treatments Flashcards
(146 cards)
1
Q
Which one of the following treatment goals is appropriate for a client with early stage Ankylosing Spondylitis?
A
Maintain thoracolumbar mobility
2
Q
What benefits is a patient with lupus likely to receive from massage?
A
massage treatments are effective in relieving joint pain which is a common symptom
3
Q
Ankylosing spondylitis leads to spinal fusion due to:
A
ossification of intervertebral discs and ligaments
4
Q
When rheumatoid arthritis occurs in the hands what deformity is most commonly seen?
A
ulnar deviation of the fingers and wrists
5
Q
During an acute flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis, the most appropriate and comfortable hydrotherapy will probably be:
A
submerge hands or feet in cool water
6
Q
Rheumatoid arthritis is best described as:
A
a chronic systemic inflammatory disease with acute flare-ups
7
Q
Which one of the following inflammatory arthritides begins in the sacroiliac region and is associated with “bamboo spine”?
A
Ankylosing Spondylitis
8
Q
Which one of the following conditions causes degenerative changes in the joint?
A
Rheumatoid arthritis
9
Q
Which one of the following statements regarding Fibromyalgia is TURE?
A
Symptoms can be triggered by stress, lack of sleep, and lack of exercise.
10
Q
Which one of the following anatomical structures is a “control site” (i.e. should not be tender) for Fibromyalgia tender point assessment?
A
Insertion of the deltoid
11
Q
Fibromyalgia is diagnosed/assessed by which one of the following methods:
A
By a collection of symptoms including specific tender points
12
Q
Which one of the following sets of symptoms is most typical of Fibromyalgia?
A
Headaches, skin sensitivities, fatigue, irritable bowel syndrome
13
Q
Severe headaches and personality changes are common symptoms of systemic lupus erythmatosus. The primary reason for this is
A
Because lupus often causes inflammation of the connective tissue in the central nervous system
14
Q
Which neurotransmitter is significantly decreased in a client with Parkinsons?
A
Dopamine
15
Q
Which statement regarding ankylosing sponylitits is false?
A
Often, an increase in chest expansion is observed
16
Q
Which one of the following is a cause of constipation?
A
Stress
17
Q
The pathway that fecal matter takes from the ileocecal valve to the sigmoid colon is:
A
ascending colon * hepatic flexure * transverse colon * splenic flexure * descending colon
18
Q
Which one of the following position is used when providing abdominal massage to a client with constipation?
A
Supine with pillow under the knees to cause hip flexion
19
Q
Which one of the following postural changes does NOT typically occur during pregnancy?
A
femoral internal rotation
20
Q
Which one of the following treatment techniques is inappropriate during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
A
Grade III sustained joint mobilization to hip joint
21
Q
Which one of the following signs and or symptoms is NOT usually associated with pregnancy in the first trimester?
A
Hyperlordosis
22
Q
Which one of the following hydrotherapy applications is appropriate for the treatment of a pregnant client?
A
Thermaphore over the upper back
23
Q
A client presents with a chronic frozen shoulder. She is currently experiencing an acute flare-up and taking anti-inflammatory medication. To treat the client, you apply
A
Grade I oscillations to the shoulder.
24
Q
Which one of the following is NOT a cause of Constipation?
A
strong abdominal muscles
25
Which one of the following statements regarding an abdominal treatment for a client with constipation is TRUE?
The treatment should begin with vibrations to the colon working from distal to proximal.
26
Which one of the following treatment approaches is appropriate when treating a client with frozen shoulder in the freezing stage?
Pendulum exercises
27
Which one of the following protocols is indicated when treating clients with a glenohumeral dislocation?
Avoid placing joints in the position in which they dislocated, until the chronic stage is reached.
28
Which one of the following muscles is susceptible to repetitive strain injury in a client with hyperkyphosis and protracted scapulae?
supraspinatus
29
Which of the following conditions always accompanies a shoulder dislocation?
Glenohumeral sprain
30
Which one of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is TRUE?
Anterior glenohumeral dislocation may be caused by being tackled from behind while throwing a ball.
31
Which one of the following statements regarding sprains and dislocations is TRUE?
Joints may be either hyper or hypomobile after suffering a sprain or dislocation.
32
With a right thoracic scoliosis, range of motion of the thorax is most limited in:
lateral flexion to the right
33
A scoliosis massage treatment includes massage to the:
concave side first to stretch, then convex side to stimulate the muscles
34
Which one of the following statements regarding the rotation of the spine that occurs with scoliosis is TRUE?
The vertebral bodies rotate towards the convexity.
35
In the classic hyperlordosis, there would be:
tight erector spinae and iliopsoas, weak abdominals and gluteus maximus
36
A functional scoliosis:
disappears when the client flexes forward
37
Frictions to the calcaneal attachment of the plantar fascia should be avoided when:
The clients is taking anti-inflammatory medication
38
Which one of the following remedial exercises is inappropriate for treatment of a client with chronic plantar fasciitis?
Ice to the dorsal surface of the foot
39
Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is TRUE?
The talar head is displaced medially and inferiorly from the navicular.
40
Which one of the following treatment protocols is appropriate for the treatment of acute plantar fasciitis?
Ice cube massage along the plantar fascia
41
Avulsion fracture is when a bone breaks:
because of a violent pull on the ligament or tendons
42
Which one of the following mechanisms of injury is likely to result in a Pott's fracture?
The client's foot is planted on the ground and a forceful eversion stress is applied to the ankle.
43
Which one of the following statements regarding tendinous injuries in TRUE?
Tendinitits is categorized into 4 grades based on the presentation of signs and symptoms.
44
Which one of the following ligaments may also be damaged when the lateral collateral ligament of the elbow is sprained?
Annular ligament
45
What other condition is not likely to be present in a client with pes planus?
Baker's cyst
46
Differentiating between a bursitis and a tendonitis involves which of the following?
A bursitis will have no increase in pain as the surrounding structures are exhibiting an increase in force due to contraction
47
Which one of the following is a not a contributing factor for patellar femoral syndrome?
Supinated feet
48
Which of the following best describes a compound fracture?
The bone is broken and has broken through the skin
49
____________ are the bone(s) associated with a Dupuytren's fracture.
Tibia, fibula, talus
50
Which one of the following is effective for stretching hypertonic muscles associated with pes planus?
Inversion
51
What is the most appropriate hydrotherapy for chronic plantar fasciitis?
Deep moist heat to the posterior leg
52
A Pott's fracture is usually further complicated by________?
Rupture of the deltoid ligament
53
Determining the stage of an injury depends mainly on:
the number of inflammatory signs and symptoms present
54
Typical signs and symptoms of acute inflammation are best described as:
swelling, rubor, pain, immobility, heat
55
Which one of the following forms of hydrotherapy is indicated on-site, during the sub-acute stage of injury?
contrast
56
Which one of the following conditions is most likely to occur if inflammation is not treated?
adhesions
57
In an acute sprain/strain, how would you prevent abnormal formation of scar tissue:
active free within pain free range
58
Which one of the following statements regarding treatment of a hamstring strain is TRUE?
Massage to the area distal to the affected muscle is contraindicated in the acute stage.
59
In which one of the following positions would a client with an acute iliopsoas strain likely present?
Weight on unaffected leg with affected hip in flexion, abduction and external rotation
60
A client comes to you with an acute wrist flexor strain that occurred yesterday. The area has significant ecchymosis but the client has no pain. He tells you there was a loud "pop" at the time of injury. Without further information what degree of strain do you think the client has?
third
61
Which one of the following assessment findings would you NOT expect if your client had a chronic rectus femoris strain?
decreased active free knee extension
62
You are treating a client for a hamstring strain. On which one of the following areas should you begin the treatment in order to adhere to the principles of massage?
Lumbar spine
63
A client tells you they hurt their leg a week ago. At the time of the injury they tell you they heard a snapping sound, there was immediate loss of strength, and they could see a depression in the tissue. Which one of the following problems do you think they have?
3rd degree strain
64
Which one of the following statements regarding frictions is TRUE?
Frictions, when applied properly, cause an inflammatory response.
65
Parkinsons affects which part of the brain?
Basal Ganglia
66
Which one of the following tissue presentations is likely to be seen in the acute stage of a strain?
hypertonicity
67
Which one of the following is not an effective technique for dealing with acute pain associated with an acute rectus femoris strain?
passive stretch
68
Which one of the following mechanisms of injury is likely to result in an iliopsoas strain?
