PART 1 - HP - IHC, CYTO Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?
A section that is known and proven to contain the ANTIGEN in question
A
Positive control
2
Q
WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?
Omits specific PRIMARY Ab or replaces an immunoglobulin that is directed against an unrelated antigen
OR
Control that test for the specificity of an Ab
A
Negative control
3
Q
WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?
A substance that is similar to the analyte that is added in a constant amount to the blank, the standards, and the samples.
A
Internal standard control
4
Q
WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?
Eliminates the variable of tissue fixation between specimens and controls but it contains TARGET antigen.
A
Built-in control/ Internal Tissue Control
5
Q
Type of Necrosis
-this is the most common
-Tombstone formation
A
Coagulation necrosis
6
Q
Type of Necrosis
Coagulation necrosis affects what ORGANS?
A
“MyLKS”
MYocardium
Lungs
Kidneys
Spleen
7
Q
Type of Necrosis
refers to formation of pus
A
Liquefaction/colliquative necrosis
8
Q
Type of Necrosis
Liquefaction/colliquative necrosis affects what part of the body?
A
Brain & spinal cord
9
Q
Type of Necrosis
refers to Yellow, cheesy, crumbly material
A
Caseous/caseation necrosis
10
Q
Type of Necrosis
conditions assoc w/ Caseous/caseation necrosis?
A
“TTSL”
TB
Tularemia
Syphilis
Lymphogranuloma inguinale
11
Q
Type of Necrosis
refers to Sulfide gas production
A
Gangrenous necrosis
12
Q
A type of Gangrenous necrosis refers to arterial occlusion?
A
Dry gangrene
13
Q
A type of Gangrenous necrosis refers to venous occlusion?
A
Wet gangrene
14
Q
Type of Necrosis
refers to Chalky white precipitates & Pancreatic degeneration
A
Fat necrosis
15
Q
A type of necrosis that affects the LIVER?
A
Fatty degeneration
16
Q
Urine cytology is the most widely used noninvasive test to detect what?
A
Urothelial carcinoma
17
Q
what is the first step in IHC?
A
treating samples w/ formalin
18
Q
A preparation step prior to staining that only applies to immunohistochemistry?
A
Antigen retrieval (uncover Ag para ma detect ni primary & secondary Ab)
19
Q
A
20
Q
BENIGN or MALIGNANT?
No metastasis
Slow
Within boundaries
Compresses tissue
A
BENIGN
21
Q
BENIGN or MALIGNANT?
Metastasis
Fast
III-defined, Irregular boundary
Invades and destroys tissue
A
MALIGNANT
22
Q
malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE?
A
CARCINOMA
23
Q
malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TSE/MESENCHYMAL CELL?
A
SARCOMA
24
Q
HP reports are provided w/ 3 copies
A
1 for doctor
1 for px
1 for lab (for filing)
25
signaturies for REQUEST FORM?
ATTENDING PHYSICIAN/DOCTOR
26
signaturies for RESULT FORM?
PATHOLOGIST AND MT
27
Primary signs of death (occur during somatic death)
"CRC"
CNS Failure
Respiratory failure
Cardiovascular failure
28
Secondary signs of death (occur after somatic death)
Algor mortis
Rigor mortis
Livor mortis
Dessication
Putrefaction
Autolysis
Post mortem clot
29
cooling of the body
1st demonstrate change after death
Algor mortis
30
Algor mortis rate of cooling?
1-1.5 deg F (0.5-1 deg C)
31
Stiffening of skeletal muscles after death
Rigor mortis
32
purplish discoloration or aka post mortem lividity
Livor mortis
33
drying and wrinkling of the anterior chamber of the eye and cornea
Dessication
34
Bacterial contamination
or
invasion of intestinal microorgs
Putrefaction
35
self digestion of ENZYMES
autolysis
36
formation of chicken fat and currant jelly like clot
post mortem clot
37
tumors are graded acc to the histologic features depends on what FACTORS?
-Polarity
-N:C ratio
- # and char of mitoses
-Hyperchromaticity
38
Peyer's patches function?
Peyer's patches can be found on what organ?
-monitor growth of normal flora & prevent growth of pathogens
-ILEUM of small intestine
39
1. when infected individual is negative for HIV but can transmit the infection, what period is this?
2. the time after infexn but befor Ab/Ag is detected
1. window period
2. 12 weeks/more (gen.patho)
3-9 upto 12 months (immunosero)
40
a condition refers to thickening of arterioles or small B.V in kidneys? it is the deposition of immune complex?
