MTT Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

Massage therapy is best described as:

A

manipulation of the soft tissues of the body for therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which one of the following components is NOT associated with the correct application of frictions?

A

Work through edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which one of the following modalities should be applied after frictions?

A

Ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Effleurage on the limbs is performed with the pressure of each stroke directed from:

A

distal to proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding peripheral joint mobilizations (PJM) is FALSE?

A

There are three grades of oscillations and four grades of sustained PJM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which one of the following situation is not an indication for the use of GTO release?

A

hypotonicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding movement of a convex bone on a concave bone is TRUE?

A

The slide of the moving bone is in the opposite direction to its swing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When passively stretching a muscle, its insertion and origin are _________; when concentrically strengthening a muscle, its insertion and origin are ________.

A

separated/approximated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one of the following actions is appropriate when treating a client with a blistered sunburn tells you to “go easy over that area”?

A

inform the client the area is a contraindication to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding CMTNL standard of

A

You should wash your hands immediately before the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements about performing fascial techniques is FALSE?

A

The therapist engages deep into the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When observing posture in the lateral view all of the following are considered true except:

A

The middle of the chin should sit directly under the tip of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stimulating and soothing effects of the massage therapy techniques are mainly a function of:

A

rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The use of alternate pressure and relaxation is a defining characteristic of:

A

petrissage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which one of the following techniques is considered petrissage technique?

A

wringing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To demonstrate proper body mechanics during a massage, the therapist must:

A

stay behind the technique, keeping the client’s body in front of you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which one of the following techniques is the lightest massage technique listed?

A

stroking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which one of the following landmarks is used as a guideline for anterior lower limb draping?

A

anterior superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which one of the following is the therapist’s main concern when turning a client?

A

client safety and privacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which statement about proper biomechanics and ergonomics is TRUE?

A

Therapists weight shifts forward as they perform longitudinal techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The safest positioning for a pregnant client to be treated in the third trimester of pregnancy is _______ position

A

Left side lying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to the universal precautions, to clean up bodily fluids you should use

A

A 1:10 ratio of bleach to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An isometric strengthening exercise is

A

A strength training method in which a muscles origin and insertion do not move, rather they remain the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An isometric strengthening exercise is

