Midterm 2 practise Flashcards

1
Q

After getting a bad grade on an exam, Bradly assumes that he will get bad grades on all his future exams. This illustrates the cognitive distortion of

a) all-or-nothing thinking
b) overgeneralization
c) magnification
d) jumping to conclusions
e) disqualifying the positive

A

b) overgeneralization

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2
Q

What is the diathesis in Meehl’s theory of the etiology of schizophrenia?

a) rejecting mothers
b) bullying peers
c) cognitive slippage
d) hypokrisia
e) genetics

A

d) hypokrisia

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3
Q

One criticism of the diagnosis of schizophrenia is . . .

a) there are only two objective tests used in its diagnosis
b) patients often lie about their disorder
c) it relies on subjective reports of patients
d) patients are too dangerous to approach
e) it overlaps with other disorders

A

c) it relies on subjective reports of patients

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4
Q

If psychotic symptoms last for less than 1 month, this is known as ___________, whereas if they last between 1 and 6 months, it is called ___________.

a) schizophreniform disorder, schizoaffective disorder
b) schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder
c) schizoaffective disorder, schizophreniform disorder
d) brief psychotic disorder, schizoaffective disorder
e) brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder

A

e) brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of delusion commonly experienced by schizophrenic patients?

a) sensory
b) persecutory
c) grandiose
d) referrential
e) somatic

A

a) sensory

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6
Q

Which of the following perspectives is currently most popular for explaining the etiology of schizophrenia?

a) diathesis-stress
b) social drift
c) psychodynamic
d) behavioural
e) biological

A

a) diathesis-stress

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7
Q

The textbook indicates that the common pathway to schizophrenia involves

a) damage to the brain
b) trauma in childhood
c) genetic predisposition
d) the dopamine system
e) learned behaviour

A

d) the dopamine system

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8
Q

Potential markers being researched for schizophrenia diagnosis include _________ and _________

a) hallucinations; delusions
b) positive symptoms; negative symptoms
c) eye tracking; continuous performance tests
d) genetics; environment
e) diathesis; stress

A

c) eye tracking; continuous performance tests

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common cognitive deficit in schizophrenic patients?

a) working memory
b) processing speed
c) attention
d) regulation
e) learning

A

e) learning

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10
Q

The brain changes seen in schizophrenia include changes in all of the following areas EXCEPT

a) hippocampus
b) amygdala
c) brain stem
d) temporal lobe
e) prefrontal cortex

A

c) brain stem

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11
Q

The least common of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia is

a) disorganized speech
b) hallucinations
c) delusions
d) psychosis
e) impulsivity

A

a) disorganized speech

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12
Q

Which of the following correctly matches the perspective to the theory?

a) diathesis-stress; social drift
b) psychodynamic; collective unconscious
c) biological; schizophrenogenic
d) behavioural; hypokrisia
e) cognitive: social drift

A

c) biological; schizophrenogenic

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13
Q

“If both parents of a child have schizophrenia, then the child will have schizophrenia.”

a) yes because schizophrenia is passed on genetically
b) yes because these parents will traumatize their child
c) yes because social drift causes schizophrenia
d) no because stress is needed to exacerbate this vulnerability
e) no because schizophrenia is caused by brain damage that happens after birth

A

d) no because stress is needed to exacerbate this vulnerability

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14
Q

Which of these is NOT part of Meehl’s theory?

a) diathesis
b) schizogenic
c) hypokrisia
d) cogntiive slippage
e) aversive drift

A

b) schizogenic

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15
Q

When evaluating a patient, a clinician notices mania in addition to psychotic symptoms. This might indicate a diagnosis of

a) depression
b) bipolar
c) schizophreniform
d) schizoaffective
e) brief psychotic disorder

A

d) schizoaffective

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16
Q

The current accepted treatment for schizophrenia consists of __________, ideally given before the _________ phase.

a) medicines: first psychotic
b) medicines; premorbid
c) social support; first psychotic
d) therapy; prodromal
e) therapy; premorbid

A

a) medicines: first psychotic

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17
Q

Which of the following is a common antipsychotic medicine?

a) sertraline
b) olanzapine
c) lamotrigine
d) diazepam
e) methylphenidate

A

b) olanzapine

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18
Q

Modern treatment for schizophrenia involves all of the following EXCEPT

a) cognitive-behavioural therapy
b) social skills training
c) family therapy
d) early intervention
e) addressing sleep dysfunctions