SLE
41
a term used for surgical connection b/w 2 structures
anastomosis
42
PROGRAMMED CELL DEATH (Cell suicide)
APOPTOSIS
43
Damage, trauma or toxicity-induced cell death (Cell injury),
Pathological cell death
NECROSIS
44
DESTRUCTION OF TISSUES OR CELLS BY SELF- PRODUCED ENZYMES (Self-digestion)
AUTOLYSIS
45
Reduction in size and CONDENSATION OF CHROMATIN in the nucleus, DARK & SHRUNKEN
pyknosis
46
what are the nuclear changes in necrosis?
pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis
47
SEGMENTATION AND FRAGMENTATION OF THE NUCLEUS
karyorrhexis
48
DISSOLUTION OF THE NUCLEUS where all basophilia of the chromatin fades and the nucleus disappear
karyolysis
49
what are the RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES?
-Hypoplasia
-Aplasia
-Agenesia
-Atresia
-Atrophy
50
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Incomplete development of the organ. Organ fails to achieve its full or adult size
Hypoplasia
51
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Incomplete or defective development of a tissue or organ
Aplasia
52
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Complete non-appearance of an organ
Agenesia
53
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Failure of an organ to form an opening
Atresia
54
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Acquired decrease in size of a normally developed tissue or organ, resulting from reduction in cell size or decrease in total number of cells or both
Atrophy
55
what are the PROGRESSIVE CHANGES?
Hypertrophy
Hyperplasia
56
PROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in the size of the individual cells
Hypertrophy
57
PROGRESSIVE CHANGE
Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to increase in the number of cells
Hyperplasia
58
what are the DEGENERATIVE CHANGES?
"MDAN"
Metaplasia
Dysplasia
Anaplasia
Neoplasia
59
DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Transformation of one type of adult cell to another caused by a certain type of stress different to what the cell is accustomed to
Metaplasia (reversible change)
60
DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Most often referred to proliferation of precancerous cells often arises from prolonged pathologic hyperplasia or prolonged metaplasia
Dysplasia (reversible change)
61
DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Cells have poor cellular differentiation; predominantly present are primitive cells types. Criterion toward malignancy
Anaplasia (irreversible change)
62
DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - New tissue growth that is unregulated, irreversible and monoclonal accompanied by increase in size, pigmentation, mitosis, number, metaplastic and anaplastic changes of the cell
Neoplasia (irreversible change)
63
OBSERVABLE IN PATIENT. Detected by someone other than the patient
SIGNS
64
Pale face, sweating, abnormal heart rate, high blood pressure, yellow discoloration of the skin/mucous membrane (JAUNDICE)
SIGNS
65
EXPERIENCED BY THE PATIENT.
Described by the patient feeling them
SYMPTOMS
66
Anxiety, fatigue, pain (DYSURIA), numbness, lightheadedness, vision disturbances, noise/ringing in the ears (TINNITUS)
SYMPTOMS
67
WHAT ARE THE CYTOLOGIC CHARACTERISTICS OF NORMAL PREGNANCY?
-marked Progesterone effect
-Absence of ferning
-presence of Doderlein-filled dirty bg
-presence of some typical Pregnancy cells
- presence of (50%) Intermediate cells in cluster
-presence of (less than 30%) Mature superficial cells
"PADPIS"
-Progesterone
-Absence of ferning
-Doderlein
-Pregnancy cells
-Intermediate cells (50%)
-Superficial cells (less than 30%)
68
A combination of immunologic and histochemical techniques that is used for identification of specific or highly selective cellular epitopes or antigens
IHC
69
Common Chromogens for Peroxidase?
DIAMINOBENZIDINE (DAB)
AMINOETHYL CARBAZOLE (AEC)
70
Chromogen for Peroxidase that is insoluble dark brown reaction end product
DIAMINOBENZIDINE (DAB)
71
Chromogen for Peroxidase that is insoluble rusty red reaction end product
AMINOETHYL CARBAZOLE (AEC)
72
Sampling the T-zone is for the detection of:
T-zone/ transformation
detects DYSPLASIA & CARCINOMA OF CERVIX
73
1. term used refer to surgical procedure?
2. term used refer to removal of uterus?
1. ectomy
2. hysterectomy
74
3. term used refer to removal of vas deferens?
4. term used refer to reversal of vasectomy (pagbalik sa vas deferens)?
3. vasectomy
4. vasovasectomy
75
5. term used refer to surgical connection?
6. term used refer to ballooning of Blood vessel?
7. term used refer to pallor?
5. anastomosis
6. aneurysm
7. anemia
76
Can be a presenting feature of many serious medical conditions, notably MALNUTRITION, CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE, Nephrotic syndrome, lung, KIDNEY and LIVER DISEASES
edema
anasarca (generalized edema)
77
Causes of air embolism
1. decompression sickness (drivers are common)
2. cunnilingus (oral sex- blowing into vagina)
3. IV transfusion accident
4. car crash (cause lung trauma)
78
ESOPHAGUS WALL
1. UPPER PART is composed of?
2. LOWER PART is composed of?
and a mixture of the two in the middle.
1. striated/skeletal muscle
2. smooth muscle
79
It forms the framework of Hematopoietic organs (LYMPHOID ORGANS lymph nodes, spleen, red BONE MARROW) and Parenchymal organs (Liver, Kidney and ENDOCRINE GLANDS)
reticular connective tissue
80
color of reticular connective tissue on slide?
yellow and black
81
what causes hard emboli?
bacteria
parasite
clots
tumors
82
Microscopic examination of cells from different body sites for diagnostic purposes. It includes EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY AND FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION BIOPSY (FNAB), THORACENTESIS AND LUMBAR TAP.
diagnostic cytology
83
a type of cytology that dislodge cells from body surfaces
abrasive cytology
84
a type of cytology refers to Detection of MALIGNANCY, GENETIC SEX, INFECTIOUS AGENT and female hormonal status.
spontaneously shed cells in body fluids
exfoliative cytology
85
The staining METHOD OF CHOICE for Exfoliative Cytology
Papanicolaou staining (pap smear)
86
2ND BEST CHOICE method for routine cytologic examination; what microscopy it is?
phase contrast microscopy
87
ROUTINE/MOST COMMON FIXATIVE for cytological specimens requiring fixation
95% ethanol
88
The BEST FIXATIVE but has been abandoned because of the flammability, volatility and fire hazards associated with Ether
Ether Alcohol
Equal parts of 95% ethanol & ether
89
Peritoneal, pericardial and pleural fluids are prone to jelly like clot formation how to prevent it?
one must add 300 UNITS of heparin/100 ml of aspirate
ex:
200 ml aspirate x 3 units/ml = 600 units
300 ml aspirate x 3 units/ml = 900 units
90
Majority of cervical carcinomas and precancerous lesions of the cervix arise from the JUNCTION OF ENDOCERVICAL/ECTOCERVICAL MUCOSA
transformation zone/T-zone
91
Cytologic Collection and Preparation:
it is a sample of endocervical canal
endocervical brush
92
Cytologic Collection and Preparation:
for px with hysterectomy
vaginal scrape
93
Cytologic Collection and Preparation:
for hormonal evaluation
lateral vaginal scrape
94
Cytologic Collection and Preparation:
for localization of vaginal adenosis
four quadrant vaginal scrape
95
Cytologic Collection and Preparation:
for detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma
vulvar scrape
96
SEX CHROMATIN (inactive x chromosome)
barr bodies
97
in the nucleus of a female somatic cell In vaginal smears, the ESTROGEN EFFECT causes mature superficial cells to appear
true acidophilia (inc. affinity to acid dye - eosin pink)
98
Dissects the cadaver
prosector
99
Prosecutor of autopsy
main PATHOLOGIST
100
First to perform autopsy
Giovanni Morgagni (anatomical pathology)
101
Autopsy technician which means "SERVANT"
Diener
102
Investigates the cause of death; policeman w/ training
coroner
103
Autopsy technique: ORGANS ARE REMOVED ONE BY ONE
Virchow
104
Autopsy technique: Characterized by IN SITU DISSECTION
Rokitansky
105
Autopsy technique: Thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed EN MASSES
Letulle
106
Autopsy technique: Thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed EN BLOC
Ghon
107
Grossly normal lungs, when subjected to aqueous solution will what?
Float
108
Abnormal/disease lungs will what?
Sink
109
Cytokeratin 20 is expected to normally be positive with what tumor?
Colorectal Adenocarcinoma
110
Cells that are found from two weeks of age to puberty, after childbirth, with abortions and after menopause are referred to as
Parabasal cells
