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Organism Blood and Skin Tests Flashcards

(108 cards)

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1
Q

streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins called __ and __ which are responsible for the B hemolytic pattern of hemolysis on the blood agar

A

streptolysin O and S

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2
Q

what bacteria produces streptolysin O and S

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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3
Q

which toxin ( streptolysin O or S) stimulates the production of antibodies

A

streptolysin O

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4
Q

streptolysin O is seen in the blood in what diseases

A

rheumatic fever
streptococcal infection
post strep glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

what tests should be performed to identify streptococcal infection

what # indicates infection

A

anti streptolysin O titer

> 160 todd units

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6
Q

what test is uses to distinguish hemolytic anemia, Rhesus factor, and erythroblastosis fetalis in Rhesus (-)negative mothers

HER

A

coombs test

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7
Q

what diseases or markers does coombs test identify

A

hemolytic anemia
erythroblastosis fetalis in Rh negative mother
rhesus factor

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8
Q

what does ELISA stand for

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

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9
Q

what test identifies the diseases HIV and lyme disease in serum

A

ELISA

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10
Q

what does the ELISA test help us identify in serum

A

HIV and lyme disease

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11
Q

ELISA is a __ test but not __ because of false positives

A

sensitive but not specific

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12
Q

what does FTA-ABS stand for

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test

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13
Q

what serum test is used to “confirm” syphilis

A

FTA-ABS test

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14
Q

when is FTA-ABS positive

A

positive when infection is present

and

remains positive long after the syphilis is treated

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15
Q

what does FTA-ABS test for

A

syphilis

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16
Q

what is a special serum test for chlamydia organisms

A

ligase chain reaction

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17
Q

ligase chain reaction is a variation of what test

A

nucleic acid amplification test

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18
Q

what test would we use to identify chlamydia in serum

A

ligase chain reaction

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19
Q

what test is used to detect leprosy in serum

A

mitsuda test

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20
Q

how is mitsuda test performed

A

intradermal injection of lepromin

reaction in skin at site of injection indicates + for mycobacterium leprae

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21
Q

what test uses sheep red blood cells

A

paul bunnel test

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22
Q

what is paul bunnel test used to detect

A

mononucleosis

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23
Q

what does RPR stand for

A

rapid plasmid reagin

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24
Q

what is RPR test used for

A

blood screening test for syphilis

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25
what does VDRL stand for
venereal diagnostic research lab
26
what is VDRL test used for
blood test screening test for syphilis
27
when is VDRL positive in the serum
positive when syphilis is present negative when syphilis is successfully treated
28
when screening syphilis, if ___ is positive and the ___ is negative, it is probably a FALSE POSITIVE
VDRL + FRA-ABS - then false positive
29
what are the causes of a false positive VDRL
``` VDRLS viral infections - mono and hepatitis durgs rheumatic fever leprosy SLE ```
30
how is the weils felix test performed
patients serum mixed with proteus antigens if patient has antibodies to rickettsia, then antibodies will react with proteus antigens and cause aggluntination of red blood cells
31
when is weils felix test positive? | when is it negative?
positive if patient has rickettsia | negative if patient has coxiella infection
32
what test is used to confirm HIV after a + ELISA
western blot
33
what two tests would you perform for HIV
ELISA first to screen | then western blot to confirm
34
what does western blot test for in blood?
tests viral protein fragments
35
what are the 3 blot tests and what do they test for
western - viral protein fragments southern - DNA northern - RNA
36
which test is highly specific for HIV and is used to rule IN or CONFIRM the disease
western blot
37
what is test is used to detect typhoid fever
widal test
38
what does widal test detect in blood
typhoid fever
39
what is kveim skin test used to detect
sarcoidosis
40
what is the test for sarcoidosis
kveim skin test
41
how is kveim skin test performed
injection of sarcoidosis into patient skin reaction should occur 4-6 weeks after injection showing non caseous granulomas
42
What is the name of the test for TB
mantoux or heaf or tine test
43
what does mantoux/heaf/tine test indicate
TB infection
44
how is mantoux/heaf/tine test performed
intradermal injection of PPD or purified protein derivative from TB bacillus
45
what is a positive skin test for TB
