle in the liver

294

What is the disadvantage of oxidative processes?

the rate of ATP production is very low

too much CO2 is produced

toxic materials are released

insufficient amount of ATP is produced

The rate of ATP production is very low

295

What kind of muscle tissue is especially suitable for FFA burning?

skeletal-muscle

heart muscle

smooth muscle and skeletal-muscle

skeletal-muscle and heart muscle

Heart muscle

296

What is meant by paying back the oxygen debt?

muscle consumes less oxygen in resting state

fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops

oxygen consumption of all muscle types is in direct proportion to their working intensity

fast twitch muscle fibres do not utilize oxygen at all and so they accumulate oxygen

Fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops

297

What kind of muscle accumulates a great oxygen debt?

red muscle
smooth muscle
white muscle
heart muscle

White muscle

298

What is the effect of lactic acid in the muscle?

it is an energy storing compound

it is the final product of aerobic glucose oxidation

it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which stimulates sarcomeric activity

it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity

It is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity

299

What are the characteristic properties of white fibres?

quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

Quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

300

What are the characteristic properties of red fibres?

quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

Slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

301

How can you tell whether a whole muscle fibre belongs to the white or red group?

by measuring the strength of the muscle

by counting the ratio of white and red filaments in muscle

by measuring the length of the whole muscle

by counting the number of sympathetic fibers innervating the whole muscle

By counting the ratio of white and red filaments in the muscle

302

What types of fibers exist in skeletal muscle?

pink and red
red
pink and white
red and white

Pink and white

303

What is the color of slow twitch fibers?

pink and red
pink and white
red
red and white

Red

304

What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments in fast twitch fibers?

many filaments one nerve

some filaments(2-3) one nerve

grape like

near to one filament/one nerve ratio

Near to one filament/one nerve ratio

305

What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments of red fibers?

many filaments, one nerve

some filaments(2-3), one nerve

many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation

one filament, one nerve

Many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation

306

What is the contraction time of red fibers?
2 ms
20 ms
10 ms
200 ms

200 ms

307

What is the contraction time of pink fast fibers?

20 ms
2 ms
200 ms
10 ms

20 ms

308

what is the contraction time of the quickest white fibers?

2-3 ms
10 ms
20 ms
200 ms

2-3 ms

309

What is true for the fatigue of fast twitch fibers?

slow
there is no fatigue
quick
medium

Quick

310

What is true for the fatigue of slow twitch fibers?

there is almost no fatigue
quick
medium
slow

There is almost no fatigue

311

What type of metabolism do you find in red muscles?

anaerobic
oxidative
mixed
only fat burning exists

Oxidative

312

What do we mean by "quantal summation"?

the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level increase

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

the maximal contraction and the summation which caused this contraction

The increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres

313

What do we mean by "contraction summation"?

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

the increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level

the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction

The increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level

314

What do we mean by "Treppe"?

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres

the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level decrease

the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

The increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

315

What can we learn from the the speed-tension diagram?

the working power of the muscle

the measure of the stretch of the muscle

the output of the muscle

the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle

The output of the muscle

316

What can we learn from the length-tension diagram?

the working power of the muscle

the measure of the stretch of the muscle

the output of the muscle

the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle

The working power of the muscle

317

What is the physiological role of the heat production of the muscle?

it has no significant role, it mainly means a loss

it has significant role in maintaining the coat temperature

only heat production through shivering has a significant role

it has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature

It has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature

318

How many main components make up the total work of the muscle?
3
1
4
2

2

319

What is the contraction/length domain of the optimal muscle workload?

medium tension/rest length
medium tension/ minimal length
maximal tension/rest length
minimal length/ maximal tension

Medium tension/rest length

320

When do phasic fast fibres produce a great quantity of heat?

under restitution
under active contraction
under passive tension
only under "Treppe"

Under restitution

321

When do red slow tonic fibres produce a great quantity of heat?

under restitution
under passive tension
under active contraction
only in relation with the initial heat production

Under active contraction

322

What type of metabolism is there in white phasic fibres?

oxidative
mixed
anaerobic
there is only fat oxidation

Anaerobic

323

What type of metabolism is there in pink phasic fibres?

oxidative
anaerobic
there is only fat oxidation
mixed

Mixed

324

How long is a fibre in pink phasis fibres?

very long
middle sized
very short
short

Middle sized

325

What is the length of a fibre in white phasic fibres?
middle sized
very short
very long
short

Very long

326

What is the fibre-length in red tonic fibre?

very long
middle sized
short
varying

shorty

327

Which muscle type contains the most collagen fibres?

