No Answers (Now with Answers!) Flashcards Preview

[Ther 201] E2 > No Answers (Now with Answers!) > Flashcards

Flashcards in No Answers (Now with Answers!) Deck (30)
Loading flashcards...
1

Activation of which of the following adrenoceptors inhibits adenyl cyclase causing a decrease in cAMP

a. beta-1
b. alpha-1
c. alpha-2
d. D1

C

2

Increased cardiac contractility, decreased peripheral vascular resistance, increased pacemaker activity are all actions of

a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. High-dose epinephrine

C

3

Which of the following depends on normal stores of catecholamines for its sympathomimetic action

a. Phenylephrine
b. Clonidine
c. Amphetamine
d. Terbutaline

C

4

Which of the following drugs will decrease heart rate in a normal heart but has little or no effect in a denervated heart

a. phenylephrine
b. isoproterenol
c. dobutamine
d. epinephrine

B

5

Beta-receptor activation will produce which of the following metabolic effects

a. increased fat stores
b. increased extracellular potassium
c. increased glycogen stores
d. increased renin secretion

D

6

Which of the following is a selective adrenoceptor agonist

a. ephedrine
b. oxymetazoline
d. dobutamine
d. epinephrine

D

7

TRUE of Beta-blockers

a. most beta blockers are also partial agonists
b. beta blockers may be selective to either beta-1 or beta-2 receptors
c. beta blockers exhibit a class effect and are therefore interchangeable
d. beta-selectivity is relative and higher doses will block both beta-receptors

D

8

True of Prozosin

a. It is an irreversible alpha-1 antagonist
b. Has 50% bioavailability
c. Used for hypertension and urinary incontinence
d. take effect in 3 hrs

C

9

Clinical uses of beta-adrenoceptor antagonists include

a. hypertension
b. ischemic heart disease
c. supraventricular tachycardia
d. heart failure
e. AOTA

E

10

A vasoactive compound known to be the most potent vasoconstrictor

A) angiotensin I
B) angiotensin II
C) Leukotriene
D) Bradykinin

A

11

Most drugs taken by pregnant women are capable of crossing the placenta and reach the developing fetus. The placenta itself can aid in the protection of the fetus from excessive exposure to drugs in the
maternal circulation by:

A. Impairing diffusion of lipid soluble drugs
B. Preventing passage of drugs having molecular weight under 250
C. Playing a role as a site of drug metabolism
D. Secreting drugs from the fetal circulation to the maternal circulation

C

12

Which is the correct pair of prostaglandin to its function

A. PGE1 analog – gastric cytoprotection
B. PGE2 –migraine and major depression
C. PGI2 – renal arteriolar vasodilation
D. PGE2 alpha – alopecia

A

13

The following are true of succinylcholine sensitivity:

A. A patient who receives a neuromuscular blocking agent like succinylcholine takes a longer recovery of respiratory function
B. It is due to pseudocholinesterase deficiency.
C. Anaesthetic agents given to patients will produce high grade fever and rigidity
D. AOTA
E. A and B only

D

14

Which is true of Pharmacogenetics?

A. Ethical and legal issues of accessibility of information of insurer
B. Smoking addiction has genetic predisposition
C. G6PD deficiency can be detected by newborn screening
D. CYP2D6 polymorphism will affect drug interaction
E. AOTA

E

15

Noxious and unintended reaction, causality not determined

A. Adverse drug reaction
B. Adverse drug event

B

16

ADRs are hard to identify on patients with comorbidities due to the following:

A. Drug-drug interaction
B. Drug-disease interaction
C. AOTA

C

17

The following should be avoided in patients with liver diseases since it could cause bleeding:

A. Barbiturates
B. Isoniazid
C. Dobutamine
D. Short-acting benzodiazepines

B

18

Steven Johnson’s/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis:

A. IgE
B. Type III
C. Transmembrane protein associated with TNF
D. NOTA

C

19

Example of toxic action affecting cellular dysregulation is:

A. Impairment of ATP synthesis
B. Impairment of gene expression
C. Impairment of membrane function
D. Impairment of specialized organ function

D

20

Toxicant action in cellular maintenance:

A. Oxidative stress
B. Enzyme inhibition
C. Stimulation of toxicant-neurotransmitter interaction
D. Improvement of gene expression

A

21

Factors affecting kinetic processes are the following:

A. ↑ Toxic = ↓ Absorption rate
B. Toxic agents are distributed in areas of ↓ perfusion
C. Toxic agents can’t penetrate due to BBB
D. AOTA

C

22

Protective mechanism involving distribution that the body utilizes to prevent toxic effects:

A. First pass effect
B. Binding to plasma protein
C. Detoxification
D. AOTA

D

23

The type/s of pharmaceutical interaction/s:

A. IV incompatibilities
B. Excipient-active drug
C. Drug-container interaction
D. AOTA

D

24

The following statement/s is/are true about physiologic pharmacodynamics drug interactions:

A. They are true agonist-antagonist interactions.
B. They are indirect pharmacodynamics interactions.
C. They are interactions due to different mechanisms acting in concert or in opposition.
D. AOTA

D

25

Which of the following NT activates only G protein-coupled receptors?

A. GABA
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Serotonin

A

26

Atropine effect except:

A. Cycloplegia
B. Dry mouth
C. Hypotension
D. Mydriasis

C

27

Which of the following is an effect of autonomic ganglion blocker?

A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in bronchial secretions
C. Postural hyportension
D. Tachycardia

C

28

The normal physiologic process concerning steroid secretion which we attempt to mimic when giving exogenous steroids:

A. Peak ACTH at 8 AM
B. Peak cortisol levels at 8 PM
C. Peak mineralocorticoid secretion at 8 AM
D. Cortisol levels are lowest at midnight

D

29

Which of the following is an example of a non-selective 5HT receptor agonist originally for migraine headaches but has many side effects, such as paresthesia, nausea, vomiting disturbances, and muscle weakness?

A. Buspirone
B. Trazodone
C. Ergotamine
D. Ketanserin

C

30

Which of the following agents acting on the autonomic ganglia is used clinically to treat hypertension?

A. Trimethaphan
B. Hexamethonium
C. Epibatidine
D. Lobeline

A, B