mantoux/heaf/tine test mark > 10mm indicates TB
46
what test is used to identify H pylori
urea splitting bacteria
47
what does the urea splitting bacteria test for
H pylori proteus mirabilis klebsiella pneumonia
48
what are the 3 bacteria that secrete urease
H pylori proteus mirabilis klebsiella pneumonia
49
what does urease enzyme do
breaks down urea into ammonia and CO2
50
what does ammonia do to the stomach
neutralizes the HCL in the stomach preventing gastric acid from destroying the bacteria which allows them to multiply and proliferate causing gastritis and ulcers
51
what bacteria contains urease that creates an alkaline environment in the urine and promotes the precipitation of struvite stones
proteus mirabilis
52
what bacteria is associated with struvite stones in urine
proteus mirabilis
53
what is a biological assay that assesses the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds
ames test
54
what bacteria does ames test use during the test to indicate if the chemicals are causing mutagenic changes
salmonella typhimurium
55
what does a positive ames test indicate
the chemical has the potential to cause mutation in genes and may be considered carcinogenic
56
what is the german word for swelling
quellung
57
what is a test that causes a biochemical reaction which causes anticapsular antibodies bind to capsule of bacteria causing it to swell and become more visible
quellung reaction
58
what bacteria shows a positive quellung reaction
streptococcus pneumonia ** ``` others klebsiella pneumonia hemophilus influenza salmonella neiserria meningitides ```
59
what test looks at carcinogenicity and mutagenicity
ames test
60
what is used in ames test
salmonella typhimurium
61
what test is for anthrax
ascholi test
62
what test is for strep pyogenes antibodies
anti-streptolysin O titre ASO titer
63
what test is for rheumatic fever
anti-streptolysin O tire ASO titer
64
what is test to check percent of butterfat in milk
babcock test
65
what test determines difference between pneumococcus and alpha hemolytic streptococcus viridans
bile solubility
66
what is the best test for water pollution
BOD test
67
what does BOD stand for whats it mean
biologicial oxygen demand best test for water pollution
68
what is known as complement fixation
bordet gengou phenomenon
69
what test determines between stap and strep
catalase
70
what is a virus culture
chick embryo culture or tissue culture cant grow on agar
71
what is a agar for gonnorrhea
chocolate agar aka thayer martin agar heated blood agar
72
what test is used to differentiate different staphylococcus bugs
coagulase staph aureus + all else negative
73
what test checks for e coli in the water purification process
colliform test
74
what test checks fecal contamination in water
colliform test *tests for ecoli
75
what test check hymolyss and cell lysis
complement fixation
76
what test checks rbc antigens, hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis, and rh factor
coombs test
77
what is the test for scarlet fever
dick test
78
what is the stain for protozoa
giemsa stain
79
what is the test for seronegative arthropathies such as psoriatic, enteropathic, as, and reiters syndrome
HLA B27
80
what tests are for AIDS
ELISA - checks DNA western blot - checks proteins HLA DR5/CD4
81
what agar is used for staphylococcus
mannitol salt agar
82
what is dx if patient has nuchal rigidity and stuff neck
meningitis glucose decrease in CSF if present
83
what is the heterophile agglutination test for mononucleosis
paul bunnel test
84
what test is to determine if milk pasteurization was adequate? what makes it adequate
phosphatase test adequate if all phosphatase enzyme is destroyed
85
what test is for streptococcus pneumonia
quellung reaction
86
what is the agar for testing fungi
sabouraud agar
87
what tests for immunity to diphtheria
schick
88
what is the antitoxin reaction to scarlet fever
schultz carlton reaction
89
what is the serology test for rickettsia except which
weil felix test except coxiella burnetti aka Q fever
90
what is the typhoid fever test
widal test
91
what test looks for altered epithelioid cells
tzank test herpes zoster herpes simplex varicella aka chicken pox
92
what are the test for syphilis /treponema pallidum
``` kline kahn wassserman TPI VDRL darkfield ```
93
what what are the TB tests
mantoux test = tine test = skin prick test PPD - purified protein derivative delayed hypersensitivity test ziehl nielson staining - acid fast organisms - myco. chest xray - gohn complex in lung BCG - bacillus calmette guerin vaccine - uses myco. bovis
94
what are acid fast stains used for
mycobacterium
95
what are blood agar stains used for
streptococcus
96
what demonstrates types of hemolysis / destruction of RBCs
blood agar
97
what are the different types of hemolysis on agar plate
alpha = partial hemolysis = green ring alpha strep pneumonia strep viridans subacute bacterial endocarditis beta = complete hemolysis = clear ring beta is bad strep pyogenes gumma = none = red ring strep mutans
98
agar for gonorrhea
chocolate heated blood agar thayer martin agar
99
agar for protozoa
giemsa
100
what is the gram stain procedure
primary stain - crystal violet or methylene blue fixer - iodine / mordant decolorizer - acetone or ethyl alcohol - removes crystal violet from gram - counterstain - suffarin - red pink that goes in gram -
101
manitol salt agar is used for what
staphylococcus
102
what is the only way to differentiate treponemas species
dark field microscopy
103
clue cells
gardenella
104
whiff test +
gardenella
105
tabes dorsalis
tertiary syphilis
106
ophthalamia neonaturm
neisseria
107
hand foot mouth disease
coxsackie
108
hemophilia a lacks what | hemophilia b lacks what
a - factor 8 | b - factor 9

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