ob-gyn Flashcards

(115 cards)

1
Q

most common uterine cancer

A

adenocarinoma

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2
Q

risk factor for uterine neoplasm?

A

estrogen

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3
Q

uterine cancer has similar risk to what other type of CA

A

breast

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4
Q

Endometriosis define

A

uterine tissue outside of the uterus

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5
Q

Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding treatment

A

OCPs or hormonal therapy (Progesterone) to regulate/shorten cycle
○ NSAIDs for dysmenorrhea & reduce bleeding
decreases despite small relative platelet dysfunction)
○ Surgical ligation or embolization of uterine arteries, D&E, hysterectomy

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6
Q

most common site for endometriosis

A

most common site of implantation is peritoneal

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7
Q

how to dx endometriosis

A

laproscopy

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8
Q

tx for endometriosis

A

hormone replaced / OCP

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9
Q

symptoms of endometriosis

A

cyclic cramping and heavy bleeding during peroids

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10
Q

Leiomyomata

A

benign uterine fibroid

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11
Q

leiomyosarcoma

A

cancerous uterine fibroid

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12
Q

how are leiomyomata (uterine fibroids) dx

A

US

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13
Q

tx of uterine fibroids

A

depends on what location:hormonal control (symptomatic relief), ablation/ligation/embolization of uterine
arteries, hysterectomy

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14
Q

Why are Patty & Selma, Bart Simpson’s aunts at risk for endometrial cancer?

A

given their obesity, diabetes, hypertension, and alcohol consumption. Both had periods at 9 years old, never had children, suffered from infertility and PCOS. both had breast cancer and took Tamoxifen

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15
Q

what increases the risk of ovarian torsion

A

cysts >5cm are at increased risk of torsion, may check flow with doppler, fertile patient dealt with Emergent. pain meds should be offered

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16
Q

benign bleeders (another name for?)

A

leiomyomata

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17
Q

normal cycling cyst

A

follicular 2.5cm

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18
Q

chocolate cyst

A

Corpus Luteum: associated with pregnancy

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19
Q

Thecal cyst

A

often bilateral, result from excess hCG secretion in molar and multi gestation pregnancy

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20
Q

risk of ovarian cancer

A

ovulation

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21
Q

ovarian cancer is associated with what syndromes

A

BRCA mutations & Lynch

Syndrome/HNPCC

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22
Q

what is C125 used for

A

ovarian cancer

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23
Q

is bleeding common in ovarian cancer?