A

A strength training method in which a muscles origin and insertion do not move, rather they remain the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A grade 2 oscillation joint play is best described as
Large amplitude, rhythmic oscillations within mid range
26
To properly apply an origin and insertion technique to the bicep brachii, you must work the tendons near the:
Coracoid process, supraglenoid tubercle and radial tuberosity
27
A muscle approximation technique is best described as:
Picking up the origin and insertion and pushing them closer together
28
A GTO release for the Biceps Femoris would be applied close to the:
Ischial tuberosity
29
Which of the following statements is TRUE when providing self-care to a client?
Clients should be told to do 8-10 reps of isometric strengthening 2-3 times.
30
Cupping is considered what type of tapotement?
Moderate
31
You are asked to perform a cross hand fascial spread. Which statement is FALSE regarding this technique?
Sink deep into the musculature
32
You ask your client to use their imagination to picture the muscle lengthening as you are applying a stretch to it. This best describes:
Visualization
33
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise?
Decreases blood flow to the brain.
34
The main use of cold applications is in the management of:
acute inflammation
35
When applying a large scale hydrotherapy application, you should modify the treatment for a client with cardiovascular issues by:
lowering the water level below the heart and decreasing the temperature
36
During a contrast hydrotherapy application, what is the most common ratio of hot to cold?
3 hot to 1 cold
37
Hyperemia is
accumulation of blood in the skin
38
Acetaminophen is a type of
Painkiller
39
You should use cups of Epsom salts in Epsom salt bath?
2
40
Massage therapists have the right to limit their practices by refusing:
to accept clients if they are fully booked
41
Which one of the following statements describes Zero tolerance?
There shall be no sexual interaction between therapist and client even if the client initiates it.
42
A student has graduated from a massage therapy college in NL but has not yet passed the CMTNL certification examinations. She is offered a job starting immediately. If she accepts this position and begins practicing massage therapy, the CMTNL may:
consider that she is behaving unethically and may delay her application for certification
43
Which one of the following elements is NOT a component of informed consent?
The fee for treatment
44
How many hours of direct client care must a massage therapist have to maintain a general certificate of registration?
500 hours every three years
45
Which one of the following is an example of good listening skills?
Paraphrasing what the client has said to you
46
Which one of the following statements regarding self-esteem is TRUE?
Self-esteem is described as the feeling of worth we have about ourselves
47
Which one of the following statements accurately describes therapeutic boundaries?
The limits that allow for safe connection based on the client’s needs
48
Which one of the following is NOT one of the steps in the ethical decision making process?
Condemning other’s action plans if different from yours
49
Since we are not always aware of our client’s background, how does the College of Massage Therapists suggest we treat all clients?
With respect
50
Which one of the following components is NOT part of the scope of practice of Massage Therapy?
Diagnosis of the dysfunction of soft tissue and bone
51
Which one of the following assessment sequences is in the correct order?
Intake questions, postural assessment, orthopedic assessment, palpation
52
You have now completed your assessment, which of the following steps is next:
Formulating clinical impression
53
Which one of the following degrees represents normal shoulder extension?
50-60 º
54
When practicing lymphatic drainage:
you should always start proximally and work distally, draining towards the proximal lymph nodes
55
A client who comes to you with a significant fever of 39°C, or 102°F would require what type of treatment?
No treatment at all, this is an absolute Contraindication
56
A trigger point that is found in a muscle that lies within the referral pattern of another trigger point is known as:
Satellite trigger point
57
Which of the following principles refers to the order in how you treat the various regions on the upper limb:
Proximal-distal-proximal
58
Which of the following is NOT a component of massage techniques:
pain
59
Which technique is considered the lightest technique used for massage:
Stroking
60
The golgi tendon organ detects:
tension on a tendon or muscle
61
Stimulation of the golgi tendon organs will cause a:
reflexive relaxation of the agonist muscle
62
When treating with lymphatic drainage techniques the following general rules are MOST applicable:
a slow rhythm of with a light pressure towards the proximal lymph nodes
63
Indications for the use of origin/insertion technique are:
hypertonic muscles
64
Which one of the following statements regarding adhesions and contractures is TRUE?
Unlike contractures, adhesions result from inflammation
65
Which of the following symptoms of Edema is TRUE?
Pain or a feeling of discomfort or fullness in affected body part
66
Golgi Tendon Organs are located in:
the musculotendinous junction
67
Muscle spindles are located in:
the belly of the muscle
68
Which one of the following techniques is useful when direct work to the muscle belly is too painful?
origin and insertion technique
69
Which one of the following statements regarding triggers point is TRUE?
Latent trigger points refer pain only on palpation
70
Which one of the following situation is not an indication for the use of GTO release?
hypotonicity
71
To perform muscle approximation, the therapist uses:
Uses a pincer grasp on muscle attachments and brings the ends towards each other
72
Performing specific massage manipulations on the hamstrings, prior to calf muscles, follows the principle of:
proximal – distal - proximal
73
To perform Origin and Insertion technique, the therapist:
Performs with fibre followed by cross fibre movements to the tendon of a muscle
74
Which one of the following statements regarding myofascial trigger points is TRUE?
They decrease strength of the muscle they are located in
75
Pain that is caused by a trigger point, but is felt a distance away from the trigger point is known as:
referred pain
76
Which one of the following is NOT considered a sign or symptom of a myofascial trigger point:
local edema
77
Which one of the following statements regarding treatment during the chronic stage of inflammation is TRUE?
Restore the range of motion
78
When treating an inflamed area, the massage therapist should not use?
effleurage distal to the swelling
79
Which one of the following techniques is inappropriate for treating trigger points?
frictions
80
Which one of the following conditions is most likely to occur if inflammation is not treated?
adhesions
81
Which one of the following receptors does the origin and insertion technique stimulate?
golgi tendon organs
82
Which one of the following techniques would NOT be used to help address acute inflammation?
Onsite petrissage
83
Determining the stage of an injury depends mainly on:
the number of inflammatory signs and symptoms present
84
A technique that involves contraction of the opposing muscle group is known as ___________.
agonist contraction
85
Which one of the following statements regarding passive stretching is TRUE?
Apply cold hydrotherapy after the stretch to minimize soreness.
86
Which one of the following remedial exercise techniques is indicated to lengthen a muscle that is too painful to be contracted?
agonist contraction
87
Which one of the following situations is NOT a contraindication to stretching techniques?
client has osteoporosis
88
Which one of the following sensory receptors controls the tone in a muscle?
muscle spindles
89
Which of the following stages of the stress-strain curve indicates the point at which even a decrease in tension will result in tissue rupture?
necking
90
While assessing someone who is experiencing stress, which observation is UNLIKELY to be seen?
Deep breaths from the belly
91
Your client has a painful hip joint. Which one of the following techniques is safe to use without further assessment?
grade I oscillations
92
Which one of the following statements regarding stretching and peripheral joint mobilizations is TRUE?
When the moving bone is concave the roll and the slide occur in the same direction.
93
Which one of the following statements describes the term creep as it relates to connective tissue and the stress-strain curve?
Creep refers to a tissues deformation as a result of long duration stress application
94
During which one of the following stages of the stress-strain curve does permanent tissue deformation occur?
plastic range
95
Stretching is absolutely contraindicated if the following condition or symptom is present:
sharp pain on joint movement
96
Which of the following is NOT a component of massage therapy techniques?
soothing
97
You are in clinic and the only table you can find is too short for you.Which one of the following is the best way to adjust to the low table?
bend your knees to lower your body
98
In which direction is pressure always directed when applying techniques on the limbs?
proximally
99
Which one of the following effects is NOT normally achieved by massage?
increase tone