Other Flashcards
(978 cards)
1
Q
The USDA regulates - while the FDA regulates _
A
USDA - meat and poultry products egg products but not eggs themselves
FDA - all other food, eggs themselves, sea food, etc
2
Q
Tetracycline is a -
A
Broad spectrum antibiotic
3
Q
How do you determine the value of assets on a balance sheet
A
Assets = liabilities + shareholder equity
4
Q
What is the mechanism of action of Beta lactams
A
Inhibit cell wall synthesis leading to lysis of bacteria
5
Q
What is a 2.5 % solution in mg/ml
A
25 mg/ml (multiply by 10)
6
Q
Ivermectin is effective against what group of parasites
A
Nematodes
7
Q
Can you use topical insecticides like frontline off label
A
No - it is illegal by the EPA
8
Q
Who regulates topical insecticides like frontline
A
EPA
9
Q
Who regulates oral a transdermal insecticides
A
FDA
10
Q
What drug class is amlodipine in (also called norvasc)
A
Calcium channel blocking agent and vasodilator
11
Q
How can you give amlodipine and what is it used for
A
Orally - used to treat systemic hypertension (a common cardiac med)
12
Q
What should you monitor for if patient is on amlodipine
A
Hypotension and bradycardia
13
Q
What drug class is enalapril in
A
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace inhibitor)
14
Q
What is the mechanism of action of enalapril
A
Blocks angiotensin 2 which causes vasodilation of glomerular efferent arterioles leading to decreased GFR
15
Q
What are common indications for enalapril
A
Vasodilator - used in Chf Or to treat systemic supertension
16
Q
What should you monitor a patient for when on enalapril
A
Hypotension, renal function , electrolytes
17
Q
How can you give enalapril
A
Orally
18
Q
What type of drug is furosemide /lasix and what is its mechanism of action
A
Loop diuretic - acts in the ascending loop of henle to inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride (and water follows sodium so it decreases total volume)
19
Q
How can you give furosemide
A
Orally and IV
20
Q
What are common indications for furosemide
A
CHF to reduce pulmonary edema and sometimes in oliguria or anuria cases
21
Q
What should you monitor for when using furosemide
A
Fluid/electrolyte changes, azotemia , monitor hydration stats and bloodwork values too
22
Q
What should you advise owners of when their pet is on furosemide
A
They will urinate more often so make sure they have access to sesh water at all times
23
Q
What type of drug class is lidocaine
A
Antiarrhythmic - non cardiac related use as local anesthetic
24
Q
What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine
A
Binds to and inhibits voltage gated sodium channels
25
How can you give lidocaine
IV or regional infusion
26
What are indications for lidocaine
Ventricular tachyarrhythmias or to help with analgesia
27
What should you monitor for when using lidocaine
Be cautious in hepatic disease and has decreased efficacy if patient is hypokalemic
28
What drug class is pimobendan in
Inotropic drug that causes vasodilation
29
How can you give pimobendan
Orally
30
What are common indications for using pinobendan
Adjunct therapy for CHF, chf secondary to DCM or Chf due to mitral valve disease
31
What is important to note when using pinobendan
Not FDA approved for use in cats contraindicated in HCM cases and use cautiously with arrythmias
32
What drug class is spironolactone
Aldosterone competitive antagonist
33
What is the MOA of spironolactore
Competitively inhibits aldosterone at the level of the distal renal tubules
34
What are common indications of spironolactone
Diuretic agent used in CHF, some renal conditions like neuphrotic syndrome
35
What is important to note when using spironolactone
Weak diuretic so often used with more potent diuretics - potassium sparing so monitor or hyper kalemiq
36
What could happen if patient is hyperkalemic
An cause life threatening heart arrhythmias, muscle weakness or paralysis
37
What is the function of aldosterone
Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion
38
What is the function of aldosterone
Contributes to sodium and water reabsorption, and potassium secretion
39
What is the MOA of pinobendan
Calcium sensitizer, inotropic (affecting force of heart contractions) increase heart contractility
40
Define ptosis
Drooping of the upper eyelid
41
Define mydriasis
Dilated pupils
42
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? How do you test it
Cranial nerve 1 - olfactory nerve , watch patient sniff room or a noxious substance
43
What's the function of the optic nerve and which CN is it
Carries visual signals from retina to occipital lobe of brain - cranial nerve 2
44
How can you test the function of CN 2 - the optic nerve
Drop a cotton ball and watch patient follow it, check for menace response (visual cue portion), or check pupillary light response (plr) for visual cue also
45
Testing PLR tests the function of which cranial nerves
2 - for visual cue
3 - for pupil constriction
46
What is CN 3 and what is its function
Oculomotor nerve - Provides motor to most of the extra ocular muscles and causes pupil constriction
47
how can you test the function of the oculomotor nerve (cn 3)
Observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning the head or observe for pupillary constriction with a pale
48
What is physiologic nystagmus
Normal dog where nystagmus is induced by turning head side to side - involuntary rhythmic oscillation of the eyes
49
Describe the fast phase of nystagmus vs the slow phase
Fast phase - always away from the lesion
Slow phase - always towards the lesion
50
What cranial nerves are involved when inducing physiologic nystagmus
3,4, 6, 8
51
What is cranial nerve 4 and what is its function
Trochlear nerve - provides motor function to dorsal oblique extracts muscles and rolls globe medially
52
How can you test the function of cranial nerve 4 - the trochlear nerve
Watch for dorso lateral rotation of the pupil
53
What is cranial nerve 5 and its branches
Trigeminal nerve - maxillary , mandibular and opthalmic branches
54
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve - cranial nerve 5
Motor - muscles of mastication (masseter and temporal)
Sensory - eyelids , Cornea, tongue, nasal mucosa and mouth
55
How can you test the function of trigeminal nerve or CN 5
Palpate masseter muscles for atrophy, check jaw tone, touch globe and look for retraction, palpebral response (blinking when touching the medial canthus) / pinch lip and observe snarl response
56
The touching of the globe tests which cranial nerves
5 for sensory, 6 for retraction
57
Which cranial nerve provides motor function to the lateral rectus extraocular muscle and retractor bulbi muscle
Cranal nerve 6 - abducens muscle
58
How do you test the function of cranial nerve 6 - the abducens muscle
Touch globe and observe for retraction, observe for medial strabismus, observe for physiologic nystagmus when turning head
59
What is strabismus
MIsdirection of the eye -either inward towards nose Or away from nose
60
What is the function of CN 7 - the facial nerve
Motor - muscles of facial expression (eyelids, ears, lips)
Sensory- medial pinna
Taste - rostral tongue and parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal glands and salivary glands
61
How do you test function of the facial nerve (CN5)
Menace response for blink response, palpebral response , observe for facial paralysis, deviation of nose to one side ,droopy lips, schirmer tear test , ear flick in response to stimulation of medial pinna
62
What cranial nerves does the menace response test for
2 - visual cue
7 -blink response
63
What cranial nerves does the palpebral response test for
5-sensory
7 - facial nerve
64
What is CN 8 and what is its function
Vestibulocochlear nerve - provides sensory input for hearing and head position
65
How do you test for function of CN 8- vestibulocochlear nerve
Hearing assessment , observe for head tilt, abnormal nystagmus, presence of normal physiologic nystagmus
66
What is cranial nerve 9
Glossopharyngeal nerve
67
What is the function of CN 9 - glossopharyngeal nerve
Motor and sensory innovation to pharynx for swallowing (along with CN 10), innervates some salivary glands, provides taste innervation from caudal tongue
68
How do you test the function of CN 10
Elicit a gag reflex ,observe for dysphagia
69
Describe the function of CN 10 - the vagus nerve
Innervates the larynx , esophagus and pharynx - provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart and viscera
70
How can you test the function of cn 10 - vagus nerve
Elicit gag reflex, observe for laryngeal paralysis and assess for megaesophagus and regurgitation
71
What is cranial nerve 11 and what is its function
Spinal accessory nerve - innovates cranial cervical muscles
72
What is cranial nerve 12 and what is its function
Hypoglossal nerve - provides motor to tongue
73
How do you test the function of CN 12 - the hypoglossal nerve
Observe tongue movement and symmetry for problems drinking and prehending food
74
What is chrondro dysplasia
Genetic, short legs - faulty development of cartilage and bone growth in the ossification centers of bones
75
What will you see histologically with pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity
Negalocutosis, fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasia
76
What causes pyrrolizidine alkalosis and what does it ultimately lead to
Plant species - ragwort, rathe weed, yellow tar weed
Ultimately leads to hepatic failure
77
What is megalocytosis
Enlargement of liver cells often due to toxins
78
Describe clinical signs you might see in a llama infected with P. Tenuis (meningeal worm) and their progression
Near signs - hypermedia, ataxia, stiffness, muscle weakness, posterior paresis, arching neck and circling I dully starts in hind limbs and progresses to front limbs
79
Eosinophilia in CSF fluid indicates what
Parasitic infection
80
How is propylene glycol given
Orally - not IV
81
What is monensin
Commonly used coccidiostat used in feedstuff of cattle - an ionophone that is very toxic to horses
82
Define a rhabdomyosarcoma
Tumor derived from striated muscle (skeletal muscle)
83
Describe pds or polydioxionne suture simply
Monofilament, absorbable - good for things like the bladder
84
What is one benefit of pds suture over catgut
PDS lasts longer
85
What do pt and PTT stand for
Pt - prothrombin time
PTT - partial thromboplastin time
86
Define urohydro propulsion
Expulsion of cystic calculi when animal under anesthesia sing manual pressure on the bladder to expel store through the urethra
87
Define oliguric renal failure
Reduced urine output due to renal failure
88
What makes up the tetralogy of fallot
Overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect , pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy
89
What is the human health concern tor HPAI
If it were to acquire the gene needed to attach to human respiratory mucosa
90
What is the acid fast stain mostly used for
To identify acid fast organisms like mycobacteria or nocardia
91
What type of toxicity turns blood a bright red
Cyanide toxicity
92
What is the difference between an open and closed reduction
Open - fracture fragments surgically repaired and repositioned
Closed - fragments repositioned externally without surgically exposing the bone
93
Define arthroplasty
Surgery to restore unction of a joint - either by replacing, realigning or remodeling
94
Define ectopic cilia
Abnormal hair growing out of the conjunctiva
95
Define distichia
Extra eyelashes grow from an abnormal part of the eyelid
96
Define entropion
When the eyelid turns inward toward eye cursing eyelashes to tub against the eye
97
What could cause decreased corneal protection, leading to corneal ulcers
Decreased tear production (kcs/ dry eye), decreased tear quality (exposure keratitis), decreased blink reflex (CN 5 or 7 deficit)
98
Define lagopthalomus
Inability to fully close eyelids
99
What cranial nerve delicious could cause a decreased blink reflex
Cranial nerve 5 or 7
100
What are general causes of superficial corneal ulceration in dogs
Traumatic or decreased corneal protection
101
What 3 structures make up the uvea
Iris, ciliary body, choroid
102
Which part of the eye is extremely vascular
Uvea - iris, ciliary body and choroid
103
What is inflammed in anterior uveitis
Iris and ciliary body
104
What is inflamed in posterior uveitis
Choroid - also called choritis
105
What are common clinical signs of uveitis
Photophobia, red eye due to conjunctival hyperemia, epiphora, seromucoid discharge , blephospasm , 3rd eyelid elevation
106
Define epiphora
Excess watering of the eye
107
What sign on your ophthalmic exam is pathopneumonic for anterior uveitis
Aqueous flare
108
What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare
Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening
109
What signs might you find on your diagnostic ophthalmic exam that indicate aqueous flare
Biotic pupil, corneal edema, keratin precipitates, hypopyon, fibrin, ocular hypotension, synechia, cataract, superfigmentation or iridil thickening
110
What is hypopyon
Milky white appearance at bottom of eye with episcleral injection
111
Define synechiae
Abnormal adhesions between iris and Cornea
112
How can you differentiate between uveal cyst and a uveal melanoma
Uveal cysts are free floating, uveal melanomas are attached
113
What enzyme is produced by the pancreas, found in saliva and hydrolyzes starches
Amylase
114
What should you treat yourself with it you stab yourself accidentally with the RB51 strain
Doxycline and tmp - vitamin is no longer used because RB51 is resistant
115
What on a microscopic slide would be highly suggestive of IMHA
Hemagglutination - due to antibodies on the surface of the erythrocytes, leading to cross linking then clump formation
116
What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes
Alp and GGT
117
What are the cholestatic hepatic enzymes
Alp and GGT
118
What are the hepatic leakage enzymes
AST and alt
119
How is thelezia transmitted
Face flies - adults live in tear ducts and conjunctival sac
120
What lesions might you see with thelezia and why
Photophobia, conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, eyelid abscesses
121
What is the major copper storage organ
Liver
122
How can you differentiate between vomiting and diarrhea caused by vincristine versus l-asparaginase
Vincristine side effects takes a few days, l-asparaginase is acute (30 minutes)
123
How does cat scratch fever car and what is the causative agent
Feline bartorella transmitted to cat through fleas, and if flea dirt gets under the nail of the cut and then they scratch the owner it can transmit the bartonelka
124
What test can you use to check for lungworms and why
Baermann fecal exam - first stage larvae in the lungs are coughed up, then reswallowed and passed in the feces
125
What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris
Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture
126
What is the intermediate host of lungworms like M. Capillaris
Snails who ingest larvae from feces on the pasture
127
Define anhidrosis
Absence or lack of sweating
128
Define anhidrosis
Absence or lack of sweating
129
What type of drug is theophylline
Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats
130
What type of drug is theophylline
Bronchodilator mostly used in dogs and cats
131
Why would chemotherapy cause a neutropenia
Chemo targets cells that replicate quickly und neutrophils have a lifespan of 5-9 hours
132
What would be more helpful in diagnosing an active infection - igm or IgG
IGM -peak at 3-6 weeks and drop 12 weeks post exposure
IGG - con remain elevated for months to years
133
How can IGG tigers tell you an active infection
If there is a 4 fold increase in IgG in serial tests 2-3 weeks apart
134
Which species exhibit a true lactational anestrus
Pigs and cats
135
What are 3 primary causes of mitral regurgitation
Degenerative thickening, bacterial endocarditis and ruptured chordinae tendinae
136
Amoxicillin is effective against gram - like -
Positive bacteria - staph
137
What do air bronchiograms indicate
Ventral lung consolidation - will percuss dull
138
Define hydrenencephaly
Absence of cerebral hemispheres with replacement of normal location with fluid
139
What can you use to treat muscle tremors secondary to permethrin toxicosis
IV methocarbomal
140
What is the causative agent of proliferative ileitis
Lawsonia intracellularis
141
What is used to decrease unit acid formation
Allopurinol
142
What indicates a stress leukogram
Mature neutrophilia , lymphopenia, eosinopenia
143
Define polycythemia
Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)
144
Define polycythemia
Abnormally high number of red blood cells - usually associated with lung or heart disease (or high altitudes)
145
Describe the uses for metoclopromide
Nausea relief in dogs and improvement of stomach contraction (increase mobility) in cats - prevents esophageal reflex
146
Give examples of Macrolide'S
Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
147
What kind of drug is rifampinand what is effective against
Rifamycin - effective against gram positive, mycobacteria, gram negative cocci, anaerobes , chlamydiae and most MRSAs
148
Why is rifampin used (in combo with a macrolide) to treat R. Equi in foals
Penetrates some tissues and cells, effective against intracellular organisms (and R. Equi is a gram positive bacteria)
149
Define mastocytosis
Abnormal accumulation of most cells in body tissues - more mast cells means more histamine release leading to an over reaction to allergens and long lasting reactions
150
What is a mast cell
Type of white blood cell specific to allergies, playing a role in the allergic response 1 also release histamine when exposed to allergens
151
What could happen if there was mass degranulation of mast cells like with a mast cell tumor
Anaphylaxis, life threatening allergic reactions, decked wound healing, bleeding disorder and GI ulceration
152
What clinical signs might you see with a mast cell tumor
Raised, swollen, ulcerated bump that can fluctuate in size - an case writing, lethargy , appetite loss , Melina associated with bleeding anaphylaxis I Ln enlargement, swollen abdomen due to peritoneal effusion
153
Define ablation
Surgical removal of body tissue
154
Define erythema
Superficial reddening of skin due to dilation of blood capillaries
155
Define adenocarcinoma
Malignant tumor of glandular and epithelial tissue lining internal organs (GIT, mammary tissue, prostate, anal glands)
156
What is loperamide used for
Treat acute diarrhea or chronic diarrhea due to IBD
157
What is another name for loperamide
Imodium
158
What is amprolium used for
Treat and prevent coccidiosis due to E. Bovis - thiamine analogue (blocks thiamine uptake)
159
What is the purpose of amlodipine
Calcium channel blocker - treats high blood pressure mostly in cats (Off label in dogs and cats)
160
What can cause both right sided heart failure and a nutmeg liver
Pericardial effusion causing swollen hepatocytes
161
What is hemochromatosis and how is it diagnosed in bird,
Too much iron accumulation in liver and other organs - diagnose with a liver biopsy
162
A lack of a papebal reflex indicates a deficit in which CN
CN 5 - trigeminal (sensory deficit)
163
An intact menace and dazzle reflex means which cranial nerves are intact
CN 2 and the visual cortex are intact - no visual deficits
164
What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat
Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue
165
What occurs with nitrate toxicity and how do you treat
Causes a methemoglobinemia making the blood chocolate brown leading to greatly reduced oxygen carrying capacity - that with methylene blue
166
What are glial cells
Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin
167
What are glial cells
Most abundant cell in CNS , support neurons and form myelin
168
What is the function of myelin
Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster
169
What is the function of myelin
Insults the neurons to allow electrical impulses to conduct faster
170
What are 3 tses that are important to note and which species do they affect
BSE (cows), scrapie in sheep, chronic washing disease in deer and elk
171
Define hydronephrosis
Dilation of the renal pelvis due to obstruction of urine outflow
172
Define uremia
Urine in the blood usually due to end stage renal failure
173
Define alloantibody
Immune antibodies produced following exposure to foreign RBC antigens
174
Differentiate between axial and sagital planes
Axial - transverse, upper and lower
Sagitall - longitudinal right and left
175
Which bacteria is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. coli H57 producing shiga toxins
176
What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity
Renal tubular nephrosis
177
What occurs due to aminoglycoside toxicity
Renal tubular nephrosis
178
What type of diets should be avoided in animals with hepatic encephalopathies
High protein diets
179
- Is prohibited for use in all food animals in the Ulsan
Chloramphenicol
180
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
181
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
182
Where do infected animals carry lepto
Renal carriers
183
Assets = - +-
Liabilities + equity
184
What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs with diseases like atopy, flea allergy dematitis (fad), urticaria and anaphylaxis from penicillin and bee stings
Type 1 - immediate
185
Describe type I hypersensitivity - when does the reaction occur
Immediate reaction in 15-30 minutes - antigen binds with IGE leading to degranulation and release of histamine
186
What body systems is type I hypersensitivity associated with
Skin, intestines and lung
187
What cells is IGE associated with
Mast cells
188
What type of hypersensitivity is related to diseases like immune mediated hemolytic anemia, transfusion reactions and neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals
Type 2 - cytotoxic
189
Describe type 2 autotoxic hypersensitivity reactions - which antibodies are involved
Cell destruction mediated by IGM and IGG antibodies, and complement
190
What immune hypersensitivity reaction is associated with diseases like glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus
Type 3 - immune complex
191
Describe type 3 hypersensitivity reactions
Immune complex - soluble immune complexes , IGG and exogenous antigens, complement activated immune emplexes are damaged, deposit in tissues leading to migration of neutrophils leading to tissue destruction
192
What is systemic lupus erythematosus
Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues
193
What is systemic lupus erythematosus
Chronic immune mediated disease where dogs own immune system attacks its healthy tissues
194
What hypersensitivity reaction type is associated with diseases like allergic contact dermatitis (poison ivy) Or tuberculin reactions
Type 4 - delayed
195
When will a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction occur
48-72 hours after reaction occurred - think of the tuberculin skin test in cattle( come back and check in 72 hours)
196
What are Beta lactams - give examples
Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc
197
What are Beta lactams - give examples
Penicillins and cephalosporins - ampicillin, amoxicillin, ceftiofur, etc
198
What is the spectrum of activity of Beta lactams
Gram positives, anaerobes - penicillin has limited gram negative activity, cephalosporins better for gram negative (out of the Beta lactams)
199
Beta lactams are bacteri-
Cidal - kill bacteria
200
Beta lactams are - dependent
Time
201
Why is clavulonic acid often used with amoxicillin (a beta lactam)
Clavulonic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor - use with a Beta lactam to extend antibacterial spectrum
202
What could potentially occur as a side effect when using penicillin
Type I hypersensitivity reaction immediate
203
As generation of cephalosporin increases - spectrum increases
Gram negative spectrum increases (3rd gen highest activity against gram negatives)
204
Give examples of aminoglycosides - what is their spectrum of activity
Gentamicin, amikacin - gram negatives
205
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
206
What are possible side effects of aminoglycoside use
Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuromusaks blockades
207
Give examples of fluroquinolones - what is their spectrum of activity
Enrofoxacin, ciprofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin - gram negatives
208
Floroquinolones are bacteri - and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
209
What is a side effect of fluoroquinolone use
Can damage cartilage in young animals
210
Give examples of tetracyclines - what are their mechanism of actions
Tetracycline and doxycycline - gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes, tick borne diseases (erlichia, anaplasma, rickettsial organisms)
211
What is borrelia burgdefori
Lymes disease
212
Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
213
Tetracyclines are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
214
Differentiate between bacteristatic and bactericidal
Bacteristatic - prevents growth of bacteria
Bactericidal - prevents growth of bacteria
215
What are possible side effect of tetracycline use like doxycycline
Nephrotoxic, discoloration of teeth, GI upset (why you give doxycycline with a meal)
216
Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined
When combined they become bactericidal
217
Why are trimethoprim and sulfonamides combined
When combined they become bactericidal
218
What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides
Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes
219
What is the spectrum of activity of trimethroprim sulfonamides
Gram positive, gram negative, anaerobes
220
Trimethoprim sulfonamides are - dependent
Time
221
With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why
Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact
222
With what drug should you tell owners to wear gloves before handling and why
Chloramphenicol - causes bore marrow suppression if humans come into direct contact
223
Chloramphenicol is bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristatic and time dependent
224
What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol
Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes
225
What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol
Gram prince, gram negative, anaerobes
226
In what animals can you not use lincosmides like clindamycin or lincomysin and why
Horses, rabbits or ruminants - cases GI upset/ colic that can be fatal
227
What are examples of lincosmides, are they bacteristatic or cidal
Clindamycin and lincomysin - bacteriostatic
228
What are examples of Macrolides and what is their spectrum of activity
Erythromycin, azithromyan , clarithromycun - gram positive and anaerobes
229
Macrolides like erythromycin are bacteri- and - dependent
Bacteristicic and time dependent
230
What is the spectrum of action of vancomycin and when should it be used
Gram positive - limit use to organisms resident to other antimicrobials
231
Vancomycin is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and time dependent
232
What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used
Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals
233
What is the spectrum of action of rifampin and when is it mostly used
Gram positive - mostly used to that R. Equi pneumonia in foals
234
Rifampin is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and time dependent
235
What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole
Anaerobes, Protozoa
236
What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole
Anaerobes, Protozoa
237
What are possible side effects of metronidazole
Neuralgic signs like weakness, ataxia, vestibular signs, anorexia
238
Metronidazole is bacteri- and - dependent
Bactericidal and concentration dependent
239
What is the general lifecycle of platelets
5-10 days
240
How long does it take for a platelet plug to form
5 minutes
241
What occurs when vascular endothelium is disrupted (in the coagulation cascade)
Collages becomes exposed , attracting platelets which then undergo 3 reactions - adhesion and shape change, secretion, aggregation
242
What does platelet adhesion during coagulation cascade depend on
Von willebrand factor
243
Describe the coagulation cascade as simply as possible
Series of reactions causing fibrin, red cells, plasma and platelets to be trapped in the platelet plug forming a fibrin clot / thrombin absorbs to abrin while the rest of the thrombin is inclipted to prevent excessive clotting
244
What can bind to anti thrombin to make it more potent in preventing coagulation
Heparin
245
What are the key tests used to assess primary hemostasis
Platelet count and bleeding time
246
At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding
Less than 30,000
247
At what platelet count would you be concerned for spontaneous bleeding
Less than 30,000
248
What is the buccal mucosal bleeding time test and what is normal
Incision is made into skin or mm and time until bleeding completely stops is measured - normal in less than 4 minutes
249
What does the act test measure - activated clotting time test
Measures time required for fibrin clot formation in fresh whole blood
250
What is normal for the act test
60 - 90 second
251
What is normal for the act test
60 - 90 second
252
What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test
PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time
253
What intrinsic pathway test is more sensitive than the act test
PTT- activated partial thromboplastin time
254
What does the pt (prothrombin time) test for
Auction of factors 2,5 , 10 and 7
255
What is Von willebrands disease and which breeds are most affected
Low concentration of Von willebrand factor - needed for platelet adhesion, most common in Dobermans (hereditary )
256
How do yw treat Von willebrands disease
Treat with desmopressin/ ddavp 30 minutes before induction of surgery - or fresh frozen plasma
257
Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem
Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!
258
Why is a lack of Von willeband factor a problem
Can coagulate when bleeding - continues bleeding!
259
What is hemophilia A and what does it cause
A factor 8 deficiency - leads to elected PTT and act time
260
What is hemophilia B and what does it cause
Facto a deficiency -leads to elevated act and PTT
261
With rodenticide toxicity causing a vitamin K deficiency how long does it take to see changes in factor 7? Now long before you see clinical bleeding
Share to change factor 7 I 1-2 days to see clinical bleeding
262
What factors are in the common pathway
2,5, 1,10
263
What factors are in the common pathway
2,5, 1,10
264
What factors are in the intrinsic pathway
12,11, 9,8
265
Which has a smaller diameter - 2-0 or 3-0
3-0 (0 is bigger)
266
Which has a bigger diameter - 0,1, or 2
2 ( is not the same as 2-0 )
267
What are the different suture needle types
Taper, cutting or blunt
268
What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,
Use in tissues easy to penetrate
269
What is the purpose of taper point suture needle,
Use in tissues easy to penetrate
270
What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles
Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues
271
What is the purpose of taper cut or cutting needles
Use for tough, hard to penetrate tissues
272
What are blunt suture needles used for
Dissecting triable tissue like liver or kidneys without cutting
273
Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both
Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization
274
Differentiate between monofilament and multifilament suture - what are pros and cons of both
Monofilament - single strand, more susceptible to damage, less pliable
Multifilament- braided /twisted strands , greater strength and flexibility, increased tendency for bacterial colonization
275
What is catgut made out of? Is it nonabsorbable or absorbable
Absorbable suture - made from small intestinal submucosa of sheep or intestinal serosa of cattle
276
How long does absorbable catgut suture last? When should you not use it and why
Completely gone in 2-3 weeks (faster if there is an infection) - do not use in organs like the intestines or bladder because proteolytic break down happens very fast
277
Describe monocryl suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, monofilament - stronger initial strength, loses 70 -80% at 2 weeks, completely absorbed in 90-120 days
278
Describe vicryl suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, Multifilament - completely absorbed in 60-70 days
279
Describe PDS suture - how long does it last
Absorbable, monofilament - 50% of tensile strength still present at 5-6 weeks, completely absorbed in 180 day
280
Describe nylon suture
Non absorbable , monofilament - gradually loses strength over time
281
Describe polypropylene suture - when is it mostly used
Non absorbable, monofilament - commonly used in tendon, ligament, joint capsule or fascial closings where extended strength is desired
282
Describe silk suture
Non absorbable, multifilament - degrades in 2 years, has high tissue reactivity
283
Define tensile strength
Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours
284
Define tensile strength
Ability to resist deformation and breakage, the Shens breakage ours
285
How long after surgery does it take for intestines to heal
3 - 5 days
286
What suture patterns are often used to close hollow viscera - differentiate between the two
Connell and Cushing patterns are for closing hollow viscera because they create a water tight seal - Cushing only goes into submucosa (not the lumen), , the Connell goes into the lumen
287
How long does bone healing in adult patients usually take? Young patients?
8-12 weeks - young patients can take 2 weeks
288
What is another name for vasopressin
ADH
289
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
290
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
291
Which parasite eggs are rectangular in shape? What do they cause
Moniezia eggs - non pathogenic usually but can cause intestinal stasis
292
Who would normally be infected by the monezia tapeworm
Young cattle
293
What can you do if a patient blood pressure starts to drop during surgery
Bolus of fluids or turn down anesthetic gas (gases are a potent vasodilator)
294
What drugs can help treat hypotension during surgery
Dobutamine
295
Which toxic plants cause cyanide / cyanogen toxicity
Sorghum/ Johnson grass ,hydrangeas, chokecherry
296
How does cyanide cause toxicity
Absorbed from git, makes it so oxyhemoglobin can not release oxygen leading to cellular hypoxia
297
What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see
Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation
298
What clinical signs would you see in a pet with chanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion (like sorghum) and when will you see
Can see in 10-15 minutes, acute death offer only sign - excitement, muscle tremors, dyspnea, salivation, urination / defecation
299
What is the key clinical finding that leads you to suspect cyanide toxicity due to sorghum or hydrangea ingestion
Bright charred blood or mucus membranes
300
How do you treat cyanide toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion
Sodium nitrite ( makes methemoglobin which binds the cyanide) and sodium thiosulfate (helps react with the cyanide to be excreted in urine)
301
Which plants are nitrate accumulating leading to toxicity mostly in ruminants
Pigweed, nightshades, sorghum (also has cyanide), rye, alfalfa
302
Why does nitrate toxicity affect mostly ruminants when ingested by toxic plants
Rumen microbes reduce nitrate to nitrite - which cases the methemoglobinemia, leading to diminished oxygen carrying capacity
303
Why is methemoglobinemia bad
Methemoglobin can't bind oxygen so can't carry oxygen to the tissues
304
What is almost pathopneumonic for nitrate toxicity
Dark brown blood due to diminished oxygen carrying capacity
305
What clinical signs can be associated with nitrate toxicity due to toxic plant ingestion
Muddy mucous membranes, dysenea, tremorss, convulsions, ataxia, tachycardia
306
How do you treat nitrate toxicity de to plant ingestion like alfalfa, pigweed or nightshades
1% Methylene blue - reduce methemoglobin to invest oxygen carrying capacity
307
Give some examples of cardiotoxic plants
Oleander, yew, rhododendron, foxglove
308
What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander
AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death
309
What clinical signs might you see from cardiotoxic pants like oleander
AV block, weakness, hypotension salivation, nausea , vomiting, collapse and acute death
310
What is an AV block in simple terms
Electrical signal from atria to the ventricles is impaired
311
Define hematochezia
Frank blood in feces
312
What treatments can you perform to treat cardio toxic plant ingestion like with yew and rhododendron
Emiesis if recent, activated charcoal, atropine to increase heart rate it severe bradycardia, quinidine for av block
313
What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization
St. John's wart
314
What plant is the causative agent of primary photosensitization
St. John's wart
315
What plants can cause secondary photosensitization
Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica
316
What plants can cause secondary photosensitization
Any plant cau sing liver failure - blue green algae, groundsel , brassica
317
Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis
Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary
318
Describe primary photosensitization and its prognosis
Ingested ur absorbed agent is metabolized to become photodynamic which causes free radical damage - usually affects skin mostly and has a better prognosis than secondary
319
Describe secondary photosensitization
Impaired hepatic function reduces exaction of plant pigment like phylloeythin which causes damage to the liver along with skin lesions
320
What clinical signs can you see with photo sensitizing plants like blue green algae or St. John's wort
Erytrena, edema, peeling, prorates, hyperesthesia, can cause exudation and ulceration
321
Which species is most affected by lupine toxicity (neurotoxic plant ingestion)
Sheep - a teratogen in cattle
322
Define a teratogen
Factor that causes information of an embryo
323
Define a teratogen
Factor that causes information of an embryo
324
What clinical signs might you see with lupine toxicity
Salivation, incoordination, head pressing, wandering, excitement, mode tremors, seizures, dyspnea
325
How does lupine toxicity affect calves
Causes crooked calf syndrome, scoliosis, carpal flexure - teratogen in cattle
326
How do you treat lupine neurotoxicity in sheep
No treatment
327
What clinical signs could you see with poison hemlock ingestion and when would you see them
Very rapid development - salivation, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle tremors, death from respiratory failure
328
How do you treat poison hemlock ingestion
No specific treatment
329
How does larkspur cause toxicity
Is a neuromuscular blocker causing neurotoxicity
330
What clinical signs can you see from larkspur toxicity
Bloat, excitability , muscle tremors, arrhythmias, death from respiratory paralysis
331
How does nightshade ingestion cause toxicity
Nitrate accumulation but also a GI irritant and a neurotoxin
332
What clinical signs could you see with nightshade toxicity
Anorexia, apathy, Paresis, prostration, vomiting, abdominal pain
333
Which species are usually affected by bracken fern toxicity
Cathe, sheep, pigs, horses
334
How is bracken fern toxic
Leads to a thiamine deficiencies which cause polioencephalo malacia, also leads to carcinogenicity and bore marrow suppression in ruminants by affecting DNA
335
What clinical signs could you see with Bracken fern toxicity
Incoordination, standing with legs apart, depression muscle tremors, blinders, retinal degeneration
336
Which species is most susceptible to black walnut toxicity and now do they usually get exposed
Horses - exposure from bedding/shavings
337
What clinical signs might you see from black walnut toxicity
Acute laminitis from necrosis of dorsal laminae, distal limb edema, fever
338
What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity
Mineral oil or activated charcoal
339
What are 2 options to decontaminate the git after toxicity
Mineral oil or activated charcoal
340
How is castor bean toxic
Contains ricin that has a highly toxic glycoprotein
341
What clinical signs might you see from caster bean toxicity
Anorexia, vomiting, weakness, Mosley spasms, sweating, ataxia, extensive organ edema and damage
342
How does cottonseed cause toxicity? Which species are affected
Contains gossypol which can be cardio toxic to young animals - affects cattle, sheep and pigs
343
What clinical signs can you see with cottonseed/ gossypol toxicity
Sudden death due to heart failure, anorexia, redurire, pot belly appearance, por performance
344
What clinical signs can you see with dumbing plant toxicity
Irritated mm, ptyalism, edematous swelling of tongue and lips, difficulty swallowing
345
What clinical signs could you see with locoweed toxicity
Ataxia, hypermetria, cracker heels, conscious proprioceptive deficits, emaciation, emphysema, abortions
346
How does waterhemlock cause toxicity
Contains circutoxin highly toxic to the cattle and horses
347
What clinical signs are caused by water hemlock toxicity
Acute violent titanic seizures I rapid progression from salivation to muscle twitching, seizures, coma, death
348
How is yellow star thistle toxic
Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown
349
How is yellow star thistle toxic
Nigropallidal encephalomalicia - chewing disease, causative agent unknown
350
What clinical signs do you see with yellow star thistle
Inability to eat and drink due to dystonia of lips and tongue, continuous chewing motions, behavior changes, chewing and dropping food
351
How does perilla mint cause toxicity
Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion
352
How does perilla mint cause toxicity
Causes pulmonary edema and pleural effusion
353
What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity
Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge
354
What clinical signs can you see with perilla mint toxicity
Respiratory distress due to atypical intestinal edema and emphysema , nasal discharge
355
What is another name for western false hellebore and what is it known for causing
Veratrum Californium - cyclopia in lambs if ewe eat plant on day 14
356
Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic
Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk
357
Who is affected by white snakeroot toxicity and how is it toxic
Horses and cattle affected - contains trematone (a ketone) passed to young in milk
358
What clinical signs could you see with white snakeroot toxicity
Weakness, myocardial necrosis and CHF, jugular push, muscle tremors , acetone breath
359
How does red maple cause toxicity in horses
Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria
360
How does red maple cause toxicity in horses
Causes Red blood cell lysis leading to icterus, anemia, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria
361
How does ponderosa pine cause toxicity
Pine needle abortions - weak contractions , small calf, retained fetal membranes
362
What is a normal PaCO2
Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50
363
What is a normal PaCO2
Normal - 35 to 45
Hyperventilation less than 30
Hypoventilation over 50
364
How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine
They don't usually cross joints
365
How can you help rule in or out neoplasia in the spine
They don't usually cross joints
366
What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis
Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin
367
What is usually the causative agent of discospondylitis
Bacterial in origin - staphylococcus usually the origin
368
What could be used to help diagnose discospondylitis
Urine or blood cultures to identify causative bacterial agent
369
- Is a topical drug that can cause ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease
Chlorhexidine
370
What common drug can cause central vestibular disease
Metronidazole
371
Could you use enrofloxacin to treat periodontal disease
No - is not effective against anaerobic bacteria which commonly is found in the mouth
372
Which antibiotic are best to use for oral infections and why
Beta lactams and clindamycin (lincosamide) because of their activity against anaerobes
373
What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump
Pneumothorax
374
What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog with a penetrating trump
Pneumothorax
375
Is cryptosporidium bacterial?
No - it is protozoal
376
Define extramedillary hematopoietis
Red blood cells produced in spleen and liver
377
How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes
Bound to hemoglobin
378
How is oxygen transported by erythrocytes
Bound to hemoglobin
379
What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology
Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink
380
What is the biggest difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes on cytology
Reticulocytes - cytoplasm blue
Erythrocytes - cytoplasm red/pink
381
Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears
Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor
382
Describe differences in the way RBCs look on blood smears
Cats, horses - lack central pallor
Dogs, cattle - small area of central pallor
383
Define polychromasia
Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration
384
Define polychromasia
Increased reticulocytes meaning RBC regeneration
385
What does a high MCHC indicate
Trick question - a cell isn't have excess hemoglobin
386
What does a high MCHC indicate
Trick question - a cell isn't have excess hemoglobin
387
At how many reticulocytes in horse is the anemia considered regenerative
Trick - horses do not release reticulocytes
388
What is a normal pcv value for dogs? Cats? Cows ?
Dogs - 45
Cats - 35
Cows- 35
389
What is a normal pcv value for dogs? Cats? Cows ?
Dogs - 45
Cats - 35
Cows- 35
390
What are possible causes of a microcytic anemia
Iron deficiency, portosystemic shunt, foals less man 6 months just naturally have a low MCV, Japanese breed dogs
391
What are possible causes of a microcytic anemia
Iron deficiency, portosystemic shunt, foals less man 6 months just naturally have a low MCV, Japanese breed dogs
392
What are differentials for a normacytic anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
393
What are differentials for a normacytic anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
394
Hemoglobin synthesis requires -
Iron
395
What are differentials for microcytic anemia
Erythrocyte regeneration, RBC agglutination causing an artificially high MCV, poodles have a poodle macrocutosis , felv infection will increase MCV, cobalamin deficiency
396
What are differentials for a low MCHC
Iron deficiency, erythroid regeneration
397
What are differentials for a normal MCHC with in anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
398
What is a metarubicytosis
Increased nucleated red blood cells
399
What could cause an inappropriate metarubicytosis ( increased nucleated red blood cells without regeneration or anemia at all)
Recent fracture or bone surgery casing release from bone morrow or splenic injury
400
What clinical signs can you see with anemia
Pale mm, syncope, trchuprea, tachycardia, weakness
401
What is the body's normal response to anemia
The hypoxemia stimulates venal cortical cells to release EPO which stimulates erythropoiesis in bone marrow, liver and spleen to release reticulocytes except in horses)
402
How long does it take to see a reticulocytes response in anemia cases
2-3 days but max response is 7-10 days
403
How long does it take to see a reticulocytes response in anemia cases
2-3 days but max response is 7-10 days
404
What are 2 regenerative causes of anemia
Blood loss/ hemorrhage and hemolysis/ destruction
405
What is one non regenerative cause of anemia
Lack of production
406
What are differentials for hemolysis causing a regenerative anemia
RBC parasitism or infection by mycoplasma, babesia, etc , oxidative injury leading to Heinz bodies like with onions, garlic, red maple, copper, etc, immune mediated causes
407
What are differentials for a non regenerative anemia causing lack of RBC production
Chronic renal failure leading to no EPO from renal cortical cells , bone marrow disorder, anemia of chronic disease, liver disease, hypothyroidism
408
What pct value indicates severe anemia in cats and dogs
Less than 23% in both
409
Low albumin and globulin with an anemia suggests _
Blood loss
410
Low albumin and globulin with an anemia suggests _
Blood loss
411
A do g comes in with history of blood loss in the last hour - why could his reticulocutes be normal
Can be pre regenerative anemia - takes 2-3 days to see a response
412
A microcytic hypo chronic anemia suggests what cause
Iron deficiency anemia - iron needed for hemoglobin
413
What can hyper bilirubinemia indicate in a horse
Anorexia - or possibly hemolytic anemia
414
A nonregenerative anemia , azotemia and isosthenuria support what diagnosis
Venal failure with a lack of EPO ( why it is non regenerative)
415
How can platelets be affected with acute blood loss
Can be high due to splenic contraction trying to keep up with blood loss, or can be low due to consumption of platelets thing to control bleeding or normal if too acute
416
How can platelets be affected with acute blood loss
Can be high due to splenic contraction trying to keep up with blood loss, or can be low due to consumption of platelets thing to control bleeding or normal if too acute
417
Chronic external blood loss can lead to - and why
Iron deficiency because iron can't be recycled
418
Is chronic blood loss a regenerative or non regenerative anemia
Usually starts as regenerative then became non regenerative are to decreased availability of iron and hemoglobin
419
What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear
Small pale RBCs, evidence of RBC damage (keratocytes, schistocytes)
420
What retroviral infections can cause hemolysis
FeLV in cats, equine infectious anemia
421
Which rickettsial organisms can cause hemolysis
Anaplasma and erlichia
422
What infectious causes can lead to RBC hemolysis
Mycoplasma, babesia, anaplasma, theileria, cytazoun felis
423
What do Heinz bodies look like
Small red dot at the edge of the red blood cell
424
What do ghost cells indicate
Intravascular hemolysis
425
What do spherocytes, look like
Dark red blood cells except in the horse and the cat they lack central pallor
426
What is the difference between iron deficiency and iron sequestration
Iron deficiency - lack of iron due to issues with heme in hemoglobin
Iron sequestration - iron is tucked away in macrophagesso cat be used for RBC production
427
What is the difference between iron deficiency and iron sequestration
Iron deficiency - lack of iron due to issues with heme in hemoglobin
Iron sequestration - iron is tucked away in macrophagesso cat be used for RBC production
428
What will the proteins look like in cases of anemia of chronic disease /inflammation
Low albumin, high globulin due to inflammation
429
Describe CBC findings in generalized bone marrow disease and why they occur like that
Will see neutropenia first became neutrophil life span is 12 hours, then will see a thrombocytopenia became platelet lifespan is 5-7 days, then will see anemia became RBC lifespan is 3-4 months
430
Describe CBC findings in generalized bone marrow disease and why they occur like that
Will see neutropenia first became neutrophil life span is 12 hours, then will see a thrombocytopenia became platelet lifespan is 5-7 days, then will see anemia became RBC lifespan is 3-4 months
431
What is polycythemia
Erythrocytes / increased PCV and RBC
432
What is polycythemia
Erythrocytes / increased PCV and RBC
433
Who is usually affected by vesicular stomatitis
Pigs, horses, cattle
434
Who is usually affected by vesicular stomatitis
Pigs, horses, cattle
435
What are dohle bodies and what do they look like
Blueish gray dots inside neutrophils that indicate toxic changes
436
Define synovitis
Information of the synovial membrane lining joints
437
What is bog spavin
Affects horses - tarsal hydrarthrosis of both limbs leading to increased synovial fluid , intermittent tarsal distantion
438
What is bog spavin
Affects horses - tarsal hydrarthrosis of both limbs leading to increased synovial fluid , intermittent tarsal distantion
439
What is bone spavin
Osteoarthritis of the hock
440
What is bone spavin
Osteoarthritis of the hock
441
Which species is not affected by pseudorabies
All farm animals are affected except horses
442
What clinical signs will you see with pseudorabies in other species
Severe local pruritis leading to self mutilation, neuro signs causing convulsions, paralysis, respiratory distress, sudden death
443
Why does Dexamethasone work to decrease cerebral edema
A corticosteroid so it helps reduce inflammation
444
White muscle disease is a - disease due to - affecting -
Myodegenerative disease associated with deficiency of vitamin E or selenium - affects horses, ruminants, pigs and poultry
445
Which muscles are mostly affected by white muscle disease and why muscles specifically
Cardiac and skeletal muscles mostly - muscles are pone to damage due to their high metabolic activity
446
Which muscles are mostly affected by white muscle disease and why muscles specifically
Cardiac and skeletal muscles mostly - muscles are pone to damage due to their high metabolic activity
447
Which form of white muscle disease carries a worse prognosis
Cardiac form can cause acute death - the skeletal form is more responsive to treatment
448
What is the pathogenesis of white muscle disease (brief)
Deficiency in selenium or vitamin E means body cant control naturally made oxygen free radicals that cause damage to muscle cells
449
Why would an animal be vitamin E deficient or selenium deficient
Poor quality hay can cause a vitamin E deficiency, certain areas can lack selenium in the soil
450
Why would an animal be vitamin E deficient or selenium deficient
Poor quality hay can cause a vitamin E deficiency, certain areas can lack selenium in the soil
451
What clinical signs can you see with the cardiac form of white muscle disease/ nutritional myodegeneration
Sudden onset, severely debilitated, miss dischorse, respiratory distress, rapid heart beat possibly irregular lesions found on heart, diaphragm and intercostal muscles
452
What clinical signs can you see with the cardiac form of white muscle disease/ nutritional myodegeneration
Sudden onset, severely debilitated, miss dischorse, respiratory distress, rapid heart beat possibly irregular lesions found on heart, diaphragm and intercostal muscles
453
What clinical signs can you see with the skeletal form of white male disease
Mille weakness or stiffness, recumbency, trembling, hard and painful muscles, respiratory distress, dysphagia
454
How can you diagnose white muscle disease
Elevations in AST, CK, myoglobinuria decreased serum vitamin E or selenium - affected muscles of limbs, diaphragm, heart and tongue can look grey to white
455
Why would you use hypertonic saline to treat shock
Increases intrasvascular volume (therefore increasing blood pressure) by making a hyperosmoric state and pulling water from the intracellular space
456
Why would you use hypertonic saline to treat shock
Increases intrasvascular volume (therefore increasing blood pressure) by making a hyperosmoric state and pulling water from the intracellular space
457
If a horse presents with colic signs and signs of shock (increased heart rate, weak pulses, discolored mm) - what do you do first
Place an IV catheter the start on 7% hypertonic saline then add isotonic fluids
458
What are examples of isotonic grids
LRS, 0.9% nacl (normal saline)
459
What are examples of isotonic grids
LRS, 0.9% nacl (normal saline)
460
Increased MHz on ultrasound means
Decreased depth but increased detail
461
Increased MHz on ultrasound means
Decreased depth but increased detail
462
Where is the vestibular apparatus located - what is it composed of
Inner ear - includes cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule
463
Where do vestibular neurons travel through and enter the skull
Travel through vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve 8) - enter skull through internal acoustic meatus
464
What 3 cranial nerves (through the vestibular system) control eye position
3 (oculomotor), 4 (trochlear), and 6 (abducens)
465
What clinical signs would you expect to see with peripheral vestibular disease
Head tilt, circling, falling toward the side of the lesion, pathologic nystagmus, concurrent facial paralysis, Horner's syndrome
466
What clinical signs would you expect to see with peripheral vestibular disease
Head tilt, circling, falling toward the side of the lesion, pathologic nystagmus, concurrent facial paralysis, Horner's syndrome
467
Describe bilateral peripheral vestibular disease
Rare - don't see a head tilt r nystagmus like with unilateral - main sign will be a wide crouching stance with hide swaying of the head
468
If you find Horners syndrome on your neuro exam - what disease is indicated
Peripheral vestibular disease
469
Simplify Horners disease to 3 clinical signs
Miosis, ptosis, enophthalomas
470
What disease is indicated by conscious proprioceptive deficits
Brainstem disease
471
What do cranial nerve deficits indicate
Multiple deficits indicates central disease - facial nerve paralysis can mean peripheral disease
472
What do cranial nerve deficits indicate
Multiple deficits indicates central disease - facial nerve paralysis can mean peripheral disease
473
What does the presence of a head tremor indicate
Cerebella disease
474
What does altered mention on neuro exam indicate
Central disease
475
How on you diagnose peripheral vestibular disease
Otoscopic exam, rads, thyroid testing
476
How on you diagnose peripheral vestibular disease
Otoscopic exam, rads, thyroid testing
477
How can you diagnose central vestibular disease
CT / MRI or CSF analysis
478
How can you diagnose central vestibular disease
CT / MRI or CSF analysis
479
Describe idiopathic vestibular syndrome
Peracute 1 will improve spontaneously in a few dans but the red hilt may not go away completely
480
What would you not use to treat otitis media casing vestibular disease and why
Aminoglycosides due to otoxicity
481
What would you not use to treat otitis media casing vestibular disease and why
Aminoglycosides due to otoxicity
482
What is commonly used to treat Otis media causing vestibular disease
Enrofloxacin
483
What is commonly used to treat Otis media causing vestibular disease
Enrofloxacin
484
What is commonly implicated in causing ototoxicity
Clorohexidine and aminoglycosides
485
What endocrine disorder can cause peripheral vestibular disease and why
Hypothyroidism casing poly neuropathy leading to vestibular signs
486
What are differentials for peripheral vestibular disease
Idiopathic, otitis media , ototoxicity, neoplasia, nasopharyngeal polyps, hypothyroidism
487
What are differentials for central vestibular disease
Neoplasia, drug toxicity (metronidazole ), inflammatory brain disease, cerebrovasculsr disease, thiamine deficiency
488
What drug can cause central vestibular disease and at what dose
Metronidazole at more than 30 mg/kg/day
489
Amlodipine is a- used to treat -
Calcium channel blocker used to treat systemic hypertension
490
What is a rule of thumb when thing to determine secondary copper deficiency
Copper levels in feed should be five times the molybdenum
491
What is a rule of thumb when thing to determine secondary copper deficiency
Copper levels in feed should be five times the molybdenum
492
What ave general causes of uveitis
Infection (viral, bacterial, fungal, rickettsial), immune mediated (lens induced uveitis), neoplasia, hypertension, trauma
493
Oleander and gossypol are both - and can cause -
Cardiotoxic and can cause acute death
494
Fast phase nystagmus is - to the lesion
Away from the lesion
495
Fast phase nystagmus is - to the lesion
Away from the lesion
496
What is the causative agent of anthrax - describe it
Bacillus anthracis - a gram positive aerobic rod, spore forming
497
Anthrax is - and -
Zoonotic and reportable
498
What should not be used to treat suspected fungal infections and why
Glucocorticoids because it can cause immune suppression
499
Describe hypertrophic osteopathy lesions
Dows in association with a thoracic mass, usually startsat distal limbs the moves proximally1 chacteria by periosteol proliferation near joints
500
Describe hypertrophic osteopathy lesions
Dows in association with a thoracic mass, usually startsat distal limbs the moves proximally1 chacteria by periosteol proliferation near joints
501
What is tensilon /edrophonium and what is it used for
Rapid acting anticholinesterase - reverses signs of mystery gravis in minutes in dogs, used as a tensilon response test
502
What an occur secondary to a thymoma
Secondary myasthenia gravis
503
What type of lice can cause anemia
Anoplura - sucking lice
504
What are side effects of using sulfa drugs like trimethoprim sulfa
Hypersensitivity reactions causing urticaria and anaphylaxis - can also cause immune reactions leading to thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, etc
505
What are side effects of using sulfa drugs like trimethoprim sulfa
Hypersensitivity reactions causing urticaria and anaphylaxis - can also cause immune reactions leading to thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, etc
506
How can you differentiate between a septic peritonitis and a non on septic peritonitis
Compare the blood glucose - it the blood glucose is 20 mg/dL higher than the abdominal it is septic
507
How can you differentiate between a septic peritonitis and a non on septic peritonitis
Compare the blood glucose - it the blood glucose is 20 mg/dL higher than the abdominal it is septic
508
Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -
Discospondylitis
509
Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -
Discospondylitis
510
Radiographs sharing vertebral end plate lysis is diagnostic for -
Discospondylitis
511
What normally causes discospondylitis
Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site
512
What normally causes discospondylitis
Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site
513
What normally causes discospondylitis
Hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distantly infected site
514
What is the reversal for xylazine
Yohimbine
515
What is the reversal for xylazine
Yohimbine
516
What is the reversal for diazepam
Flumazenil
517
What is the reversal for diazepam
Flumazenil
518
What is the reversal for medetonidine
Atipemazole
519
What is the reversal for medetonidine
Atipemazole
520
Milkweed ingestion can cause
Acute death - is a cardiac glycoside
521
Milkweed ingestion can cause
Acute death - is a cardiac glycoside
522
What can moldy sweet clover cause
Coagulopathy due to vitamin K antagonism - after consuming for awhile
523
What can moldy sweet clover cause
Coagulopathy due to vitamin K antagonism - after consuming for awhile
524
Bracken fern toxicity causes
Bone marrow depression in ruminants - chronic response
525
Bracken fern toxicity causes
Bone marrow depression in ruminants - chronic response
526
Ragwort is a- causing -
PA causing chronic liver disease
527
What is brown blood called / due to
Methemoglobinemia - can be due to oxidative injury
528
What is brown blood called / due to
Methemoglobinemia - can be due to oxidative injury
529
What on a urinalysis would make you not believe a negative bacteria in the urine
Isosthenuria (low usg) became it is too dilute
530
What on a urinalysis would make you not believe a negative bacteria in the urine
Isosthenuria (low usg) became it is too dilute
531
What is ponazuril approved for use for
Antiprotozal - EPM and some coccidiosis like isospura suis in pigs
532
You find lymphocytic vasculitis on tissue histopath from a cow - what is your diagnosis
Malignant catarrhal fever
533
You find lymphocytic vasculitis on tissue histopath from a cow - what is your diagnosis
Malignant catarrhal fever
534
Left atrial enlargement predisposes to what
Atrial thrombosis leading to a saddle thrombus at the aortic bifurcation
535
Left atrial enlargement predisposes to what
Atrial thrombosis leading to a saddle thrombus at the aortic bifurcation
536
Maine coon cats are predisposed to - at a young age
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
537
Maine coon cats are predisposed to - at a young age
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
538
What is the bunnel suture pattern used for
Oppose severed tendons
539
What is the bunnel suture pattern used for
Oppose severed tendons
540
What is the nadir
Low point of the blood glucose curve, usually 5 -7 hours after insulin administration
541
What is the nadir
Low point of the blood glucose curve, usually 5 -7 hours after insulin administration
542
Why can't doxycycline be used to treat lymphoma
Antibiotic
543
Why can't doxycycline be used to treat lymphoma
Antibiotic
544
Cranial nerve 6 is involved in - so a lesion would cause
Eye movement - leaden lads to medial strabismus
545
Cranial nerve 6 is involved in - so a lesion would cause
Eye movement - leaden lads to medial strabismus
546
Describe what 3rd degree av block looks like on an ECG
No regular PR interval , ventricular escape beats
547
Describe what 3rd degree av block looks like on an ECG
No regular PR interval , ventricular escape beats
548
What is the difference in using itrconazole versus amphotericin B to treat blastomycosis
Amphotericin B has greater side effect risk like nephrotoxicity and is too short of a duration to be as effective as itraconazole
549
What is the difference in using itrconazole versus amphotericin B to treat blastomycosis
Amphotericin B has greater side effect risk like nephrotoxicity and is too short of a duration to be as effective as itraconazole
550
You diagnose blastomycosis in a dog with a wound on forelimb - what do you need to do
Check for metastasis at lymph nodes, ocular, or on chest rads
551
Why is SIBO (small intestine bacterial overgrowth) a sequel to EPI
Pancreatic find has antimicrobial role , altered intestinal motility and decreased immunity due to inappetence causing maknutrition
552
What is anisocytisis
Variation in red blood cell size on blood smear
553
What is anisocytisis
Variation in red blood cell size on blood smear
554
You find rouleax on blood smear of a horse - what does this indicate
Nothing - normal in healthy horses
555
Visceral larval migrans is caused by
Toxocara canis
556
Visceral larval migrans is caused by
ToxoCara canis
557
Cutaneous larval migrans in humans is caused by
Ancyclostoma
558
Cutaneous larval migrans in humans is caused by
Ancyclostoma
559
What indicates an upper GI obstruction
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
560
What indicates an upper GI obstruction
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
561
What is a top expected finding in a dog with Addisons disease
Hyperkalemia
562
What does GGT tell you
Marker of hepatabiliary disorders and cholestasis in large animals
563
What does GGT tell you
Marker of hepatabiliary disorders and cholestasis in large animals
564
What clinical signs can you see with gossypol toxicity - where does it come from
Dysprea, weakness, sudden death - cottonseed
565
What clinical signs can you see with gossypol toxicity - where does it come from
Dysprea, weakness, sudden death - cottonseed
566
What are options to treat blastomycosis in dogs
azole drugs (itraconazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole) or Amphotericin B ( can also do a combination)
567
What are options to treat blastomycosis in dogs
azole drugs (itraconazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole) or Amphotericin B ( can also do a combination)
568
What are some options for treatment with a suspected insulinoma
CRI of glucagon, glucocorticoids to antagonize insulin affects
569
Can you give a CRI of dextrose if an insulinoma is suspected
You could but you risk the tumor responding with a mass release of insulin
569
Can you give a CRI of dextrose if an insulinoma is suspected
You could but you risk the tumor responding with a mass release of insulin
570
What plant can cause CNS abnormalities and abortion in grazing animals? When are you likely to see cases
Locoweed- often see when food supply is limited/scarce, usually out west
571
What plant can cause CNS abnormalities and abortion in grazing animals? When are you likely to see cases
Locoweed- often see when food supply is limited/scarce, usually out west
572
What are possible side effects of contrast used in myelograms
Seizures
573
What are possible side effects of contrast used in myelograms
Seizures
574
What is the difference between the DAPP and DHPP vaccine
Nothing - same vaccine; stands for distemper, adenovirus , parvovirus and parainfluenza virus and sometimes it is called dhpp because adenovins causes hepatitis (so distemper, hepatitis, parvo and parainfluenza )
575
How early on you give a dhpp vaccine in puppies
Minimum 6 weeks old
576
How early on you give a dhpp vaccine in puppies
Minimum 6 weeks old
577
When can you heartworm test puppies for the first time
6-7 months old (that’s the prepatent period - period from infection to clinical signs) at the earliest heartworms will develop
578
What is the treatment of choice for coccidiomycosis
Fluconazole - can also use ketoconazole and itraconazole
579
Finding spherules on cytology indicates -
Pathopneumonic for coccidiomycosis
580
Finding spherules on cytology indicates -
Pathopneumonic for coccidiomycosis
581
What is the cushings reflex
Increased intracranial pressure leads to hypertension and bradycardia
582
What is the cushings reflex
Increased intracranial pressure leads to hypertension and bradycardia
583
What at home modifications can be made for a dog with megaesophagus
High calorie diet (so less volume) and fed right at 45 to 90 degree angle so food goes straight to stomach / sit for 10-15 minutes to prevent regurg
584
Omeprazole is a_ used to -
Proton pump inhibitor used to prevent gastric ulcers
585
Omeprazole is a_ used to -
Proton pump inhibitor used to prevent gastric ulcers
586
How an anthrax affect humans
Cutaneous anthrax causing vesicles then ulcerations with edema, black eschar (tissue that dies and falls off) or GI anthrax hon eating contaminated meat causing vomiting, abdominal pain, hemorrhagic diarrhea
587
Describe the respiratory form of anthrax in humans
Inhalation, causing severe disease with almost 100% mortality , causes severe bacteremia, shock - death in 2 to 3 days from bacillus endotoxins
588
Describe the respiratory form of anthrax in humans
Inhalation, causing severe disease with almost 100% mortality , causes severe bacteremia, shock - death in 2 to 3 days from bacillus endotoxins
589
How do you treat anthrax
Ciprofloxacin (main), doxycycline, penicillins for 60 days - prophylctically that the herd with affected animal
590
What signs can you see with fiddleneck
A pyrrazalidine alkaloid plant so hepatotoxic with 3 classic signs - megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia and fibrosis, then inter secondary photosensitization
591
What signs can you see with fiddleneck
A pyrrazalidine alkaloid plant so hepatotoxic with 3 classic signs - megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia and fibrosis, then inter secondary photosensitization
592
How do you give diazepam and why
IV - painful if given IM and has poor absorption that way
593
How do you give diazepam and why
IV - painful if given IM and has poor absorption that way
594
What side effects can you see when using ketamine
Increased muscle tore, increase heart rate, increase arterial pressure - can also cause apneic breathing and induce seizures (also ataxia when waking up)
595
What side effects can you see when using ketamine
Increased muscle tore, increase heart rate, increase arterial pressure - can also cause apneic breathing and induce seizures (also ataxia when waking up)
596
What is phacoemulsification
The procedure to remove cataracts
597
What is the treatment of choice for proptosis (sudden propulsion of eye)
Tarrsoharphy
598
What is the treatment of choice for proptosis (sudden propulsion of eye)
Tarrsoharphy
599
What side effects can you see with perilla mint ingestion
Causes intentional pneumonia which can be fatal by causing permanent fibrosis
600
What side effects can you see with perilla mint ingestion
Causes intentional pneumonia which can be fatal by causing permanent fibrosis
601
How can you diagnose feline acromegaly - what is usually the cause
Pituitary tumor - measure IGF1 in serum
602
What is important to remember when prescribing a drug like prednisone
Whether you need an anti inflammatory dose or immunosuppressive dose
603
What is important to remember when prescribing a drug like prednisone
Whether you need an anti inflammatory dose or immunosuppressive dose
604
What congenital conditions are involved in the general term of elbow displasia
Ununited anconeal process , OCD of humoral condyle, elbow incongruency and fragmented medial coronoid process
605
What is mitotane used for
Treat cushings disease
606
What is mitotane used for
Treat cushings disease
607
What on rads on cause bony lysis and politician lesions that cross a joint
Synovial cell sarcoma
608
What are side effects of lidocaine toxicity
CNS affects (before cardiac or respiratory depression)
609
What are side effects of lidocaine toxicity
CNS affects (before cardiac or respiratory depression)
610
Corticosteroids have been associated with the onset of - in cats
Congestive heart failure
611
Corticosteroids have been associated with the onset of - in cats
Congestive heart failure
612
What is cranial nerve 8
Vestibulocochlear nerve
613
What is cranial nerve 8
Vestibulocochlear nerve
614
What are some general differentials for hypercalcemia
Hypoadrenocorticism (addisons), renal insufficiency, and lymphoma
615
What are some general differentials for hypercalcemia
Hypoadrenocorticism (addisons), renal insufficiency, and lymphoma
616
Define hypercalcemia (numbers!)
Seam - total calcium over 12 Or ionized calcium over 1.4
617
How does PTH (parathyroid hormone) regulate calcium
PTH causes increased calcium and phosphorous mobilization from the bone and promotes phosphate excretion, calcium retention by the kidneys - so increases calcium and decreases phosphorous
618
How does calcitriol affect calcium
Increases calcium absorption from the intestines and increases phosphorus also
619
How does calcitriol affect calcium
Increases calcium absorption from the intestines and increases phosphorus also
620
Where does calcitriol come from
Kidney
621
Where does calcitriol come from
Kidney
622
How does calcitonin affect calcium - where does it come from
Thyroid gland - reduces calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption
623
How does calcitonin affect calcium - where does it come from
Thyroid gland - reduces calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption
624
What 3 things regulate calcium in the body
PTH, calcitriol, calcitonin
625
What 3 things regulate calcium in the body
PTH, calcitriol, calcitonin
626
What are common clinical signs of hypercalcemia
Pu/pd, anorexia, weakness , seizures, muscle temors, arrhythmias, constipation
627
What is one way to remember the many differentials hypercalcemia
Gosh darn it - granulomatous disease ,osteolytic disease (neoplasia, osteomyelitis), spurious (hemolysis, lipemic, laberror), hyperparthyroïdism, drugs (thiazides), Addison diseasevenal failure , nutritional (hupervitaminosis D), idiopathic, Tumors (bone osteolysis, humoral hypercalcemia )
628
What ratio of sodium to potassium is suggestive of Addison’s disease
Less than 27 sodium to 1 potassium
629
What is the fluid of choice for treating huperakemia
0.9% Na Cl - regular saline
630
What is the fluid of choice for treating huperakemia
0.9% Na Cl - regular saline
631
What can you give for emergency treatment of hypercalcemia
Sodium bicarbonate to decrease ionized calcium that is generally causing clinical signs
632
Describe pulses paradoxus
Pulse weaker on inspiration and stronger on expiration - exaggeration in normal pulse variations
633
What could pulses paradoxes in a cow indicate
Constrictive pericarditis or pericardial effusion
634
What is the only cause of nuclear sclerosis
Age
635
What is the only cause of nuclear sclerosis
Age
636
Dinhetic cathats are more common in - and not seen in
Seen in dogs, not cats
637
Dinhetic cathats are more common in - and not seen in
Seen in dogs, not cats
638
Alfatoxins are potent - found primarily in -
Hepatotoxins found mostly in moldy grains
639
Where dues CSF accumulate
Subarachnoid space
640
In an animal with notable diarrhea, what would you expect their acid base bloodies results to be and why
At least a metabolic academic because of all the bicarbonate (abase) lost in feces
641
In acid base analysis, what two things an you evaluate to determine if there is respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidenia
Elevated respiratory rate and a low PCO2 indicates compensation
642
In acid base analysis, what two things an you evaluate to determine if there is respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidenia
Elevated respiratory rate and a low PCO2 indicates compensation
643
What is tylosin
Broad spectrum macrolide antibiotic and feed additive
644
What is tylosin
Broad spectrum macrolide antibiotic and feed additive
645
What does oliguric renal failure mean
Lower than normal urine output
646
What does oliguric renal failure mean
Lower than normal urine output
647
What does oliguric renal failure mean
Lower than normal urine output
648
Praziquantel is used for treatment of
Tapeworm infections
649
Praziquantel is used for treatment of
Tapeworm infections
650
What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections
Ivermectin or fenbendazole
651
What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections
Ivermectin or fenbendazole
652
What is commonly used to treat stronghold infections
Ivermectin or fenbendazole
653
What are side effects of medetomidine
Peripheral vasoconstriction and bradycardia
654
What are side effects of medetomidine
Peripheral vasoconstriction and bradycardia
655
Describe what hyperkalemia would look like on an ECG
Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex I lack of p waves and tall T waves
656
Describe what hyperkalemia would look like on an ECG
Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex I lack of p waves and tall T waves
657
Describe the general HPA axis
Hypothalamus produces CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone), which causes the pituitary gland to produce ACTH, then causing the adrenal gland on the kidney to produce cortisol
658
Describe the general HPA axis
Hypothalamus produces CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone), which causes the pituitary gland to produce ACTH, then causing the adrenal gland on the kidney to produce cortisol
659
What would you see on routine labwork in a dog with cushings
Stress leukogram , elevated alp, hyposthenuria (less than 1.01)
660
What would you see on routine labwork in a dog with cushings
Stress leukogram , elevated alp, hyposthenuria (less than 1.01)
661
What diagnostic test for cushings is used as a screening test but can also be used to differentiate between PDH and ADH
Low dose Dex suppression test
662
Describe the low dose dex suppression test in a dog with cushings
Measure plasma cortisol at 4 and 8 hours after IV Dexamethasone - if cushings, the 8 hour cortisol will be over 1,4
663
How can you use the low dose dex suppression test to differentiate between PDH and ADH
At 4 hours in a dog with psh, the cortisol level will be less than 50% of starting cortisol - if it is ADH it won't be
664
Describe the ACTH stim test and its purpose in diagnosing cushings
Measure control before and after giving ACTH - an exaggerated response indicates cushings, used more to monitor treatment of cushings now (will not diagnose PTH)
665
How can an abdominal ultrasound help diagnose cushings
Look for an adrenal mass (making too much cortisol) or bilaterally enlarged adrenal glands expected with PDH
666
What is the purpose of the urine cortisol creatinine ratio
If Cushings, the ratio of cortisol to creatinine is higher in spite of the urine dilution
667
What are treatment options for cushings
Mitotane causes adrenocorticolysis or trilostane that inhibits cortisol and aldosterone
668
What are treatment options for cushings
Mitotane causes adrenocorticolysis or trilostane that inhibits cortisol and aldosterone
669
What structures keep the femoral head in place within the acetabulum, preventing coxofemoral luxation
Ligament of the head of the femur, dorsal acetabular rim, joint capsule
670
What structures keep the femoral head in place within the acetabulum, preventing coxofemoral luxation
Ligament of the head of the femur, dorsal acetabular rim, joint capsule
671
Which species is susceptible to corticosteroid induced partuition
Cows
672
Which species is susceptible to corticosteroid induced partuition
Cows
673
What is the risk of using a too long endotracheal tube during anesthesia
Risk of rebreathing
674
What is the risk of using a too long endotracheal tube during anesthesia
Risk of rebreathing
675
Describe hydrocodone and its purpose
Antitussive cough suppressant, semisynthetic opioid for analgesia
676
What is the treatment for hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment) due to systemic hypertension - what is the prognosis
Amlodipine - if you stabilize the blood pressure the retina can reattach over time
677
What is the treatment for hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment) due to systemic hypertension - what is the prognosis
Amlodipine - if you stabilize the blood pressure the retina can reattach over time
678
Describe the function of amlodipine
Calcium channel blocker - Treats hypertension by preventing calcium influx into smooth muscle cells, causes vasodilation
679
What kind of parasite is toxocara canis
Roundworm (nematode)
680
What would you see on abdominocentesis that would confirm septic peritonitis.
Informatory process and finding of intracellular bacteria
681
What are clinical signs in cria that might indicate choanal atresia
Labored breathing, prolonged and difficult expiration, open mouth breathing, choking or gagging while nursing, cyanosis and other congenital abnormalities
682
What are clinical signs in cria that might indicate choanal atresia
Labored breathing, prolonged and difficult expiration, open mouth breathing, choking or gagging while nursing, cyanosis and other congenital abnormalities
683
What is choanal atresia
When the opening between the nasal and pharyngeal aver is blocked by membranous tissue and or bone
684
What is a normal schirmer tear test value
Over 15 mm/min
685
What is a normal schirmer tear test value
Over 15 mm/min
686
What is a normal schirmer tear test value
Over 15 mm/min
687
Describe dermatophilosis congenitalis (cause of rain rot) on cytology
Railroad tack appears with long branching chains of gram positive cocci
688
Describe dermatophilosis congenitalis (cause of rain rot) on cytology
Railroad tack appears with long branching chains of gram positive cocci
689
What is the treatment for Giardia
Fenbendazole first, metronidazole second
690
What is the treatment for Giardia
Fenbendazole first, metronidazole second
691
Will tetanus antitoxin reverse clinical signs of tetanus
No - will prevent further binding of the tetanus toxin but want reverse signs
692
Will tetanus antitoxin reverse clinical signs of tetanus
No - will prevent further binding of the tetanus toxin but want reverse signs
693
How should you go about treating an animal with Tetanus if tetanus antitoxin doesn't reverse clinical signs
Sedation, wound debridement, antibiotics, minimize external stimuli - still give the antitoxin because it will reduce progression of disease
694
How should you go about treating an animal with Tetanus if tetanus antitoxin doesn't reverse clinical signs
Sedation, wound debridement, antibiotics, minimize external stimuli - still give the antitoxin because it will reduce progression of disease
695
Describe atenolol - what is it used for
Beta blocker - used to treat HCM in cats because it decreases contractility and hart rate allowing better filling of heart chambers before contraction
696
What clinical signs will you see initially with lidocaine toxicity - what about later on
Muscle tremors, seizures, neuro signs initially - later will see cardiovascular and respiratory depression
697
What clinical signs will you see initially with lidocaine toxicity - what about later on
Muscle tremors, seizures, neuro signs initially - later will see cardiovascular and respiratory depression
698
Lymphocytic plasma cystic enteritis is consistent with -
Inflammatory bowel disease
699
What is trichodectes
Chewing louse
700
What is trichodectes
Chewing louse
701
What is known as talking dandruff and what does it cause
Chyletiella mites casing intense pruritis and skin flaking
702
What are common side effects of azothioprine that have to be discussed with the owner
GI upset, bone marrow suppression , hepatotoxicity, acute pancreatitis
703
What are common side effects of azothioprine that have to be discussed with the owner
GI upset, bone marrow suppression , hepatotoxicity, acute pancreatitis
704
Creatinine is produced by _ and cleared by -
Produced by muscle , cleared by kidney
705
Creatinine is produced by _ and cleared by -
Produced by muscle , cleared by kidney
706
What bloodwork value indicates muscle damage
Creatinine kinase - enzyme found in skeletal muscle
707
What bloodwork value indicates muscle damage
Creatinine kinase - enzyme found in skeletal muscle
708
What do liver enzymes like alp and AST tell yw about liver function
Not a damn thing - they indicate injury to liver cells or cholestasis (decreased bile flow)
709
What do liver enzymes like alp and AST tell yw about liver function
Not a damn thing - they indicate injury to liver cells or cholestasis (decreased bile flow)
710
What would be the purpose of adding a fentynal infusion with inhalant gas anesthetic
Fentanyl is a great analgesic and decrease concentration of gas inhalant needed, reducing side effects
711
What would be the purpose of adding a fentynal infusion with inhalant gas anesthetic
Fentanyl is a great analgesic and decrease concentration of gas inhalant needed, reducing side effects
712
What would you be if you want a patient to be completely still during anesthesia
Neuromuscular blocking agent like succinylcholine or pancuronium
713
What would you be if you want a patient to be completely still during anesthesia
Neuromuscular blocking agent like succinylcholine or pancuronium
714
What is the reversal for neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine
Edrophonium
715
What is the reversal for neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine
Edrophonium
716
Mannitol acts as a diuretic by - while furosemide acts by
Osmotically pulling water into tubules, while furosemide is a loop diuretic acting at the loop of henle
717
What is spiranolactone
Aldosterone antagonist - works against aldosterone to prevent excess water resorption (promoting water exaction as a diuretic)
718
What is spiranolactone
Aldosterone antagonist - works against aldosterone to prevent excess water resorption (promoting water exaction as a diuretic)
719
What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear
Hypochromic and microcytic
720
What will iron deficiency look like on blood smear
Hypochromic and microcytic
721
What do spherocytes look like on blood smear - what do they indicate
Smaller, Dark red, no central pallor - indicate IMHA
722
What do spherocytes look like on blood smear - what do they indicate
Smaller, Dark red, no central pallor - indicate IMHA
723
What is n actetlcystine used to treat
Acetaminophen and hepatotoxicity
724
What is n actetlcystine used to treat
Acetaminophen and hepatotoxicity
725
What chelator is commonly used for lead poisoning
Calcium EDTA
726
What chelator is commonly used for lead poisoning
Calcium EDTA
727
What is D penacillamine used for
To chelate copper toxicity usually
728
What is D penacillamine used for
To chelate copper toxicity usually
729
U TLI test is used to test for
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
730
U TLI test is used to test for
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
731
What is pentoxyfylline used for
Reduces the viscosity of blood, improve circulation and leading to skin healing and a decrease in information
732
What is pentoxyfylline used for
Reduces the viscosity of blood, improve circulation and leading to skin healing and a decrease in information
733
What is panniculitis
Inflammation of the subQ
734
What is panniculitis
Inflammation of the subQ
735
What do neomycin, polymyxin B and bacitracin have in common
All antibiotics
736
What do neomycin, polymyxin B and bacitracin have in common
All antibiotics
737
What's the complication with too much histamine release from mast cell humors
Increased gastric acid secretion leading to gastric ulceration and GI bleeding
738
What are famotidine, ranitidine snd cemetidine all described as
H2 blockers (histamine)
739
What are famotidine, ranitidine snd cemetidine all described as
H2 blockers (histamine)
740
What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs
Diphenhydramine
741
What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs
Diphenhydramine
742
What H1 blocker can be used to treat mast cells in dogs
Diphenhydramine
743
What organisms usually cause endocarditis
Staph, strep, bartonella, Corneybacterium, pseudomonas, erysipelothrix, E. Coli
744
What organisms usually cause endocarditis
Staph, strep, bartonella, Corneybacterium, pseudomonas, erysipelothrix, E. Coli
745
What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloroc acid
746
What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloride acid
747
What acid base disturbance occurs with gastric outflow obstruction and why
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis - vomiting up the acidic hydrochloride acid
748
What is the incubation period for tetanus and why
2 weeks - takes time for closhidal spores to grow and release toxin
749
What is the incubation period for tetanus and why
2 weeks - takes time for closhidal spores to grow and release toxin
750
What should you do if a patient presents with a hyperkalemia and bradycardia
Check an electrocardiogram for arrhythmias
751
What should you do if a patient presents with a hyperkalemia and bradycardia
Check an electrocardiogram for arrhythmias
752
Pulmonary hypertension results in
Right sided heart failure
753
Pulmonary hypertension results in
Right sided heart failure
754
What part of the brain is responsible for regulation of coordination, balance and posture
Cerebellum
755
What part of the brain is responsible for regulation of coordination, balance and posture
Cerebellum
756
Where are you likely to find a hemangiosarcoma in the heart
Right auricle
757
Where are you likely to find a hemangiosarcoma in the heart
Right auricle
758
A lack of menace reflex indicates a lesion where
Cranial nerve 7
759
A lack of menace reflex indicates a lesion where
Cranial nerve 7
760
A lack of palpebral reflex indicates a lesion where
Cranial nerve 5 - trigeminal
761
A lack of palpebral reflex indicates a lesion where
Cranial nerve 5 - trigeminal
762
What are common causes of a neutropenia
Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis
763
What are common causes of a neutropenia
Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis
764
What are common causes of a neutropenia
Bacterial septicemia, endotoxemia due to gi disease, coliform mastitis, metritis
765
What are sebaceous glands
Glands in skin that produce sebum that keratins skin moisture
766
What are sebaceous glands
Glands in skin that produce sebum that keratins skin moisture
767
Which species have nucleated red blood cells
Birds and reptiles
768
What is the function of the cox 2 pathway
Branch that produces inflammatory prostaglandins that also mediate pain
769
Which cox pathway is safer for NSAIDs to inhibit and why
Cox 2 because it is mediating pain and inflammation, more side effects are seen when they inhibit COX 1 pathway because those are the protective prostaglandins
770
Which cox pathway is safer for NSAIDs to inhibit and why
Cox 2 because it is mediating pain and inflammation, more side effects are seen when they inhibit COX 1 pathway because those are the protective prostaglandins
771
What is milk thistle used for
Supplement for dogs with liver disease
772
What is a fibrosarcoma
Highly malignant tumor from uncontrolled growth of fibroblasts
773
What is a fibrosarcoma
Highly malignant tumor from uncontrolled growth of fibroblasts
774
Differentiate between an incisional and excision biopsy
Excisional - removing the whole tumor
Incisional - removing only part of the tumor
775
Differentiate between an incisional and excision biopsy
Excisional - removing the whole tumor
Incisional - removing only part of the tumor
776
When would you choose wide surgical excision versus marginal excision
Marginal excision is for benign tumors usually because it just gets through the reactive tissue, so satellite tumors are often left - wide excision gets through some normal tissue also
777
When would you choose wide surgical excision versus marginal excision
Marginal excision is for benign tumors usually because it just gets through the reactive tissue, so satellite tumors are often left - wide excision gets through some normal tissue also
778
What do mast cell tumors look like on cytology
Deep purple granules, some eosinophils which are attracted to the histamine release
779
Phenobarbital is metabolized by
Liver
780
Phenobarbital is metabolized by
Liver
781
If phenobarb is metabolized by the liver, why do you need to monitor kidney valves
Barbiturates can cause hypotension which at high doses can cause renal impairment
782
Which drugs can cause splenic enlargement and sequestration of the spleen
Acepromazine and thiobarbituates like thiopental
783
Halothane is metabolized by
The liver
784
Halothane is metabolized by
The liver
785
What does ergot alkaloid toxicity cause in animals
Agalactia and failure of mammary development, vasoconstriction reducing blood flow evenly leading to necrosis of limbs and hypothermia
786
What does ergot alkaloid toxicity cause in animals
Agalactia and failure of mammary development, vasoconstriction reducing blood flow evenly leading to necrosis of limbs and hypothermia
787
What do you see with aflatoxins
Aflatoxin is a mycotoxin that causes hepatocellular damage
788
What is macconkeys agar used to grow
Gram negative bacteria - E. Coli, klebsiella, salmonella, pseudomonas, bordetella
789
What is macconkeys agar used to grow
Gram negative bacteria - E. Coli, klebsiella, salmonella, pseudomonas, bordetella
790
When can you perform total hip replacements
When the phases in that area have fully closed
791
When can you perform total hip replacements
When the phases in that area have fully closed
792
When can you perform total hip replacements
When the phases in that area have fully closed
793
What is quinidine used to treat
Atrial fibrillation in horses
794
What is quinidine used to treat
Atrial fibrillation in horses
795
Differentiate between pyothorax and chylothorax
Pyothorax - pus accumulation in the thorax
Chylothorox - accumulation of lymphatic find in the thorax
796
Differentiate between pyothorax and chylothorax
Pyothorax - pus accumulation in the thorax
Chylothorox - accumulation of lymphatic find in the thorax
797
Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this
Pyothorax
798
Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this
Pyothorax
799
Fluid from a thoracocentesis reveals a yellow to white tinged find with a foul odor - what is this
Pyothorax
800
What are common causes of Pyothorax
Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia
801
What are common causes of Pyothorax
Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia
802
What are common causes of Pyothorax
Migrating foreign body , trauma or wound that allows bacteria to enter, extension of a pneumonia
803
What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects
Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)
804
What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects
Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)
805
What is happening that causes the holosystolic murmur heard with ventricular septal detects
Blood is being shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side during systole (heart contraction)
806
What is one thing a rebreathing system has that a nonrebreathing (Bain) system does not
Rebreathing has a soda line canister - Bain does not
807
What is one thing a rebreathing system has that a nonrebreathing (Bain) system does not
Rebreathing has a soda line canister - Bain does not
808
Which muscles and nerves are responsible for urination and holding the bladder
The pelvic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to contract the bladder and release urine, the hypogastic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to relax and the internal sphincter to connect und lastly the pudendal serve stimulates the external sphincter to contact (holding urine in)
809
Which muscles and nerves are responsible for urination and holding the bladder
The pelvic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to contract the bladder and release urine, the hypogastic nerve stimulates the detrusor muscle to relax and the internal sphincter to connect und lastly the pudendal serve stimulates the external sphincter to contact (holding urine in)
810
Holding urine involves the - system while voiding urine involves the - system
Holding - sympathetic system (hypogastric and pudendal nerves)
Voiding - parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)
811
Holding urine involves the - system while voiding urine involves the - system
Holding - sympathetic system (hypogastric and pudendal nerves)
Voiding - parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)
812
What kind of suture do you want to use when suturing skin
Non absorbable (so no pds) and monofilament - multifilament has too much risk of contamination
813
What kind of suture do you want to use when suturing skin
Non absorbable (so no pds) and monofilament - multifilament has too much risk of contamination
814
Give 2 examples of synthetic monofilament absorbable sutures
PDS and monocryl
815
Give 2 examples of synthetic monofilament absorbable sutures
PDS and monocryl
816
Describe vicryl suture - how is it different from PDS
Synthetic absorbable multifilament - PDS is a monofilament
817
Describe vicryl suture - how is it different from PDS
Synthetic absorbable multifilament - PDS is a monofilament
818
What type of suture is polypopylene
Synthetic non absorbable monofilament
819
What type of suture is polypopylene
Synthetic non absorbable monofilament
820
What tick transmits babesia
Rhipicephalus annulatus
821
What tick transmits babesia
Rhipicephalus annulatus
822
What are common side effects of dexmedetomidine
Bradycardia, hypertension due to peripheral vasoconstriction , muscle tremors, decreased tear production, occasional AV blocks, hypothermia
823
A nerve avulsion means what
Complete seperation of nerves from the spinal cord
824
A nerve avulsion means what
Complete seperation of nerves from the spinal cord
825
What is the treatment for anaplasma
Oxytetacycline
826
What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma phagocutophilum
Fever, tachycardia, limb edema, petechia, icterus, ataxia
827
What clinical signs can you see with anaplasma phagocutophilum
Fever, tachycardia, limb edema, petechia, icterus, ataxia
828
Allopurinol is used for what
To decrease uric acid production
829
What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)
Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction
830
What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)
Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction
831
What occurs when you shine a light in one eye and why (describe signal pathway)
Signal goes from the retina to the optic nerve, past the chasm and down the optic tract, per to both oculomotor nerves causing bilateral contraction
832
Hyphema and keratic precipitates are specific signs of
Anterior uveitis
833
Hyphema and keratic precipitates are specific signs of
Anterior uveitis
834
What is achromotrichia and what does it indicate
Loss of hair color/dilution of coat color - indicates copper deficiency
835
- Is responsible for lacrimation
Cranial nerve 7
836
Chemotherapy usually targets cells like - because _
Neutrophils became they replicate quickly - neutropenia a common sequela of chemo
837
Echinocutes on blood smear confirm what
Crotalid snake bite
838
What are common organophosphate toxin
Pesticides/ insecticides, some flea and tick collars
839
That are clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity
Muscarinic signs (increased incrimination, hypersalivation, respiratory secretions leading to respiratory distress), weakness, seizures, increased urination and defecation
840
That are clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity
Muscarinic signs (increased incrimination, hypersalivation, respiratory secretions leading to respiratory distress), weakness, seizures, increased urination and defecation
841
What ringworm species typically affects little and horses
Trichophyton verrucosum
842
What ringworm species typically affects little and horses
Trichophyton verrucosum
843
Coughing is associated with which side of heart failure and why
Left sided due to pulmonary edema or bronchial compression due to left atrium enlargement
844
Coughing is associated with which side of heart failure and why
Left sided due to pulmonary edema or bronchial compression due to left atrium enlargement
845
What is amantidine often and for
To treat chronic pain like with osteoarthritis - often used in combo with another pain killer
846
What is galliprant
NSAID for OA pain and inflammation
847
What is galliprant
NSAID for OA pain and inflammation
848
Is gabapentin an NSAID
No - an anticonvulsant and analgesic but does not treat inflammation
849
What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus
flavivirus
850
What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus
flavivirus
851
What type of virus is bvd, hog cholera and border disease virus
flavivirus
852
Mucoid ocular discharge is a sign of
KCS
853
What is glycopyrrolate often used for
To trest bradycardia and in turn hypotension under anesthesia
854
What is glycopyrrolate often used for
To trest bradycardia and in turn hypotension under anesthesia
855
When would you reach for a dopamine CRI for a patient under anesthesia
If they don't respond to an anticholinergic like glycopyrrolate and atropine
856
When would you reach for a dopamine CRI for a patient under anesthesia
If they don't respond to an anticholinergic like glycopyrrolate and atropine
857
What does low grade mean when talking about tumors
Low likelihood of metastasis
858
What does low grade mean when talking about tumors
Low likelihood of metastasis
859
What would be diagnostic for fip
Pyogranulomatous inflammation on biopsy and histopath
860
What would be diagnostic for fip
Pyogranulomatous inflammation on biopsy and histopath
861
What connects the pharynx and the inner ear
Eustuchian tube
862
What connects the pharynx and the inner ear
Eustuchian tube
863
What closes the eye
Orbicularis oculi muscle innovated by the facial nerve
864
What closes the eye
Orbicularis oculi muscle innovated by the facial nerve
865
What opens the eye
Levatator palpebrae superior is innovated by the oculomotor nerve
866
What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what
Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg
867
What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what
Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg
868
What does the femoral nerve supply and injury in calves can lead to what
Quadriceps muscle - injury leads to muscle atrophy , an inability to extend stifle joint and bear weight on the leg
869
What's another name for flukes
Trematodes
870
What's another name for flukes
Trematodes
871
Fiddleneck, groundsel and ragwort all contain which type of toxin
Pyrralazidine alkaloids
872
Fiddleneck, groundsel and ragwort all contain which type of toxin
Pyrralazidine alkaloids
873
Name 3 parapox viruses and which species they affect
Bovine papular stomatitis (cattle), pseudocowpox (cattle), contagious ecythema ( sheep and goats)
874
Name 3 parapox viruses and which species they affect
Bovine papular stomatitis (cattle), pseudocowpox (cattle), contagious ecythema ( sheep and goats)
875
What does dentigerous mean - what is a dentigerous cyst
Bearing teeth or resembling teeth - cyst results from tooth germ tissue in the ear presenting as a swelling under the base of the ear with sera mucous discharge
876
What does dentigerous mean - what is a dentigerous cyst
Bearing teeth or resembling teeth - cyst results from tooth germ tissue in the ear presenting as a swelling under the base of the ear with sera mucous discharge
877
What is adenitis
Inflammation of a gland
878
What is adenitis
Inflammation of a gland
879
How do you treat mycoplasma Bovis
Tulathromycin (macrolides), tetracyclines, tilomycosin
880
What is griseofulvin used for
To treat ringworm / dermatophytosis - organisms like microsporum, trichophyton
881
What cautions are there when using griseofulvin
Hepatotoxic potentially so caution in animals with impaired liver function, can be teratogenic and carcinogenic so caution in food producing animals
882
What cautions are there when using griseofulvin
Hepatotoxic potentially so caution in animals with impaired liver function, can be teratogenic and carcinogenic so caution in food producing animals
883
What type of parasite is Taenia and how do you treat it
Tape worm - treat with praziquantel
884
What type of parasite is Taenia and how do you treat it
Tape worm - treat with praziquantel
885
Metastatic bone tumors usually occur in the - part of the bone while primary bone tumors like osteosarcomas occur - , why?