A

e) addressing sleep dysfunctions

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19
Q

What are the three components of “mood”?

a) preference, interest, and decision
b) affective, cognitive, and behavioural
c) positive, negative, and neutral
d) biological, cognitive, and psychodynamic
e) attention, repetition, association

A

b) affective, cognitive, and behavioural

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20
Q

All of the following are specifiers for depression EXCEPT

a) peripartum onset
b) seasonal pattern
c) with psychotic symptoms
d) with anxious symptoms
e) persistent

A

e) persistent
[PDD is a separate disorder, not a specifier]

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21
Q

A ___________ theory of depression proposes that people develop ____________ that make them more vulnerable to depression.

a) psychodynamic; diathesis
b) biological; genetics
c) cognitive; learned behaviours
d) psychodynamic; personality traits
e) interactionist; genetics

A

d) psychodynamic; personality traits

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22
Q

When assessing a client for depression, one needs to

a) indicate a specifier if there has been a manic or hypomanic episode
b) make a different diagnosis if there has been a manic or hypomanic episode
c) exclude mania or hypomania
d) take episodes of mania or hypomania into consideration
e) not look at any episodes of mania or hypomania

A

c) exclude mania or hypomania

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23
Q

According to the text, a family history of a mood disorder

a) does not guarantee the presence of disorder
b) guarantees the presence of disorder
c) has no effect on the presence of disorder
d) is not taken into consideration during diagnosis
e) has to do more with the client’s childhood trauma than their genetics

A

a) does not guarantee the presence of disorder

24
Q

A genetic vulnerability likely

a) is more important in depression than in bipolar
d) is more important than trauma or stressful life events
c) is less important than trauma or stressful life events
d) needs to be expressed as a vulnerable personality or cognitive trait and triggered by stress in the environment in order for depression to develop
e) is more important in depression than in schizophrenia

A

c) needs to be expressed as a vulnerable personality or cognitive trait and triggered by stress in the environment