the heart muscle
the skeletal muscle
the plain muscle
the skeletal and the heart muscle

The heart muscle

328

What is a "twitch"?

muscle relaxation
muscle tremor
continuous muscle contraction
the refractory state of the muscle

Muscle tremor

329

Which statements below is correct?

the calcium transient occurs concurrently with AP, there is no biological delay

the calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here

the calcium transient does not directly follow AP, there is biological delay

AP is followed by calcium transient with no delay

The calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here

330

What is isometric contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

both the length and tension change

the muscle overstretches

only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

Only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

331

What is isotonic contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not
only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not
both the length and tension change
the muscle overstretches

Only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

332

What is auxotonic contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

both the length and tension change

only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

the muscle overstretches

Both the length and tension change

333

What arrangement suits the "preload" circumstances?

a load is put on the muscle

a load is put on the muscle and free movement of muscle is restricted with the use of a frame

a load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up

free movement of muscle is hindered with a load

A load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up

334

Which arrangement suits the "afterload" circumstances?

A load is put on the muscle

a load is put on the muscle and we the passive stretching is hindered with a support

free movement of muscle hindered with a load

a load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer

A load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer

335

What do we mean by "all-or-none" law?

in a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction

all muscle fibre contractions are caused by one single stimulus

the stimulus does not produce answer in all cases

the total muscle either contracts maximally or does not respond at all

In a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction

336

Does the muscle produce heat in rest?

Not at all

Yes, this heat is a small contribution to the total heat production

Yes, this is the BMR

Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR

Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR

337

BMR

Basic metabolic rate

- the rate of energy expenditure per unit time by endothermic animals at rest

338

the activation heat belongs to which stage of heat production?

to the initial heat production
to the resting heat production
to the delayed heat production
to the BMR of muscle

To the initial heat production

339

Where does the activating heat production originate from?

calcium pump and cross bridge cycling

electromechanical coupling

onset of stimulus

replenishment of used up energy

Electromechanical coupling

340

Which is larger in the fast glycolytic fiber?

The initial heat production is larger than activating heat production

The delayed heat production is larger than activating heat production

The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production

Contraction heat production is larger than activating heat production

The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production

341

What is the efficiency of the skeletal muscle?
30 %
15 %
7%
20 %

20%

342

What is the maximal speed of frame muscle?
7 m/sec
30 m/sec
15 m/sec
20 m/sec

7 m/sec

343

Why do the muscles get tired in physiological circumstances?

Result of transmitter deficiency

Metabolic by-products accumulate

The oxygen supply is not adequate

Capacity of oxidative enzymes is not enough

Metabolic by-products accumulate

344

What is the first sign of fatigue on the mechanogram?

The muscle does not relax

Reduced amplitude of contractions

The muscle only react on bigger stimulus

The muscle does not react on any stimulus

Reduced amplitude of contractions

345

What is happening when the muscle is working in an oxygenated atmosphere in vitro?

After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover

The muscle does not recover from exhaustion

restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

The muscle can not be exhausted

Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

346

What is happening when the muscle is working in a nitrogen atmosphere in vitro?

After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover

Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

The muscle gets never tired

The muscle cannot recover after fatigue

The muscle cannot recover after fatigue

347

Which type of muscles get tired the most easily?

White muscle
Whole muscle
Smooth muscle
Red muscle

White muscle

348

Which type of muscles get tired least easily?

White muscle
Red muscle
Whole muscle
Smooth muscle

Red muscle

349

What mediates the effect of acetylcholine on the muscle membrane?

Muscarinic receptor
G-protein receptor
Nicotinic receptor
Transmembrane enzyme

Nicotinic receptor

350

what occurs when acetylcholine binds?

sodium-channel closes
Ligand-dependent cation channel closes
sodium-channel opens
Ligand-dependent cation channel opens

Ligand-dependent cation channel opens

351

What does opening of cation channel cause after the binding of acetylcholine?

It induces the generation of End Plate Potential
Hyperpolarization
Cation outflow
Closure of thesodium-channel

It induced the generation of End Plate Potential

352

What does the rate of muscle fiber and nerve fiber depend on?
Length of muscle
Exercise of muscle
Number of muscle fibres
The working ability of muscle fiber

Exercise of muscle

353

What is happening right after the nervous AP arrives at the myoneural junction?

acetylcholine is filling the synaptic junction

The muscle fiber is contracting

Calcium enters the synaptic knob from the EC

The ligand- dependent cation channel is opening on the muscle fiber's membrane

Calcium enters the synaptic know from the EC

354

Where is acetylcholine produced?