A

no

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24
Q

dx ovarian ca

A

US or CT

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25
tx of ovarian ca
chemo or surgery
26
cancer is secreting tumor markers (alphaFP, | betahCG, LDH, alkaline phosphate. you should think:
germ cell or tetratoma
27
Gardnerella is.....
bacterial vaginosis ---tx is flagyl
28
tx of Trichomonas
metronizole
29
Asherman Syndrome
uterine scaring
30
Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (Premenstrual Syndrome)
must interact with daily function. try SSRI, hormonal replacement
31
what hormones do ovaries continue to produce after menopause
After menopause, the ovaries continue to produce testosterone and androstenedione ○ But estrone is the main postmenopausal circulating estrogen
32
how do you dx menopause
FSH > 30 mIU/mL diagnostic
33
do not use hormonal replacement with what pts
Cannot use HRT with unexplained vaginal bleeding, history of DVT/PE, or history of GYN tumors that may be estrogensensitive
34
breast are tender during what phase of menstral cycle
lutealphase
35
antibiotic for mastitis
dicloxacillin, nafcillin, or cephalosporin
36
risk for developing breast cancer
Nulliparity or delayed childbearing, Early menarche or late menopause, Longterm estrogen exposure i.e. being on OCPs for years ○ Radiation exposure ○ First degree relative with breast cancer
37
more common breast cancer ductal or lobar
ductal
38
what is Paget’s Disease of the Breast
● Scaly, eczematous, erythematous nipple lesion | ● Ductal carcinoma of the nipple
39
ddx for gactorrhea
Pituitary adenoma (hyperprolactinemia) ○ Thyroid disorders ○ Medication side effect: H2 blocker (cimetidine); antipsychotic (risperdone)
40
Gynecomastia
Caused by an imbalance of testosterone and estrogen effect (too strong an effect) ● Can also be caused by medication: spironolactone
41
OCP benefits
Less dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia (less irondeficiency anemia) ○ Less PID ○ Some protection against ectopic pregnancy ○ Less acne and hirsutism; benign breast disease ○ Reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial CA
42
work up for infertility
``` Semen analysis: first step ● Endocrine workup: TSH, FSH, prolactin levels ● Anatomical workup (hysterosalpingogram, ultrasound) ```
43
tx for infertility
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid): given to anovulatory women ○ Stimulates ovaries to produce eggs ● Artificial insemination ● Assisted reproductive therapy: IVF, GIFT, surrogate ● Therapies are expensive but about 75% effective
44
Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier’s sign)
PID
45
PID work up
GC and Chlamydia: DNA probe testing ● Pelvic ultrasound: to ruleout TOA
46
prenatal care schedule
Visit once a month until 28 weeks, once every 23 weeks until 36 weeks, then once a week until term
47
Quickening will start at what week (fetal movement):
about 18 weeks
48
during the first trimester: Low PAPPA (pregnancy associated | plasma protein A) and high hCG increased risk of what genetic disorders
trisomy 18, | trisomy 21
49
2nd trimester: if low estriol, low AFP, high inhibin→ increased risk of
genetic disorders
50
Nuchal translucency screening (nuchal fold scan) | what is this, when is done and what does it screen for?
US at 12 weeks ○ Screen for trisomies, Turner’s ○ If abnormal→ offer CVS or amniocentesis
51
Fetal heart rate: normal (reactive) =
2 accelerations in 20 minutes of up to 15 | bpm from baseline and no decelerations
52
stations of labor
Spine: 0 station, Above spine: 1, | 2cm, etc; below spine: +1, +2cm
53
stage 1 first baby: labor can last up to ____hours and still be considered within a normal time frame
20 hours
54
stage 2 is defined by
complete dilation of cervix
55
third stage
delivery to delivery of placenta
56
benefits & cons of Internal (fetal scalp electrode;
need to have at least 2cm cervical dilation): most accurate | ● Look for accelerations and decelerations
57
Late decels are
bad→ uteroplacental insufficiency with lack of blood flow to infant
58
If concerned about FHR then...
● change mom to lay on left side, given oxygen, stop pitocin
59
Cardinal movements of birth
engagement→ descent→ flexion→ internal rotation→ | extension→ external rotation→ expulsion
60
Examine placenta and cord: there should be
3 vessels→ 2 arteries, 1 vein
61
APGAR score at 1 and 5 minutes stands for?
(Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration) | ○ Categories: color, heart rate, respiration, reflex, motor tone
62
risks of c-section
higher risks of thromboembolism, bleeding, infection, longer length of stay
63
transfusion if blood loss is ____mL or hematocrit drops by ___%
Blood loss requiring transfusion or a 10% drop in hematocrit | ○ Or >500ml blood loss from vaginal birth or 1000ml after csection
64
management of hemorrhage
Uterine massage ○ Manual compression ○ Oxytocin, ergonovine or prostaglandins to enhance contraction
65
uterus returns to normal size how many weeks about birth?
6 weeks
66
Most common etiology of ectopic pregnancy
``` adhesions (scars from previous surgery, infection, etc) ● Risk factors ○ Previous ectopic ○ PID ○ Tubal/abdominal surgery ○ IUD ○ Assisted reproductive therapy ```
67
symptoms of ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Hypotension, Shoulder pain (referred pain), Peritonitis | Bradycardia or tachycardia
68
hCG normally doubles every 48 hours → if less than doubling, suspicious, order what imaging?
transvaginal US
69
tx of ectopic pregnancy
methotrexate (if early, small, patient is stable, and good followup available) ■ Folic acid antagonist → kills embryo
70
Gestational Trophoblastic DIsease
A group of diseases arising from the placenta ○ Hydatidaform mole ○ Trophoblastic tumors ○ Choriocarcinoma
71
○ Hydatidaform mole
partial and complete molar pregnancy ○ Chorionic villi that grow into a tumor ○
72
US of molar pregnancy
Complete: “grape like vesicles” or “snowstorm” on US with empty egg
73
can complete and incomplete molar pregnancy go on to be cancerous
Yes 20% of complete 5% of partial
74
high hCG level, uterine size bigger than date, nausea, and Hyperemesis gravidarum and abnormal uterine bleeding
molar pregnancy
75
tx of molar pregnancy
chemo or surgery
76
when to screen for gestational DM?
Screen at 24-28 | weeks
77
how to test for Gestational DM
Nonfasting: 50g glucose tolerance test, then check glucose at 1 hr---- If >130mg/dL→ then do a 3hr test 3hr GTT: 100g glucose load in Am after fasting. Then check glucose levels at 1,2 and 3 hours→ if 2 or more abnormal values, diagnosis is made.
78
Threatened abortion :
vaginal bleeding, os closed
79
Inevitable abortion :
vaginal bleeding, os open
80
Incomplete abortion :
vaginal bleeding, os open
81
important post abortion management
