Module 9 Part 4 Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Monitor core temperature with general anesthesia >___ minutes

A

> 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maintain core temp of >___C

A

> 36C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypothermia

A

<36C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperthermia

A

> 38C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Normothermia

A

37C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drug can inhibit the sweating response?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The majority of heat loss in the preoperative setting occurs within the first ____ hour(s)

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypothermia reduces the MAC of volatile anesthetic agents by __% per degrees C

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name 3 risks of hypothermia

A
  • Increased O2 consumption through shivering
  • Increased risk CV events & MI
  • Increased risk sickling with sickle cell dz
  • Impaired coagulation
  • Increases surgical blood loss
  • Decreased drug metabolism
  • Reduced MAC of volatile anesthetic agents by 5% per C
  • Increased wound infection and delayed healing
  • Impaired immune function
  • Prolonged PACU stay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What method of heat transfer accounts for the majority of heat transfer in the OR?

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2nd leading cause of heat loss?

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Keep OR at least >___C

A

> 23C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1 unit of PRBCs or 1L of crystalloids can decrease temp by _____ degrees C

A

0.25C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benchmark for adequate neuromuscular recovery is an adductor pollicis (_____ nerve) Train of Four (TOF) ratio of >_____

A

Ulnar nerve

>0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Device that uses electrical impulses transmitted from stimulator to superficial peripheral nerve by surface electrodes

A

peripheral nerve stimulator (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The ________ is most resistant to NMB and it recovers more _______ than peripheral muscles

A

Diaphragm

Quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which nerve is the gold standard for PNS monitoring?

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Contraction of the _______ muscle of the ______ via stimulation of the ulnar nerve is the preferred site for determining the level of neuromuscular blockade

A

adductor

thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Out of the five clinical test types of neuromuscular function, the TOF and _______ stimulation are the most commonly used.

A

tetanic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is the most useful time to use single twitch PNS monitoring?

A

Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Without a baseline for single twitch PNS measuring, if muscle movement is detected at all during stimulation, what does this simply mean?

A

NMB <100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Single twitch PNS monitoring involves a single twitch at ___ to ___ hertz (Hz) for ___ to ___ milliseconds (ms)

A
  1. 1 - 1 Hz

0. 1 - 0.2 ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The TOF test delivers four separate stimuli every ___ seconds at a frequency of __ (Hz) for __ seconds.

A

every 0.5 seconds
2 Hz
2 seconds

24
Q

The most widely used means of stimulation is the ______

25
With TOF stimulation what is the term for the decrement in twitch height
Fade
26
Twitch suppression of 90% = TOF count of __ or less
1
27
TOF stimulation is most sensitive between ___% and ___% paralysis
70-100%
28
T1-T3 twitches are present. What is the percent NMB?
75-80% block
29
T1 & T2 twitches are present. What is the percent NMB?
80-85% block
30
Only T1 twitch is present. What is the percent NMB?
90-95% block
31
No twitches are present with TOF. What is the percent NMB?
100% block
32
What agent does not have a TOF fade?
Succinylcholine
33
Intraoperatively, the ideal degree of paralysis necessary for any procedure with sufficient anesthetic depth is ___% to ___%.
85-95% (1-2 twitches)
34
How many TOF twitches visible for ideal degree of paralysis intraop?
1-2 twitches visible
35
___-__________ agents have a TOF fade.
Non-depolarizing
36
What TOFR should be obtained before extubation?
0.9
37
During onset of _______ block, each of the four twitches is decreased equally in size; there is no fade
depolarizing
38
___-________ block → more fade = deeper block
Non-depolarizing
39
Depolarizing block → no fade; if fade present = _______ block
Phase 2 block
40
If larger doses of depolarizing agent are given, for example in techniques that require repeated bolus doses or infusions of succinylcholine, then a ________ block may develop
Phase 2
41
_______ blocks with depolarizing agents mimic non-depolarizing blocks
phase 2
42
Tetanus consists of continuous electrical stimulation for __ seconds at ___ or ___ Hz
5 seconds | 50 or 100 Hz
43
With tetanus stimulation, if the muscle contraction produced is sustained for the entire 5 seconds of stimulation without fade, significant paralysis is ______.
unlikely
44
This type of stimulation test is painful and should not be repeated too often in order to avoid muscle fatigue
Tetanus stimulation
45
The adult brain comprises approximately __% to __% of body weight
2-3%
46
The adult brain requires approximately __% to __% of cardiac output
15-20%
47
The ______ monitoring system can monitor patient’s level of consciousness (LOC)
BIS (bispectral index)
48
A BIS monitor uses the analysis and processing of ____ electrical signals
EEG
49
What does BIS value of 0 mean?
No brain activity
50
What does BIS value of 100 mean?
Pt awake and alert
51
BIS values between ___ and ___ suggest adequate general anesthesia for surgery
40-60
52
______ is a controversial marker of renal function
UO
53
Try to keep UO >______
>0.5mL/kg/hr
54
Increased response time and/or decrease in response rate to a clinical alarm as a result of too many alarms
Alarm fatigue
55
“_________” phenomenon is a natural behavior to disregard signals that have been false in the past
"Cry wolf"