On the post synaptic membrane
In the axon
In nerve cell body
In the synaptic junction

In the synaptic junction

355

How many subunits does the ligand-dependent acetylcholine receptor make in the muscle?

5
4
3
2

5

356

What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the muscle?

2 alpha, 3 beta
2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta
5 alpha
4 beta, 1 alpha

2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta

357

What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the CNS?

2 alpha, 3 delta
2 alpha, 3 beta
5 alpha
4 beta, 1 alpha

2 alpha, 3 beta

358

What is the difference between the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor of muscle and central nervous system?

There is no difference

The muscle has got 4 and the nerve has got 5 subunits

The nerve has no delta subunit

Only the nerve receptor is sensitive to the curare

The nerve has no delta subunit

359

What is happening right after the calcium enters the synaptic knob?

Calcium causes IP3 increase

The acetylcholine is released to the synaptic split

Calcium activates the vesicles

Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites

Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites

360

What is the MEPP?

One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1 mV End Plate Potential

One type of AP

Voltage dependent channel's opening induces the potential changing

Maximal End Plate Potential

One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1mV End Plate Potential

361

What kind of AP is generated, when the muscle fiber membrane's voltage dependent sodium channels is open?

Amplitude fluctuates, frequency is equal to growing amount of acetylcholine

Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob

Amplitude is uniformly decreasing

Amplitude is uniformly increasing

Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob

362

What degrades acetylcholine?

acetylcholine- hydrolase
acetylcholine-lyase
acetylcholine-esterase
acetylcholine- hydroxylase

Acetylcholine-esterase

363

What happens to choline after acetylcholine release?

It is used up by the nerve cell during its energy producing processes

it is eliminated from the organism

it is further metabolized

after presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis

After presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis

364

What inhibits the binding of acetylcholine?

the high extracellular magnesium level
the low extracellular magnesium level
the high intracellular calcium level
the low intracellular calcium level

The high extracellular magnesium level

365

How can you inhibit acetylcholine- esterase activity?

curare
eserine
bungarotoxin
magnesium

Eserine

366

What does curare inhibit?

the acetycholine- esterase

the excretion of acetylcholine

the generation of the end plate potential

the binding of acetylcholine to the receptor

The generation of the end plate potential

367

What has an effect similar to curare?

eserine
the high EC magnesium level
the high intracytoplasmic calcium level
botuline and bungarotoxin

Botuline and bungarotoxin

368

What causes myasthenia gravis?

there aren't or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors, or they don't work because of autoimmune processes

too many acetylcholine receptors

too much acetylcholine- release

the function of voltage-dependent sodium channels is defective

there aren't or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors or they don't work because of autoimmune processes

369

How can you cure myasthaenia gravis?

with curare
with acetylcholine- esterase inhibitors
with infusion of magnesium
with bungarotoxin

with acetylcholine-esterase inhibitors

370

What composes the motor unit?

motor unit = myoneural junction

the axon ending on the muscle fibre's membrane

the nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself

the nerves supplying the muscle

The nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself

371

What belongs to the large motor unit?

tonic fibres
tonic fibres and nerves
the red muscle
fast fibers

fast fibres

372

What belongs to the small motor unit?

slow twitch fibres
fast fibres
fast and slow twitch fibres
the white muscle fibres

slow twitch fibres

373

How can you describe the conductivity of the small motor unit's nerves?

slow
fast
very fast
average

fast

374

How can you describe the conductivity of the large motor unit's nerves?

slow
fast
very fast
average

very fast

375

How can you describe the excitability of the large motor unit's nerves?

very difficult to stimulate
average
easy to stimulate
difficult to stimulate

Difficult to stimulate

376

How can you describe the excitability of the small motor unit's nerves?

easy to stimulate
very difficult to stimulate
average
difficult to stimulate

Easy to stimulate

377

What is not true regarding the small motor unit's muscles?

their metabolism is oxidative
their stretchability is good
they are slow
they don't get tired

Their stretchability is good

378

What is not true regarding the large motor unit's muscles?

their metabolism is anaerobic

they are quick

their fibre length is small

they get tired easily

Their fibre length is small

379

On what level do the small and the large motor unit differ?

They already differ at the level of the truncus cerebri

they don't differ

only at the level of the fibres

both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres

Both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres

380

What is true for the intrafusal fibre?

It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre

it accounts for the main mass of the skeletal muscle

it is tendon receptor

it is a pain sensitive fibre

It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre

381

What is true regarding extrafusal fibres?