Give RhoGam if mom is Rh () | ○ If incomplete/missed abortion: may need D&C
82
Painless 3rd trimester vaginal bleeding
Placental Previa
83
Placental Previa
``` Risk factors ○ Advanced maternal age ○ Smoking ○ High parity ○ Scarring ```
84
dx of Placental Previa
US
85
``` Sympathomimetic use, smoking, heavy alcohol use ○ Trauma ○ HTN ○ Advanced maternal age ○ High parity are risk factors for ```
Abruptio Placentae
86
aburptio placentea DX?
Diagnosis: US not diagnostic enough ○ Need to monitor fetus and fetal stress testing ○ Lack of blood flow would reflect in fetal heart rate with decelerations
87
Pelvic examination reveals a dilated cervical os with visible tissue in the endocervical canal. Which of the following types of abortion is best represented in this case?
incomplete abortion
88
Routine PAP smear reveals high grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HGSIL). What is the next step in this patient’s management?
Colposcopy
89
Pelvic ultrasound is ordered and reveals uterine fibroids. She is concerned because she would still like to have children in the future. Which of the following is the recommended therapy for this disease?
Myomectomy
90
complaints of spasmodic, cramping abdominal pain during her periods, which radiates to her upper thighs and her lower back. She states that she has had these symptoms for a long time but now the pain is getting so bad that she can’t bear it anymore. Which of the following medications would be the best choice for treatment of this patient? A.
Mefenamic acid (Ponstel) is the only NSAID that is currently approved for use in spasmodic dysmenorrhea
91
lab work reveals no proteinuria; however she does have a trace of glucosuria. Which of the following best explains this finding?
The glomerular filtration rate increases during pregnancy and may lead to a finding of trace glucose in the urine.
92
In fetal heart monitoring, cord compression is most likely to cause which of the following?
Variable decelerations
93
Which of the following subtypes of ovarian cancer is the most common?
Epithelial cell | This is the cause of over 90% of ovarian malignancies.
94
Which of the following best represents the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?
Decrease in estradiol and increase in progesterone This most accurately describes the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. These hormone changes occur during days 15 to the 1st day of menses with decrease in LH and FSH; if fertilization does not occur progesterone will drop rapidly.
95
Turner syndrome is suspected. Which of the following best describes this patient's menstrual disorder?
primary
96
A premenopausal patient presents to the clinic with the chief complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, irregular cycles and vaginal dryness. Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding in this patient population?
Anovulation: This is the number one cause of dysfunction uterine bleeding.
97
Which of the following is considered first line therapy in the treatment of anovulation?
Clomiphene is indicated as first line therapy in the treatment of anovulation. This drug is an estrogen antagonist that will relieve the negative feedback on FSH allowing for follicular development. Sometimes OCP’s can also be used to treat anovulation.
98
edward syndrome is another name for
trisomy 18
99
A 41 year old pregnant woman comes to your OB/GYN clinic asking about screening for neural tube defects. Besides educating her on the need for folic acid supplementation you inform her that the best screening method is which of the following?
Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels | This is the primary method of screening for neural tube defects and is performed at around 16-18 weeks.
100
Endometriosis most commonly affects what other organ?
Ovaries are affected in greater than 60% of cases of endometriosis.
101
Which of the following is the earliest sign seen in preeclampsia?
Hypertension
102
Neurofibromatosis is inherited according to which of the following patterns?
Neurofibromatosis and achondroplasia are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
103
1st line therapy for the treatment of pre-menstrual syndrome.
Fluoxetine | SSRI’s
104
Which of the immunoglobulins would you expect to be equal in both the mother and the fetus? Hint it is the smallest
IgG
105
Which of the following types of HPV is the most severe and has the worse prognosis?
11 & 16 (lost molly and parents divorce)
106
Lithotomy
position for pelvic exam
107
warfarin may not be used in __________
pregnancy
108
initial test of choice to dx PCOS
Total testosterone levels
109
A 26 year old woman presents for routine PAP smear. She is sexually active and has been for over 6 years, she also has a history of smoking and some recreational drug use. Her PAP smear results in atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). What is the next step in the evaluation of this patient? A.
Human Papilloma Virus Testing The preferred strategy for Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance (ASC-US) is reflex HPV testing. HPV-negative patients should be re-tested in 3 years. HPV-positive patients should undergo colposcopy.
110
A 27 year old female presents to the OB/GYN clinic complaining of dyspareunia and intermenstrual bleeding. She also states that she is noticing pain in her left abdominal region on the lower side. Ultrasound is ordered and reveals a simple 4cm left sided ovarian cyst. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy at this time?
Repeat US in one month This is the correct answer and is the best initial approach to a patient with a simple ovarian cyst less than 5cm in diameter. Most cysts of this nature will resolve on their own, and 1 month follow-up is sufficient unless symptoms worsen.
111
In a patient with Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome, which of the following would most likely be found on laboratory studies?
2:1 LH:FSH ratio | This abnormality is seen in nearly 95% of patients with PCOS.
112
In a couple who is trying to conceive, the husband has already tested normal on semen analysis. What is the initial work up for the female?
This along with basal body temperature charting is usually the initial step in the work up of female infertility.
113
What is the treatment of choice for vaginal candidiasis in a pregnant patient?
Miconazole nitrate vaginal cream
114
Which of the following subtypes of ovarian cancer is the most common?
Epithelial cell | This is the cause of over 90% of ovarian malignancies.
115
A premenopausal patient presents to the clinic with the chief complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, irregular cycles and vaginal dryness. Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding in this patient population?
anovulation