Hyperextension of the hip
69
_________ would be the hydrotherapy modality of choice when treating the affected tissues of a client with chronic Dupuytren's contracture.
paraffin wax
70
Which one of the following statements regarding Dupuytren's contracture is TRUE?
It causes a flexion deformity of the ring and baby finger.
71
According to Technique Standard # 6, 'Perform a friction technique', which one of the following statements is FALSE?
Ice is applied to the friction site before applying a stretch.
72
A client comes to you with a severe wrist sprain suffered three days ago. Their antebrachial muscles are in spasm. Which one of the following aims is NOT appropriate for today's treatment?
eliminate the muscle spasm in the antebrachium
73
Which of the following techniques is inappropriate for trigger points:
frictions
74
You assessment reveals that your client has scar tissue. Which one of the following techniques is most effective in treating this problem?
Frictions
75
Which one of the following signs or symptoms is present during a muscle spasm?
Pain when muscle is stretched.
76
Which one of the following statements regarding 3rd degree burns is TRUE?
They affect the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.
77
Which one of the following is NOT a category of causes of burns?
Nuclear
78
Multiple Sclerosis is most commonly seen in:
Females 20-40 years old
79
Which of the following is true regarding an upper motor neuron lesion?
Symptoms include spasticity,hyperflexia and loss of voluntary movement
80
Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is considered to be a:
Upper motor neuron lesion
81
The pathology of multiple sclerosis is characterized by:
Patches of demyelination in the central nervous system
82
A cerebrovascular accident causing a lesion to the right side of the brain would result in:
Hemiplegia on the left side of the body
83
Cerebral Palsy (CP) is best described as:
A non-progressive disorder impairing voluntary movement
84
Full body relaxation massage to decrease resting tremors is indicated for the treatment of __________________.
Parkinson's
85
Which one of the following aims of treatment is appropriate for a client with cerebral palsy?
minimize contracture formation
86
With Multiple Sclerosis, progression of the disease:
is unpredictable over the course of a lifetime
87
The three defining characteristics of Parkinson's are:
difficult movement, resting tremors and muscular rigidity
88
Which one of the following characteristics describes a malignant neoplasm?
It invades the blood and lymph stream
89
Which of the following is a progressive CNS condition?
MS
90
Resting tremors are associated with which of the following?
Parkinsons
91
Intension tremors are associated with which of the following?
MS
92
Which one of the following is not associated with an extensor pattern of the lower body?
Abduction of the hip
93
Which one of the following is not associated with a flexor pattern of the lower body?
Hip internal rotation
94
Which of the following is the most common posture associated with hemiplegia?
Flexor pattern of the upper body, extensor pattern of the lower body
95
Where is edema commonly located in hemiplegic clients?
Ankles
96
Which of the following is not involved with sensory testing?
Myotomes
97
What muscle is being tested with Wrights hyperabduction
Pectoralis minor
98
What nerve is compressed during carpal tunnel syndrome
Median
99
In a prolapsed cervical disc, the pressure from the disc is usually against what structure?
posterior longitudinal ligament
100
A client with chronic posterolateral disc herniation at C4/C5 and resultant nerve root irritation, will have:
weakness of shoulder abduction.
101
Which one of the following statements regarding nerve injury/lesions is TRUE?
A disc herniation at C5-C6 may cause compression of the C6 nerve root.
102
Which one of the following types of disc herniations is most common?
Posterolateral
103
Which one of the following positions would relieve compression and decrease the pain associated with an acute L4/L5 facet irritation?
Flexion and contralateral side-bending
104
Which of the following may be a trigger for a client who has Raynauds Disease?
Exposure to cold
105
A lesion of Radial nerve will result in weakness of which muscle.
Triceps
106
What nerve is compromised when a client has wrist drop.
Radial nerve
107
Which assessment would differentiate pronator teres syndrome from carpal tunnel
Pronator Teres test
108
Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the tibial nerve.
Peroneous Longus
109
Which of the following muscles is not innervated by Common Peroneal Nerve.
Soleus
110
Which of the following assessments are used to determine regeneration of the ulnar nerve
Tinel Tap at the elbow
111
Bells Palsy caused by a lesion of which cranial nerve.
