Pathology Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following defines Pathology?
A
It is the science of disease
2
Q
What is the process called when the body works to maintain a steady state?
A
Homeostasis
3
Q
Which term is defined as the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed?
A
Pathogenesis
4
Q
Pathogenesis
A
Apotosis
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six aspects of the disease process?
A
Etiology
Pathogenesis
Diagnosis
None of the above**
6
Q
Cells constantly adapt to changes in the body’s internal environment. Based on these internal demands, body cells are able to change in size, number, and form. Which of the following terms defines cellular adaption in number quantity?
A
Hyperplasia
7
Q
A disease that is not clinically evident but is destined to progress to clinical disease is in:
A
Preclinical stage
8
Q
Which of the following is the process that indicates that a cell has died?
A
Necrosis
9
Q
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?
A
Hypoplasia
10
Q
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a muscle increasing in size due to an increase in cell size?
A
Hypertrophy
11
Q
During hemostasis what stage involves both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?
A
Blood coagulation
12
Q
Which suffix is used to indicate inflammation of a structure?
A
itis
13
Q
Which of the following is TRUE for acute inflammation?
A
It is hemodynamic
14
Q
Which of the following is considered to be one of the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?
A
Rubor
Dolor
Calor
Correct Answer
All of the above
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
A
Rapid onset
16
Q
Which of the following white blood cells is usually the first to arrive at a site of inflammation?
A
Neutrophils
17
Q
Which of the following is the process of a lymphocyte engulfing and digesting a foreign microbe?
A
Phagocytosis
18
Q
Which term identifies the attraction of WBC’s toward a microbe?
A
emigration
19
Q
Which of the following white blood cells participate in phagocytosis?
A
Basophils & neutrophils
20
Q
During the vascular stage of inflammation, both vasoconstriction and vasodilation of blood vessels. Which process occurs first?
A
Vasoconstriction
21
Q
What is the function of histamine during the inflammatory response?
A
To vasodilate capillaries
22
Q
Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?
A
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
23
Q
Which of the following tissue types is able to response to injury and undergo tissue regeneration?
A
Parenchymal Tissue
24
Q
Which type of body cells normally stops dividing when growth ceases?
A
Stable
25
What causes a wound to heal with an excessively large scar?
The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other
26
Which of the following indicates that Healing by Primary Intention will occur?
There is little or no tissue loss
27
Which one of the following phases of wound healing accounts for the building of new tissues and the formation of granulation tissue?
Proliferative Phase
28
Which one of the following statements regarding infectious disease is FALSE?
It is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine
29
Which of the following contain DNA as a genome?
bacteria, fungi & viruses
30
Which one of the following terms describes an infection when only the infecting organism benefits from the relationship?
Parasitism
31
Which one of the following terms describes an infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?
Mutualistic flora
32
Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
33
Which of the following structures lack an organized nucleus?
Bacteria
34
Which of the following is considered to be the smallest pathogen and incapable of replication outside of a living cell?
Viruses
35
Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?
Bacteria
36
Which one of the following terms describes the spread of disease across continents with the potential to affect the entire world?
Pandemic
37
Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Incubation period during the course of an infectious disease?
Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms
38
Which one of the following terms regarding the course of a disease is characterized by containment of the infection, repair of damaged tissue, and progressive elimination of the pathogen?
Convalescent period
39
A symptom of an infectious disease that reflects the site of infection is called:
specific
40
When infectious diseases are developed in hospitals, it is called:
Nosomial
41
Which one of the following processes identifies why patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms?
The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation
42
Which one of the following locations is the most likely source of a pulmonary embolism?
Deep Vein in the legs
43
Which one of the following diseases causes severe chronic fluid secretion in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive systems in children?
Cystic Fibrosis
44
Which one of the following conditions is caused by a loss of elasticity to lung tissue, abnormal enlargement of the air spaces with destruction of the alveoli?
Emphysema
45
Which one of the following diseases is a permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on neighboring bronchi?
Bronchiectasis
46
Which one of the following adaptive mechanisms does NOT occur during chronic inflammation in the respiratory system?
It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage
47
Which one of the following conditions is defined as: incomplete expansion of the lung?
Atelectasis
48
Which one of the following anatomical changes is found with the disease Emphysema?
SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs
49
Which one of the following lists of manifestations occurs with an asthma attack?
Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling
50
Which one of the following processes is unique to the condition Bronchitis?
Inflammation of one or more bronchioles
51
Which one of the following phrases describes a pneumothorax?
Air entering the pleural cavity
52
Which one of the following statements identifies the etiology of Pneumoconioses?
