mini flashcards weeks 6-8

study (37 cards)

1
Q

What does social facilitation theory predict about performance on well‐learned tasks in the presence of an audience?
A) Performance improves because increased arousal enhances the dominant response.
B) Performance deteriorates due to distraction.
C) Performance is unaffected by others.
D) Performance declines because overthinking occurs.

A

Correct Answer: A

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2
Q

Which early researcher is credited with investigating the effects of competition by
comparing solitary cycling with group cycling?
A) Zajonc
B) Cottrell
C) Ringelmann
D) Triplett

A

Correct Answer: D

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3
Q

According to social facilitation theory, how does an audience affect performance on
complex or under‐learned tasks?
A) It enhances performance by increasing focus.
B) It inhibits performance by increasing arousal, which favours incorrect dominant responses.
C) It has no impact on performance.
D) It guarantees improved performance with greater effort.

A

Correct Answer: B

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4
Q

Drive theory applied to social facilitation suggests that an audience increases arousal, which then:
A) Leads to random responses.
B) Reduces overall effort.
C) Facilitates the dominant response, thus improving performance on well‐learned tasks and impairing it on complex tasks.
D) Has no effect on task performance.

A

Correct Answer: C

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5
Q

What is the main idea behind evaluation apprehension theory?
A) Being evaluated has no impact on performance.
B) All individuals perform better when they are observed.
C) Evaluation only affects non‐athletes.
D) The fear of negative evaluation increases arousal, which can hinder performance if one feels incompetent.

A

Correct Answer: D

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6
Q

Which scenario best exemplifies an interactive audience?
A) An audience that actively cheers and provides feedback during a performance.
B) A silent crowd that merely observes.
C) Viewers watching a live stream without sound.
D) Spectators unaware of the ongoing event.

A

Correct Answer: A

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7
Q

Social loafing is best defined as:
A) Increased effort when working in a group.
B) Enhanced individual accountability within a team.
C) A reduction in individual effort in group settings compared to working alone.
D) The tendency to overcompensate when observed.

A

Correct Answer: C

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8
Q

The Ringelmann effect demonstrates that:
A) Group output always increases with more members.
B) Individuals work at maximum capacity regardless of group size.
C) Social loafing does not occur in small teams.
D) As group size increases, the individual contribution tends to decrease.

A

Correct Answer: D

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9
Q

Which condition is most likely to lead to social loafing?
A) Individual contributions are easily identified.
B) Individual output cannot be independently evaluated.
C) The task is perceived as highly meaningful.
D) High personal involvement is present.

A

Correct Answer: B

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10
Q

Research indicates that if players perceive that their teammates are not exerting full effort, they are likely to:
A) Reduce their own effort.
B) Increase their own effort to compensate.
C) Maintain the same level of performance.
D) Become more competitive.

A

Correct Answer: A

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11
Q

Which strategy is effective for reducing social loafing?
A) Increasing group size to dilute individual responsibility.
B) Minimising individual feedback.
C) Emphasising only group outcomes without assessing individual contributions.
D) Dividing the team into smaller subgroups to enhance individual accountability.

A

Correct Answer: D

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12
Q

In a home advantage scenario, a supportive crowd typically:
A) Causes additional pressure that impairs performance.
B) Has no measurable effect.
C) Increases performance by boosting positive arousal.
D) Encourages social loafing among team members.

A

Correct Answer: C

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13
Q

Social facilitation effects depend on:
A) The complexity of the task and the performer’s level of mastery.
B) The sheer number of spectators.
C) The time of day the performance occurs.
D) The type of sport alone.

A

Correct Answer: A

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14
Q

When an individual perceives their contribution as redundant in a large group, the likely
outcome is:
A) Enhanced individual motivation.
B) Social loafing.
C) Increased effort to stand out.
D) Improved team synergy.

A

Correct Answer: B

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15
Q

To mitigate the negative effects of audience presence during the learning phase, it is recommended to:
A) Introduce large audiences early to simulate competition.
B) Encourage performers to self-monitor intensely.
C) Increase pressure by constantly evaluating performance.
D) Eliminate audience and evaluation from learning situations.

A

Correct Answer: D

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16
Q

How is ‘attention’ defined in the provided text?
A) The concentration of mental effort on sensory or mental events.
B) The capacity for multitasking without error.
C) The ability to recall past events in detail.
D) The passive awareness of environmental stimuli.

A

Correct Answer: A

17
Q

Which three types of attention are identified in the text?
A) Concentration, sustained attention, and alternating attention.
B) Divided attention, selective attention, and sustained attention.
C) Concentration, selective attention, and alternating attention.
D) Concentration, divided attention, and selective attention.