VII
112
Your client presents with sharp, shooting, searing pain, short and shallow breaths, along with pain in the area of the lateral axillary, sternum and spine. Which of the following conditions is your client experiencing?
Intercostal Neuralgia
113
This condition is the most common of these types of injuries due to traction of the upper brachial plexus, affecting the deltoid, Bicep and brachialis muscles:
Erbs- Duchenne
114
When treating a client with hypertension it is important to closely monitor them for warning signs of cardiac distress. Which of the following are included in these warning signs?
Heart rate of 100 BPM
115
The term defined as, heart pain due to reduced blood supply to the heart, is
Angina pectoris
116
Choose the most appropriate homecare for your client with hypertension
Mild aerobic activity
117
For a client suffering from chronic congestive heart failure, which of the following statements is true?
The safest way to treat the client is with lateral strokes
118
DVT is another name for
Thrombophlebitis
119
Which of the following is NOT contraindication for both thrombophlebitis and varicose veins?
Cool hydrotherapy to the legs
120
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a varicose vein?
Sharp intense bilateral leg pain
121
Which of the following occupations would you expect to find a higher rate of Raynaud's Disease?
Food prep workers
122
With regards to respiratory conditions, what does COPD stand for?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
123
All of the following are contraindications to chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma except
Postural drainage
124
The technique described as: middle finger placed flat on the back/chest within an intercostal space, then tap that finger with the opposite hands middle and index fingers to listen for difference in sounds is called
Mediate percussion
125
When performing postural drainage to a client with a COPD which of the following is the proper positioning for addressing the middle lobes?
Supine with ¼ turn superior, affected lobe superior
126
Why is a fascial steam prior to a Sinusitis effective?
loosens mucous as expectorant
127
Which one of the following maternal signs and or symptoms is typical of post-partum depression?
Anxiety about the future
128
A client presents with a chronic frozen shoulder. She is currently experiencing an acute flare-up and taking anti-inflammatory medication. To treat the client, you apply
grade I oscillations to the shoulder.
129
Which muscle of mastication depresses the temporomandibular joint?
Lateral pterygoid
130
Which of the following observations that you may see when assessing the breast, is an ominous sign?
Clear, grayish-green, bloody nipple discharge
131
Larger cervical muscle groups are shortened and fibrosed, longus colli is likely in chronic spasm and multifidi at C5 to C6 are in chronic spasm in an attempt to stabilize the lower cervical vertebrae. These are all signs & symptoms found in what condition?
Chronic whiplash
132
Which of the following conditions is a medical emergency in an acute flare-up?
Compartment Syndrome
133
Which one of the following areas do trigger points in the sub-occipital muscles typically refer pain?
From the occiput around the head to the orbit of the eye
134
Breast massage must always consider which of the following.
consent must be clearly stated and obtained prior to treatment
135
Which of the following is not a contraindication to breast massage?
the client will be having a mammogram within 24 hours of the treatment
136
During a hyperflexion injury of the C-spine where is the injury most likely to occur:
Posterior neck
137
After your initial assessment your client presents with a positive rebound test, your treatment plan should include which of the following:
refer client to an MD
138
Most common contributing factors of a client suffering with patellofemoral syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
Vastus Medialis weakness
139
Frank comes to you for treatment. He has been diagnosed with AIDS for 6 years. He has no open cuts or lesions, no fever or other serious symptoms. What is your treatment plan for Frank?
Treat the client as any other client but ensure you do not over-treat him
140
Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate for a client who has suffered an incomplete L2 spinal cord injury?
Cool wash, running vibrations and isometric strengthening of knee extensors
141
How long after radiation treatment is the use of creams and lotions contraindicated?
Up to 4 weeks
142
Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer?
Massage therapy
143
Josie finished chemotherapy 6 weeks ago for treatment of her breast cancer. She is currently in remission but is still experiencing extreme fatigue. Which technique should you NOT use in her massage therapy treatment?
Cross fibre frictions
144
Which of the following is NOT an effect of chemotherapy/radiation:
Ridged/spastic tissue
145
Non paralytic polio presents with:
Flu like symptoms
146
A complete loss of function of the diaphragm occurs with a spinal cord injury:
Above C3