Metastatic bone tumors - diaphysis of bone because that is there the blood supply is
Primary tumors - metaphysics because that is where cell division mostly occurs
886
Metastatic bone tumors usually occur in the - part of the bone while primary bone tumors like osteosarcomas occur - , why?
Metastatic bone tumors - diaphysis of bone because that is there the blood supply is
Primary tumors - metaphysics because that is where cell division mostly occurs
887
When would a hyponatremia cause neurologic deficits
At 100 - 105 meq/ L
888
When would a hyponatremia cause neurologic deficits
At 100 - 105 meq/ L
889
Describe a type I salter Harris fracture
Fracture through the physis (growth plate - cartilaginous part where longitudinal bone growth occurs)
890
Describe a type 2 salter Harris fracture
Fracture partially through the physis, extending into the metaphysis
891
Describe a type 3 salter Harris fracture
Fracture extending from the physis through the epiphysis
892
Describe a type 4 salter Harris fracture
Fracture through the metaphysis, epiphysis and physis
893
Describe a type 5 salter Harris fracture
Crush injury to the physis
894
What drug class is erythromycin
A macrolide
895
What drug is ronidazole closest to
Metronidazole - both antibacterial and antiprotozoal
896
Blood products are only necessary when -
Active bleeding is already occurring
897
The palpebral reflex test the function of
Cranial nerve 5 - sensory
898
The palpebral reflex test the function of
Cranial nerve 5 - sensory
899
The menace defect tests the function of
Cranial nerve 7 - motor to the eyelids
900
The menace defect tests the function of
Cranial nerve 7 - motor to the eyelids
901
When classifying burns, what are Adnexal structures
Hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, nerve endings
902
What does Staph pseudointermedius look like on cytology
Intracytoplasmic cocci
903
What does Staph pseudointermedius look like on cytology
Intracytoplasmic cocci
904
Compare ck and AST use in evaluating myopathy
CIC has a shorter half life (quicker elevations) and is muscle specific, AST is not muscle specific and shows more gradual changes
905
Compare ck and AST use in evaluating myopathy
CIC has a shorter half life (quicker elevations) and is muscle specific, AST is not muscle specific and shows more gradual changes
906
Cuter bra is the larval form of the
Botfly
907
Staph aureus is host adapted to
Human - most dogs who have it (rare to find) are thought to have gotten it from the humans
908
If you had a protein losing nephropathy case, why would using enalapril help
Enakpril prevent conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 which reduces aldosterone concentrations and causes diuresis , dilating the efferent arterioles of the glomerules
909
If you had a protein losing nephropathy case, why would using enalapril help
Enakpril prevent conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 which reduces aldosterone concentrations and causes diuresis , dilating the efferent arterioles of the glomerules
910
What are 3 uses of enalapril
Vasodilator, antihypertensive agent, heart failure treatment
911
What is affected if you shine a light in each eye and one eye never constricts
Occlomotor nerve-parasympathetic nerve fibers are affected
912
how can you identify a lesion in the occipital context
If dog is not visual there is a lesion
913
How does lactated ringers solution affect potassium
Has bicarbonate in it which alkanizes the body and lowers serum potassium
914
How does lactated ringers solution affect potassium
Has bicarbonate in it which alkanizes the body and lowers serum potassium
915
How can lactated ringers affect sodium levels
Lr has less sodium compared to plasma 150 can cause hyponatremia
916
What fluid type can you use for a patent with hyperkalemia
Lactated ringers - can help lower serum concentration
917
Differentiate between spondylosis and diskospondylitis
Spondylosis - inflammation of vertebral body due to age related changes like OA
Diskospondulitis - inflammation of vertebal body and disc space due to bacterial or fugal infection
918
What clinical signs would you see from cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity and why
Cholecalciferol disrupts calcium homeostasis converting to metabolites in the liver and kidney leading to weakness, anorexia vomiting and metastatic mineralization in kidens leading to renal failure
919
Why does cushings lead to hyperglycemia
Increased production of glucocorticoids which on lead to hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance , which increases glucose in the blood
920
What is pyridostigmine - how does it work
An anticholinesteras used to treat myasthenia gravis long term - helps keep acth on muscle receptor for longer (helps with the muscle weakness from mg(
921
Overdose of metronidazole in dogs can lead to -
Neurologic adverse effects
922
What type of parasite is echinococcus granulosus - what is the primary host reservoir
Tapeworm - rodents primary reservoir
923
Why is echinococcus multilocularis a concern in dogs
It isn't in dogs - dogs are usually asymptomatic, more concerning because of zoonotic transmission to humans leading to lungs and liver cysts
924
What is the causative agent of hyatid cyst disease
Echinococcus
925
What is the causative agent of hyatid cyst disease
Echinococcus
926
How do dogs normally become infected with echinococcus
Dog eats the rodent infected with the tapeworm
927
How do dogs normally become infected with echinococcus
Dog eats the rodent infected with the tapeworm
928
What clinical signs can you see with organophosphate toxicity and why
Toxicity leads to an accumulation of ach which over stimulates muscarinic and nictinic receptors leading to hypersecretions, muscle fasciculations and convulsions
929
What is used to treat gastrointestinal parasites
Iremechin - macrolytic lactones
930
What does the vagus nerve do in cattle
Travels from the brain down through the abdomen, innervates the stomach , affects heart rate, digestion, immune system
931
What does the vagus nerve do in cattle
Travels from the brain down through the abdomen, innervates the stomach , affects heart rate, digestion, immune system
932
What is a paraneoplastic condition
Symptoms that occurs as a reaction to cancer cells
933
What is a paraneoplastic condition
Symptoms that occurs as a reaction to cancer cells
934
What is mastocytosis
Proliferation of neoplastic mast cells
935
What causes emphysematous cystitis
Gas producing bacteria - underlying causes include cushings , diabetes, chronic UTI or bladder stones
936
What clinical signs might you see in a dog with a fever
Inappetence, reluctant to move, lethargy, stiffness, dehydration
937
What does a shiff Sherrington posture look like - what is the cause
Rigid extension or stiffness of thoracic limbs, paralysis or paresis of pelvic limbs - due to injury of the thoracolumbar (t2-l4)
938
What is pthysis bulbi
Shrunken, non functional eye due to severe eye injury or disease
939
What is pthysis bulbi
Shrunken, non functional eye due to severe eye injury or disease
940
What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for
Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs
941
What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for
Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs
942
What type of drug is mexiletine - what can you use it for
Anti arrhythmic - use for vpcs
943
What does achalasia mean
Failure of muscles to relax
944
What does achalasia mean
Failure of muscles to relax
945
What drugs can cause drug induced pemphigus foliaceus in cats
Itraconazole and maybe ampicillin
946
What do you use to treat malessia dermatitis
Fluconazole (or itraconazole or ketoconazole)
947
What is hydrochlorothiazide and what is it used to treat
Diuretic, treats nephrogenic diabetes insidipidus
948
How do you treat central diabetes insipidus and why
Desmopressin (ddavp) - synthetic form of vasopressin which regulates water balance in body
949
How do you treat central diabetes insipidus and why
Desmopressin (ddavp) - synthetic form of vasopressin which regulates water balance in body
950
Give an example of a phenothiazine drug
Acepromazine
951
Terbinafire is used to treat
Dermatophytosis (ringworm)
952
GFR is assessed through
Serum creatinine
953
How do you treat babesiosis
Imidocarb - an anti protozoal
954
What ave tremotodes also known as
Flukes
955
What ave tremotodes also known as
Flukes
956
Will ivermectin treat trematodes (flukes)
No
957
Will ivermectin treat trematodes (flukes)
No
958
After birth, the uterus returns to normal in - days
40 - 50
959
How does MAC relate to potency
A lower MAC means it is more potent
960
What should you be cautious with giving in an endotoxic animal
IV calcium became trey have very sensitive myocardium and could cause arrest
961
Ketamine should be used with caution in patients with a history of
Seizures
962
The round ligament of the bladder is the remnant of
Umbilical arteries
963
The round ligament of the bladder is the remnant of
Umbilical arteries
964
The urachus becomes the _ while the umbilici vein becomes the -
Urachus - middle ligament of bladder
Umbilical vein - falciforn ligament
965
How do you treat mange - either sarcoptic or chorioptes in horses
Ivermectin
966
Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses
No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death
967
Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses
No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death
968
Compare treatment of demodex mange in dogs versus horses
No treatment in horses (rare) - use amitraz in dogs but it you use it in horses it can cause colic and death
969
What is the only form of mange that is not reportable
Demodex canis mange
970
TMS is metabolized through
Liver
971
TMS is metabolized through
Liver
972
What is the function of bet blockers - give an example
Atenolol - decrease heat rate and contractility to allow better diastolic filling
973
What is the function of ace inhibitors - give examples
Cause vasodilation to decrease blood pressure _enalapril
974
What is the purpose of cyproheptadine
Appetite stimulant in small animals
975
Cobalamin is absorbed in the - and folate is absorbed
Cobalamin (vitamin BI2) absorbed in the ileum and folate in the jejunum
976
When would you see elevations in CK (creatinine phosphokinase)
With muscle damage or rhabdomyalosis
977
What will the plasma look like with a myoglobinuria and why
Normal - it causes brown urine but it is excreted too quickly so it doesn't discover the plasma like a hemoglobinaria would