25
Persistent depressive disorder includes depressive symptoms that last at least __________ a) one month b) six months c) one year d) two years e) five years
d) two years
26
All of the following are symptoms of mania EXCEPT a) impulsivity b) distractibility c) flight of ideas d) talkativeness e) quick muscle movements
e) quick muscle movements
27
A hypomanic episode is one that is _________ compared to mania and lasts _________ . a) more severe; one month b) less severe; one month a) more severe; one week b) more severe: four days e) less severe; four days
e) less severe; four days
28
Cyclothymia and Bipolar II are a) similar because they both include hypomanic episodes b) different because one includes manic episodes while the other includes hypomanic episodes c) similar because they both include a major depressive episode d) different because one includes a major depressive episode while the other doesn't require any depression e) similar because they both include manic episodes
a) similar because they both include hypomanic episodes
29
In Bipolar I, a __________ episode is _________ but not _________ . a) manic; common; required b) depressive; common; required c) hypomanic; required; common d) hypomanic; common; required e) manic; required; common
b) depressive; common; required
30
All of the following are possible specifiers for a bipolar disorder EXCEPT a) melancholic features b) anxious features c) slow cycling d) mood-congruent psychotic features e) mood-incongruent psychotic features
c) slow cycling
31
Major depression with peripartum onset as a prevalence of a) 0.5% b) 1% c) 5% d) 10% e) 20%
d) 10%
32
A(n) ________ with ________ might experience ________ . a) adult; schizophrenia; depression b) child; schizophrenia; depression c) adult; schizophrenia; mania d) adult; disruptive mood dysfunction; irritability e) child; disruptive mood dysfunction; irritability
e) child; disruptive mood dysfunction; irritability
33
All of the following might be required for a DSM diagnosis of a mental disorder EXCEPT a) causes distress b) causes dysfunction c) excludes drug usage d) not better explained by another disorder e) not caused by physical injury
e) not caused by physical injury
34
Two personality traits that might increase vulnerability to depression include __________ and __________ . a) helplessness; unreasonableness b) dependent; self-critical c) abuse; neglect d) diathesis; stress e) neuroticism; anxiety
b) dependent; self-critical
35
The evolutionary perspective suggests that mood disorders have evolved because a) depressed people will isolate themselves and not harm the larger group b) this causes people to avoid social risk c) this reduces the risk of the person harming themselves d) this increases cooperation e) it reduces risk-taking
b) this causes people to avoid social risk
36
The cognitive triad includes negative thoughts about a) self, world, and future b) friends, family, and work c) finances, career, and future d) relationships, health, and worth e) self, partner, and home
a) self, world, and future
37
Which of the following are part of the interpersonal model of the etiology of mood disorders? a) negative feedback seeking b) stress generation c) cognitive distortion d) all of the above e) a and b only
e) a and b only
38
Which of the following is part of the life stress perspective of the etiology of mood disorders? a) downward spiral b) attachment c) excessive reassurance d) cognitive distortion e) learned behaviours
a) downward spiral
39
Biological theories propose that ________ is involved in ________ . a) GABA; anxiety b) GABA; depression c) GABA; schizophrenia d) dopamine; anxiety e) serotonin; schizophrenia
a) GABA; anxiety
40
State the correct order that hormones are released on the HPA axis. a) cortisol ⟶ CRH ⟶ ACTH b) cortisol ⟶ ACTH ⟶ CRH c) CRH ⟶ ACTH ⟶ cortisol d) CRH ⟶ cortisol ⟶ ACTH e) ACTH ⟶ CRH ⟶ cortisol
c) CRH ⟶ ACTH ⟶ cortisol
41
All of the following might be involved in the etiology of mood disorders EXCEPT a) frontal lobe b) personality characteristics c) genetic predisposition d) fear circuit e) sleep
d) fear circuit
42
________ is a medicine that treats ________ . a) sertraline; schizophrenia b) lithium; bipolar c) sertraline; bipolar d) lithium; schizophrenia c) olanzapine; bipolar
b) lithium; bipolar
43
All of the following are good therapies for bipolar disorder EXCEPT a) family-focussed therapy b) interpersonal therapy c) cognitive therapy d) cognitive-behavioural therapy e) skills training
e) skills training
44
Which of these is a therapy for seasonal affective disorder? a) medicine b) therapy c) skills training d) light e) shock therapy
d) light
45
Put the steps of suicide in the correct order. a) ideation ⟶ gestures ⟶ attempt b) gestures ⟶ ideation ⟶ attempt c) ideation ⟶ attempt ⟶ gestures d) gestures ⟶ attempt ⟶ ideation e) attempt ⟶ ideation ⟶ gestures
a) ideation ⟶ gestures ⟶ attempt
46
Which of the following is associated with psychological theories of suicide? a) burdensomeness b) dependency c) assurance d) a and b only e) a and c only
a) burdensomeness
47
All of the following are used to prevent suicide EXCEPT a) reduce risk factors b) address multiple levels c) integrate research d) community hotlines e) antidepressants
e) antidepressants
48
All of the following are eating disorders EXCEPT a) anorexia nervosa b) impulsive feeding disorder c) bulimia nervosa d) binge-eating disorder e) avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
b) impulsive feeding disorder
49
Of the following disorders, which one has the highest mortality rate? a) mood disorders b) anxiety disorders c) eating disorders d) psychotic disorders e) personality disorders
c) eating disorders
50
______________ is described as a(n) ______________ of energy intake. a) bulimia; restriction b) binge eating; restriction c) anorexia; out of control d) anorexia; restriction e) body dysmorphia; restriction
d) anorexia; restriction
51
How are anorexia and avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder similar and/or different? a) anorexia involves a disturbance of body image, whereas avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder does not b) avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder involves a disturbance of body image, whereas anorexia does not c) they both involve a disturbance of body image d) neither of them involves a disturbance of body image e) something else
a) anorexia involves a disturbance of body image, whereas avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder does not
52
Disturbance in body image has three components. Which are they? a) perceptual, cognitive, and behavioural b) cognitive, behavioural, and affective c) self, world, and future d) cognitive, behavioural, and biological e) perceptual, cognitive, and affective
e) perceptual, cognitive, and affective
53
Circle all the options that might be symptoms of anorexia nervosa. a) insomnia b) mood swings c) impulsivity d) lanugo e) amenorrhea
a) insomnia; d) lanugo; e) amenorrhea
54
All of the following might be involved in the etiology of anorexia EXCEPT a) amygdala b) norepinephrine c) hippocampus d) dopamine e) parietal area
b) norepinephrine
55
Bulimia can be defined as a) episodes of energy restriction followed by episodes of binge eating b) dysfunction ideas about body shape c) avoidance of food d) episodes of binge eating with compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain e) uncontrolled intake of food
d) episodes of binge eating with compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain