NBS Microbiology- Immunology Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in NBS Microbiology- Immunology Deck (99):
1

Which of the following is a phagocytic cell of the immune system?
A. Basophil
B. Mast cell
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophil

Neutrophil

* 3 main phagocytic cells are monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils

2

Which cells would degranulate in response to an allergy?
A. Basophil
B. Mast cell
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophil

mast cells

3

Which cell acts as a antigen presenting cell to T cells?
A. Basophil
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. IL-6

Macrophage

4

Which of the following can inactivate the pathogen?
A. Macrophage
B. Neutrophil
C. NK cell
D. Basophil

NK cell

5

How many types of T cells are there?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2

3

6

Which of the following triggers target cells to commit suicide?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. Macrophages

Killer T cells

7

This deals with antigen recognition and regulation; it also secretes a protein molecule (cytokine)?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell

Helper T cell

8

Histocompatibility complex protein 1 would be scanned for what is inside by ________?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell

Killer T cell

9

Histocompatibility complex protein 2 would be scanned for whats on the outside by_______?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell

Helper T cells

10

An Antibody binds to the part of the antigen called the ________?
A. Fragment
B. Complex zone
C. Epitope
D. Cytokine

Epitope

11

Which cells would produce cytokines and help to activate Helper T and Cytotoxic T cells?
A. Dendritic cell
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. Mast cells

Macrophage

12

Which of the following presents the antigen for T cells to see?
A. Mast cell
B. IgE
C. Neutrophil
D. Histocompatibility complex protein

Histocompatibility complex protein

13

T/F: An Antibody killed the antigen

False
it simply tags it for death aka the kiss of death

14

How many proteins are a part of the complement system?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 21
D. 25

20

15

Where are the proteins of the complement system made?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Adrenal Gland
D. Heart

Liver

16

T/F: The complement system is slow

False
its super duper fast

17

Which of the following is antibody independent?
A. Lectin activation pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Alternative pathway
D. Type 1 hypersensitivity

Alternative pathway

18

During the lectin activation pathway _______binds to lectin and lectin binds to ________ on the pathogen.
A. Maltose, Lipid molecule
B. Maltose, Carbohydrate molecule
C. Mannose, Carbohydrate molecule
D. Glucose, Carbohydrate molecule

C
mannose, Carb molecule on pathogen

19

Which of the following depends on an antibody for activation?
A. Lectin activation pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Alternative pathway
D. Type 2 hypersensitivity

Classical pathway

20

If you were dealing with the process of neutralizing antibodies, you most likely are:
A. reducing the antigen
B. oxidizing the antigen
C. killing the antigen
D. eating the antigen

oxidizing the antigen

this is your prepare to EAT stage

21

The lectin activation pathway triggers inflammation after binding to the carbohydrate molecule on the antigen. This chemotactically attracts _______ to infection.
A. Helper T cells
B. mast cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Basophils

Phagocytes

22

The lectin pathway signals B-lymphocytes causing lysis of gram ________ bacteria and foreign epitopes.
A. Negative
B. Positive

Negative

23

Which type of hypersensitivity would be antibody mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2

Type 2

I AM IT

24

IgE would be the main responding antibody to which of the following hypersensitivities?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2

Type 1

Type 4 also but not as prevalent, bc type 4 is delayed

25

Type 2 Hypersensitivity would be associated with:
A. IgA and IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE and IgA
D. IgG and IgM

D
IgG and IgM

26

Type 3 Hypersensitivity would be associated with:
A. IgA and IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE and IgA
D. IgG and IgM

IgG

27

Which hypersensitivity would you find myanstania gravis and pernicious anemia occurring?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2

Type 2

28

Which hypersensitivity would involve a rejection of a tissue graft?
A. Type 2
B. Type 4
C. Type 3
D. Type 1

Type 4

it may take a while (delayed) to reject it

29

Which hypersensitivity is immune complex mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2

Type 3

30

Which hypersensitivity would be T cell mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2

Type 4

31

If your child was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus you would expect which of the following:
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity

Immune complex hypersensitivity

aka Type 3

32

You have a patient come in with rheumatoid arthritis, this is an example of:
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity

Immune Complex hypersensitivity

aka Type 3

33

Basophils and mast cells can be associated with:
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity

immediate hypersensitivity

type 1

34

Which of the following could be associated with Immune Complex hypersensitivity?
A. Dermatitis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Blood group incompatibility
D. Rheumatic fever

Rheumatic fever

35

SARS had an outbreak in what country in 2002?
A. Chile
B. United States
C. Africa
D. Chine

China

36

The Avian flu (bird flu) broke out in ASIA in what year?
A. 2003
B. 2004
C. 2000
D. 2001

2003

37

As of 2013, which of the following was named the most common foodborne disease?
A. Hantavirus
B. Tuberculosis
C. Norovirus
D. West Nile virus

Norovirus

38

As of 2013, what is the 2nd most common foodborne disease?
A. Salmonella
B. Rotavirus
C. Norovirus
D. Pertusis

Samonella

39

_________ is caused by proteins from mold or plant spores.
A. Asthma
B. SLE
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Hay fever

Hay fever

40

Allergic individuals who produce more IgE antibodies are referred to as:
A. Atopic
B. Ectopic
C. Mellitus
D. Recipients

Atopic

41

What is caused by dust mites, cockroaches, rodents and household pets?
A. Asthma
B. Myasthenia Gravis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Hay fever

Asthma

42

Which of the following would attach to IgE antibodies?
A. Dendritic cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Monocytes

Basophils

43

These are involved with chronic allergic responses:
A. Mast cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Monocytes

Eosinophils

44

How long will IgE live in the blood?
A. several weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 day
D. 1 year

1 day

45

How long wtih IgE live after it has been attaching to a Mast cell?
A. several weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 day
D. 1 year

several weeks

46

T/F: Being more susceptible to allergies can be hereditary

True

47

Which autoimmune disease would involve the myoneural junction causing double vision or a face drooping appearance?
A. SLE
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
D. Myasthenia gravis

D
Myasthenia Gravis

48

Myasthenia gravis deals with self-reactive antibodies that bind to receptors for _________?
A. Sodium
B. Ca++
C. Acetylcholine
D. Potassium

Acetylchloine

49

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Canale- Smith Syndrome
E. Myasthenia Gravis

DiGeorge syndrome

*its an immunodeficiency

50

Which antibodies are most commonly found with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. IgE and IgA
B. IgA and IgG
C. IgM and IgG
D. IgA and IgM

IgM and IgG

51

What do the antibodies in rheumatoid arthritis activate?

Macrophages

52

Which of the following best describes Canale-smith syndrome:
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

C

Canale- Smith lymph is swollll

53

Which of the following best describes Multiple Sclerosis:
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

B
Destruction of the myelin sheath

54

Which of the following best describes Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

D
Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis and kidney damage

55

Red facial rash or a malar butterfly rash is seen with which disease?
A. Rhematoid Arthritis
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Myasthenia Gravis

C
SLE

56

This disease is caused by the breakdown of B and T cells that make IgG antibodies?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Canale- Smith Syndrome
D. Myasthenia Gravis

A
SLE

57

Multiple Scleosis effects primarily the ________?
A. CNS
B. PNS

CNS

58

This disease deals with self active T cells that can cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Myasthenia Gravis

Multiple Sclerosis

59

Which disease is more prevalent in women and can result in hair loss, paralysis and convulsions?
A. Rhematoid Arthritis
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Myasthenia Gravis

C
SLE

60

Which disease deals with absent or severely reduced Thymic tissue and NO t cells?
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Karposi Sarcoma

DiGeorge Syndrome

61

You are born with no B or T cells. wWhat would you have?
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Karposi Sarcoma

B
Severe combines immunodeficiency syndrome

*REALLY BAD

62

Kaposi Sarcoma is associated with:
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. SLE

AIDS

63

Which causative agent is associated with AID and HIV?
A. Pneumocystic Carnii
B. Polio virus
C. Norovirus
D. Coxsackie virus

A
Pneumocystic Carnii

64

This is an example of a live attenuated virus?
A. Salk
B. Sabin

Sabin

65

Salk treated polio virus with formaldehyde to ______ the virus.
A. Enchance
B. Kill

Kill

salK - Kills

66

AIDS is caused by:
A. HIV-3
B. HPV-1
C. HIV-2
D HIV-1

D
HIV-1

67

Noninfectious vaccines help to generate all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Memory B cells
B. Memory T helper cells
C. Memory T killer cells

Memory T Killer

68

What type of vaccine uses a weakened form of the microbe?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine

Attenuated Vaccine

69

Attenuated vaccines help to generate which of the following?
A. Memory B cells
B. Memory T helper cells
C. Memory T killer cells

Memory T killer

70

The vaccine for rubella, mumps, and measles is an example of:
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine

Attenuated Vaccine

71

This type of vaccine is genetically engineered and introduces a single gene from pathogenic microbe into a virus?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine

Carrier Virus

72

T/F: Does a carrier vaccine cause disease

False

73

What type of vaccine is referred to as "the trojan horse"?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine

Carrier vaccine

74

Injecting a flu virus gene would describe which vaccine?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine

DNA Vaccine

75

This type of immunity is either attenuated or killed?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

Active immunity

76

The type of immunity would occur naturally and can be found in mothers milk or via administered preformed antibodies in immune globulins?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

Passive immunity is natural

77

Both immuno globulins (aka immunoglobulins, gamma globulins) & vaccines are associated with which type of immunity?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

Passive-Active

78

Immunodiffusion testing is also called:
A. Immunoelectrophoresis
B. Ouchterlony test
C. Agglutination
D. Complement fixation test

B
Ouchterolony test

79

This type of testing separates the molecule in order to look for a particular class of antibodies?
A. Immunoelectrophoresis
B. Ouchterlony test
C. Agglutination
D. Complement fixation test

A
Immunoelectrophoresis

80

Multiple myeloma, AIDS and lyme disease (borrelia burgdorferi) can be detected using which type of test?
A. Complement Fixation test
B. ELISA
C. Western Blot
D. Immunoelectrophoresis

D
Immunoelectrophoresis

81

Which of the following would involve antigen-antibody mixed, insoluble, huge complex formed?
A. Precipitates
B. Immunodiffusion
C. Agglutination
D. ELISA

Precipitates

82

This Test is used for influenze and mononucleosis, it clumps red blood cells and is NOT an antibody-antigen reaction:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Viral Hemagglutination test
D. Viral Neutralizaton

C
Viral Hemaggulination test

83

This test uses a dye an is commonly used to detect syphillis and mycobacterium TB:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test

D
Fluorescent Antibody test

84

Western blot (aka imunnoblot) verifies the presence of antibodies against ________.
A. Fungal Antigens
B. HIV
C. Red Blood cells
D. Influenze

HIV

85

What Color will gram positive bacteria stain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue

purple

86

This test detects the presence of specific antibodies in serum:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test

C
Complement Fixation test

87

T/F: Rapid ELISAs are immunofiltration assays

True

88

Which of the following is actually an example of an electrophoresis test?
A. ELISA
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Western Blot
D. Viral Neutralization

C
Western Blot

89

This is used in pregnancy testing and blood typing?
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test

A
Agglutination

90

When assessing things like meningitis, gonorrhea, salmonellosis, brucellosis and thyphoid fever you would be using which of the following:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test

A
Agglutination

91

Which color would be seen in a counterstain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue

Safranin

92

Which color would Gram negative stain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue

Red

93

What type of rinse would be used as a decolorizer?

alcohol rinse

94

QUIZ: What would present antigen to T cell.....

Macrophage

95

QUIZ: Analphylaxis is seen in what hypersensitivity?

Type 1- immediate

96

QUIZ: You would find infections and dermatitis in which hypersensitivity?

Type 4- delayed (T cell mediated)

97

QUIZ: What type of cells inactive pathogens?

NK cells

98

QUIZ: This is the part of the antigen that the immune system recognizes...

Epitope

99

What is nike's logo?

Just do it