There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos
53
Which one of the following statements describes the etiology of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse
54
Which one of the following pathologies develops from incompetent valves then venous stasis, congestion, edema and finally thrombosis formation?
Varicose Veins
55
Which one of the following descriptions identifies Petechia?
Pinpoint hemorrhage
56
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Anticoagulants
57
Which one of the following deficiencies occurs in neutropenia?
A deficiency of white blood cells
58
Which one of the following conditions is suspected if a person has a Reed Sternberg cells present in their blood stream and tumors of the lymphatic tissue?
Hodgkin's Disease
59
Which one of the following increases the risk for contracting Tuberculosis infections?
HIV infection
60
Which one of the following congenital cardiac defect is known as a "hole in the heart"?
Atrial Septal Defect
61
Which one of the following descriptions identifies Angina Pectoris?
Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia
62
Which one of the following conditions is defined as: a failure of the heart to pump blood efficiently resulting in a build up of fluid in the bodies' tissues?
Congestive heart failure
63
Which one of the following conditions is described as: ischemic death of myocardial tissue due to atherosclerotic disease of the coronary arteries?
Myocardial infarction
64
Which one of the following processes is NOT a complication of shock?
Immune reaction
65
Which one of the following terms defines a gene pair; one from the mother and one from the father?
Alleles
66
Which one of the following terms describes a biochemical event such as a deletion that produces new alleles?
Gene Mutation
67
Which one of the following genes is responsible for a sex-linked disorder?
The 'X' chromosome
68
Which one of the following diseases is X-linked Recessive?
Fragile X syndrome
69
In which one of the following situations will a child express an Autosomal Recessive Disorder?
If both parents are carriers of the gene
70
Which one of the following genetic disease results from a connective tissue disorder causing elongated limbs, fingers hyperflexion of the joints and heart conditions?
Marfan's Syndrome
71
Which Chromosomal Disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 resulting in altered facial features, mental retardation and lax joints?
Down Syndrome
72
Which one of the following statements describes a Teratogenic agent?
An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development.
73
Which one of the following diseases manifests from pregnant mothers drinking alcohol?
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
74
Which one of the following vitamins do pregnant women take prior to and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube disorders?
Folic acid
75
Which one of the following statements describes angiogenesis?
Growth of blood vessels
76
Which one of the following terms is defined as a swelling due to inflammation or trauma?
Tumor
77
When naming a tumor, what is the suffix added to the tissue type?
– oma
78
Which one of the following types of tumor grows in a capsule and can compress nearby structures?
Benign Tumors
79
Which one of the following tumors grows using invasive crab like extensions into neighbouring tissue?
Adenocarcinoma
80
Which one of the following terms describes a chemical agent that is capable of causing cancer in the body?
Carcinogen
81
Which one of the following events must occur for any tumor to enlarge and its cells to spread?
Angiogenesis in the tumor
82
Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer?
Application of massage therapy
83
Which one of the following as a symptom of bone cancer?
Worsening pain at night in the affected area
84
What type of tumor is present if the symptoms include no pain, no palpable mass and an unexplained bone fracture?
Benign bone tumor
85
What is Metastatic Bone Disease?
Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate
86
During the aging process, which one of the following event describes electrons being 'stolen' from proteins and lipids?
Free radical formation
87
What theory holds that aging is a result of accumulated random events or damage from environmental agents?
Stochastic theory
88
Which one of the following events does NOT occur in aging muscles?
Increased reflexes
89
Which one of the following changes in physiology will occur when joints age?
Loss of flexibility and ligament length
90
What is esophagitis?
Inflammation of the esophagus
91
Which of the following are complications of chronic gastroesophageal reflux?
Anemia & fibrous restrictions
92
Which one of the following forms of Diabetes is caused by the catabolism of pancreatic beta cells resulting in the complete loss of insulin production?
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
93
Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT?
They are found most often in the duodenum.
94
Which one of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that only affects the mucosa and submucosa of the colon & rectum?
Ulcerative colitis
95
Which one of the following is associated with Crohn's disease?
Inflammation of the distal ileum
96
Which one of the following diseases causes a client to suffer from abdominal cramping alternating constipation and diarrhea?
Irritable bowel syndrome
97
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?
Lower left quadrant pain
98
Which of the following describes cirrhosis?
Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver
99
What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?
Jaundice
100
Which Viral Hepatitis strain is highly contagious?
Hepatitis A
101
Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones?
Choledocholithiasis
102
Which of the following occur due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?
Portal hypertension
103
Which of the following is an 'end stage' complication in cirrhosis?
Portal hypertension
104
Which of the following complications is associated with Portal Hypertension?
Varicose veins
105
Which one of the following terms indicates sensory impairment?