A

Correct Answer: D

18
Q

Concentration is best described as:
A) An automatic response to stimuli.
B) The ability to ignore distractions without effort.
C) A deliberate investment of mental effort on important information.
D) A passive state of alertness.

A

Correct Answer: C

19
Q

Divided attention involves the ability to:
A) Process multiple sources of information simultaneously.
B) Focus exclusively on one task.
C) Filter out every distraction completely.
D) Rely solely on intuition.

A

Correct Answer: A

20
Q

Selective attention enables an individual to:
A) Split focus evenly across all stimuli.
B) Multitask without any errors.
C) Maintain complete focus on internal thoughts only.
D) Direct awareness to relevant stimuli while ignoring irrelevant ones.

A

Correct Answer: D

21
Q

One potential consequence of misdirected selective attention is:
A) Enhanced identification of critical cues.
B) Improved multitasking performance.
C) Change blindness, where key information is missed.
D) A reduced need for concentration.

A

Correct Answer: C

22
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of concentration mentioned in the text?
A) Focusing on relevant environmental cues.
B) Memorising irrelevant details.
C) Maintaining attentional focus.
D) Shifting attentional focus when necessary.

A

Correct Answer: B

23
Q

Effective concentration includes the ability to shift attentional focus. This means an
athlete should be able to:
A) Maintain the same focus regardless of changing circumstances.
B) Ignore all external distractions permanently.
C) Focus solely on past performance metrics.
D) Switch attention to new, relevant cues as the situation evolves.

A

Correct Answer: D

24
Q

Divided attention is limited primarily because:
A) The brain can process unlimited information simultaneously.
B) Sensory input is always minimal.
C) There is a finite amount of attentional capacity available.
D) It is independent of practice and experience.

A

Correct Answer: C

25
A recommended strategy for achieving automaticity in skills is to: A) Spend sufficient time learning and over-learning the skill. B) Overwhelm learners with excessive teaching points. C) Focus mainly on theoretical instruction. D) Rely exclusively on external feedback.
Correct Answer: A
26
Which of the following is an internal distractor that can lead to choking?
A) Background noise from the audience. B) Flashing scoreboards. C) Mobile phone alerts. D) Worrying about past mistakes. Correct Answer: D
27
A practical implication for reducing performance under attentional stress is to: A) Background noise from the audience. B) Flashing scoreboards. C) Mobile phone alerts. D) Worrying about past mistakes.
Correct Answer: B
28
Team cohesion is composed of which two primary dimensions? A) Task cohesion and technical cohesion B) Social cohesion and competitive cohesion C) Task cohesion and social cohesion D) Physical cohesion and mental cohesion
google.
29
Task cohesion is best described as: A) The degree to which team members share personal interests outside the sport. B) The extent to which team members collaborate to achieve common performance goals. C) The emotional bonds between team members. D) The level of individual commitment to personal training
google.
30
Social cohesion in a team setting refers to: A) The physical fitness levels of team members. B) The mutual attraction and interpersonal relationships among team members. C) The strategic planning during competitions. D) The individual technical skills of each member.
google.
31
Which combination best illustrates a scenario with low social cohesion but high task cohesion? A) A team that is socially united but lacks performance coordination. B) A team that works well together in competition but has weak off-field relationships. C) A team that has strong personal bonds and equally strong performance. D) A team that is neither socially nor task cohesive
google.
32
One common method for measuring group cohesion is: A) Performance tracking alone. B) Questionnaires combined with social network analysis (sociograms). C) Physical fitness tests. D) Observation of team uniform colours.
google.
33
Collective efficacy is defined as: A) The sum of individual talents within a team. B) A shared belief in the team's capability to perform successfully. C) The coach’s assessment of the team’s skills. D) The historical win–loss record of the team
google.
34
Which factor is considered an antecedent of team cohesion? A) Financial incentives from sponsors. B) Environmental factors such as geographical constraints. C) The quality of team equipment. D) The number of social media followers
google.
35
Shared experiences, such as winning and losing, contribute to team cohesion by: A) Encouraging individual competition. B) Creating a unified sense of identity and common purpose. C) Reducing the need for effective communication. D) Increasing the complexity of team strategies
google.
36
Higher levels of team cohesion are generally linked to: A) Reduced team performance due to complacency. B) Improved team performance, although the relationship may be moderated by other factors. C) Increased individual focus at the expense of teamwork. D) No measurable impact on outcomes
google.
37
An effective approach to building team cohesion is to: A) Encourage formation of exclusive cliques within the team. B) Set clear, challenging group goals and promote a shared identity. C) Focus exclusively on individual performance metrics. D) Limit communication to avoid conflict.
google.