They exist as a few, muscle-stretch sensitive fibres

working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle

they are tendon receptors

they are pain sensitive fibre-types

working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle

382

What kind of receptor is found in the tendon?

extrafusal fibre
intrafusal fibre
Golgi-receptor
Meissner-receptor

Golgi receptor

383

What kind of afferents start from the nuclear chain receptor?

dynamic
dynamic and static
special
static

Static

384

Where are the nuclear bag and nuclear chain receptors?

in the intrafusal fibres
in the extrafusal fibres
in the tendon
in the axon endings

In the intrafusal fibres

385

What is the servo- mechanism of the muscle?

it is a spinal feedback mechanism, which prevents contraction

it is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level

it is a reflex of the extrafusal fibres

it is a cerebellar reflex

It is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level

386

What is coactivation?

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the spinal cord

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the sensory cortex

the concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the alpha motoneurons

The concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons

387

Which receptor discharges more frequent afferent AP when the muscle is overstretched?

Intrafusal fiber
Extrafusal fiber
Nuclear chain receptor
Golgi receptor

Golgi receptor

388

What discharges more frequent afferent AP with increasing load of the muscle?

Intrafusal fibres
Only the Golgi receptor
Extrafusal fibres
None of them

Intrafusal fibres

389

What happens when the contraction exactly follows the motor command?

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same strength but not the same speed

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same speed but not with the same strength

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with differing speed and strength

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength

390

What's the main function served by the smooth muscle?

Moving the skeleton

Moving the skeleton and setting the volume of hollow organs

Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs

they can be found in sphincters only

Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs

391

What is not typical of single-unit smooth muscles?

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

Each fibre or small group of fibres has its direct innervation

Fast and exact movements

They form a functional syncytium

They form a functional syncytium

392

What is not typical of multiple - unit smooth muscle?

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

Just a very few nerves are going to the functional syncytium

It is present in m. Ciliaris

they form a functional syncytium

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

393

What is MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle?

For relaxation

For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for sustained contraction

For energy supply of the muscle

For mobilization of energy stored in glycogen

For starting the cross-bridge cycle and for sustained contraction

394

What is myosin phosphatase enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle?

For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for contraction

For contraction

For producing relaxation

For binding ATP to myosin

For producing relaxation

395

What happens in smooth muscle when myosin phosphatase is inhibited?

Muscle relaxes immediately

Muscle contracts maximally

Muscle relaxes after a short contraction

Muscle remains in a contracted state

Muscle remains in a contracted state

396

What does "latch" mechanism mean in connection with the function of smooth muscle?

Immediate relaxation of the muscle in case of overstraining

Muscle's reaction to a strong stimulus is not relaxation but contraction

Muscle relaxes after a short contraction

Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism

Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism

397

What is the function of myosin phosphatase in smooth muscle?

It expels calcium from the IC compartment and causes relaxation this way

Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation

It activates the sliding filament mechanism
sustains continuous cross bridge cycling

Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation

398

Is the "all-or-none" law true for smooth muscle?

No, because smooth muscle functions as a syncytium

Yes

No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction

Yes, just like skeletal muscle

No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction

399

What adjusts the ratio of active MLCK/MP?

EC calcium level
IC magnesium level
Energy-supply of the muscle
IC calcium level

IC calcium level

400

What increases the MLCK enzyme activity in smooth muscle?

Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level

Calcium concentration of EC

Calcium concentration of IC

Increasing irritability of the muscle

Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level

401

What does a myogenic answer mean?

Stretching of an extensor causes relaxation of a flexor muscle

Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs

Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction

it is the same as the reflex relaxation

Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs

402

What is reflex relaxation?

Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs

Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction

Straining the smooth muscle causes visceral pain

Straining causes a gradually rising contraction

Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs

403

What does not elicit contraction in smooth muscle?

Effect of a neural AP

Chemical ligands

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

Calcium release from sequesters

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

404

What doesn't induce relaxation in smooth muscle?

Phosphorylation by MLCK

Chemical ligand binding to ligand- dependent calcium channel

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

Increasing MP (Myosin Phosphatase) activity

Chemical ligand binding to ligand dependent calcium channel

405

What kind of receptor is not present in the single-unit smooth muscle?

Muscarinic ACh- receptor
Nicotinic ACh- receptor
Beta-2 receptor
Beta-1 receptor

Nicotinic ACh-receptor

406

Which one of these muscles is not a single-unit smooth muscle?

Bronchial muscles
m. ciliaris
Gastrointestinal muscles
Muscles of the blood vessels

M.ciliaris

407

Which ligand causes smooth muscle contraction?

Acetylcholine
NO
Adenosine
ATP

Acetylcholine