Paresthesia
106
Which one of the following symptoms is NOT found below the level of a spinal cord injury?
Loss of vascular supply
107
Which one of the following factors will NOT affect the regeneration of a nerve?
The presence of neuritis
108
Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms include: altered sensation on the lateral and anterior surface of the lower leg, arch of the foot and web between the great and second toes?
Peroneal nerve
109
Which one of the following conditions has occurred with an inability to close the right eye, ability to open the right eye, flaccid paralysis of the muscles on the right side of the face including the forehead, eye, cheek and mouth with normal function below the head?
Bell's Palsy
110
Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to the compression of the brachial plexus and its accompanying artery in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
Sternocleidomastoid
111
Which one of the following statements is NOT a cause of Piriformis Syndrome?
A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles
112
Which one of the following injuries occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion?
Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema
113
Which one of the following changes describes the cause of spasticity in CNS conditions?
Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons
114
Which one of the following pathological changes is the etiology for ALS?
Motor neuron degeneration
115
Which one of the following phrases defines a Brain Attack (Stroke)?
Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder
116
Which one of the following infections is self-limiting, mild and occurs in the meninges of the brain?
Viral meningitis
117
Which one of the following forms of dementia results from chronic alcoholism?
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
118
Which one of the following types of pain is due to inflammation of a spinal nerve root?
Radicular pain
119
Which one of the following conditions is a compression mononeuropathy of the median nerve?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
120
Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms of foot drop occur?
Deep peroneal nerve
121
Which one of the following nerves has been compressed if the symptoms of "ape hand deformity" occur?
Median nerve
122
Which one of the following conditions manifests as: edema in the lower arm, dystrophic flexor muscles, and spontaneous burning pain with movement of the hand after a shoulder joint injury was immobilized?
Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
123
Which one of the following symptoms is unique to bipolar depression?
Mania
124
Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by repetitive thoughts and acts?
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
125
Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by numerous physiological changes such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath?
Panic disorder
126
Which one of the following types of dementia is inherited and manifests as: chronic progressive chorea, psychological changes and dementia?
Huntington's disease
127
Which one of the following statements regarding Pain is FALSE?
The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people
128
Which one of the following types of pain occurs with direct damage to a nerve?
Neuropathic pain
129
Which one of the following areas of the brain generates the emotional experience of pain?
Limbic System
130
Which one of the following theories of pain states that there are neural mechanisms at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information to the brain?
Gate control theory
131
Which one of the following terms identifies the maximum intensity or duration of pain a person can accept as a result of psychological, cultural, familial, and environmental influences?
Pain Tolerance
132
Which one of the following terms is defined as: an absence of pain?
Analgesia
133
Which one of the following statements regarding Phantom Limb Pain is FALSE?
There is no treatment for phantom limb pain
134
Which one of the following statements regarding pain in children is FALSE?
Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain
135
Which one of the following types of headaches can present with an aura?
Migraine headaches
136
Which one of the following types of headaches is described as a neurovascular headache, with severe one-sided unrelenting pain that comes on rapidly, builds in intensity for up to 15 minutes lasting up to 3 hours?
Cluster headaches
137
Which one of the following types of headaches are said to be more responsive to treatment using massage therapy, acupuncture, relaxation and imagery than pharmacological treatment?
Tension headaches
138
Which one of the following spinal segments bears the most pathological forces leading to disc injury and herniation?
Lower lumbar spine
139
Which one of the following groups lists all the "cardinal signs" of inflammation?
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
140
Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?
Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
141
Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
142
Which one of the following cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?
Labile cells
143
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
144
Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?
Muscular Dystrophy
145
Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?
Laceration
146
Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?
Loose body
147
Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?
Commensal flora
148
Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
149
Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?
Epidemic
150
Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?
Osteoma
151
Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?
Tuberculosis
152
Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?
Osteonecrosis
153
Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Articular cartilage
154
Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.
155
Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?
Chondrocytes
156
Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?
Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage
157
Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?
Surface cracks in the cartilage
158
Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?
Osteophytes
159
Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
160
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
161
Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
162
Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?
Sacroiliac
163
Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
164
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
165
Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
166
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?
The formation of Tophi
167
Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?
Kidneys
168
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
169
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
170
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
171
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
172
Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?
Osteoarthritis
173
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
174
Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
175
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?
Gout
176
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?
Psoriatic Arthritis
177
Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
178
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
179
Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
180
Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
181
Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
182
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?
Bouchard's nodes
183
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?
Bowed legs
184
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?
Flat foot
185
In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?
Tailor position
186
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?
Knock-knee
187
Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?
Lax medial collateral ligaments
188
Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
189
Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
190
Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?
Femoral anteversion
191
Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
192
Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
193
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
194
Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
195
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
196
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
197
Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
198
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
199
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
200
Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?
Phosphate levels
