Part 4- test 2

Question 1

apposition

Answer 1

describes the closeness of the bony contact at the frature site
make sure to describe the offset of the distal in relation to the proximal

Question 2

fracture frangments not perfectly apposed are said to be ____

Answer 2

offset

Question 3

the direction of offset is stated in terms of..

Answer 3

displacement of the distal fragment relative to proximal

Question 4

alignment

Answer 4

describes the position of the distal fragment in relation to the proximal in the longitudinal axis
deals primarily with the direction and degree of angulation

Question 5

rotation

Answer 5

produced by a twisting force along the longitudinal axis
more easily determined by clinical evaluation than radiographic
ideally should include the joints above and below the fracture

Question 6

when is the highest rate for fractures in men?

Answer 6

20s and 30s

>65

Question 7

when is the highest rate for fractures in women?

Answer 7

up to 20 years

>45

Question 8

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury <5 years

Answer 8

supracondylar fracture of the humerus

Question 9

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury 5-10 years

Answer 9

transverse radial metaphysis fx

Question 10

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury 10-16 years

Answer 10

epiphyseal separation radius

Question 11

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury 16-35 years

Answer 11

scaphoid or other carpal fracture

Question 12

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury >40 years

Answer 12

colles fracture or ulna fracture

Question 13

common places to fracture from a FOOSH injury >70 years

Answer 13

surgical neck humerus fracture

Question 14

what part of the bone is the most common to fracture among the very young and very old?

Answer 14

epiphyseal

Question 15

spondylostosis

Answer 15

L5 is completely anterior to S1

Question 16

what kind of neck injury is the most severe?

Answer 16

flexion teardrop

Question 17

increased interpedicular distance means..?

Answer 17

neural arch/posterior body fracture

Question 18

buckling of the ligamentum flavum occurs in..?

Answer 18

extension teardrop fractures

Question 19

spondylolysis

Answer 19

pars defect

Question 20

if you can’t tell if the xray has a fracture or if it is bowel gas, what should you do?

Answer 20

retake radiograph

Question 21

does 1 trauma cause a sponlylolisthesis?

Answer 21

NO

Question 22

infant fractures tend to repair within?

Answer 22

4-6 weeks

Question 23

adolescent fractures tend to repair within?

Answer 23

6-8 weeks

Question 24

adult fractures tend to repair within?

Answer 24

10-12 weeks
or
16-20 weeks

Question 25

salter harris type 1

Answer 25

complete shear injury of the physis

Question 26

salter harris type 2

Answer 26

fracture through the physis and metaphysis

Question 27

salter harris type 3

Answer 27

fracture through the physis and epiphysis

Question 28

salter harris type 4

Answer 28

fracture of the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis

Question 29

salter harris type 5

Answer 29

compression fracture of the physis

Question 30

type I acromio-clavicular joint injuries

Answer 30

mild sprain | no xray changes (0-25%)

Question 31

type II acromio-clavicular joint injuries

Answer 31

moderate sprain | 25-50% displacement

Question 32

type III acromio-clavicular joint injuries

Answer 32

severe sprain | >50% displacement

Question 33

normal AC width

Answer 33

<5mm | 2-3mm bilaterally

Question 34

normal distance between coracoid and clavicle

Answer 34

11-13mm | <5mm bilaterally

Question 35

what are the types of clavicle fractures?

Answer 35

middle 1/3 (MC) lateral 1/3 medial 1/3

Question 36

fracture of the medial or lateral clavicle is usually due to?

Answer 36

DJD

Question 37

comlications of clavicle fractures

Answer 37

mal-union non-union neurovascular injury DJD post-traumatic osteolysis exuberant callus may cause neurovascular compromise laceration of the subclavian artery or brachial plexus

Question 38

Flap fracture

Answer 38

avulsion fracture of the greater tuberostiy

Question 39

what is the most common shoulder dislocation?

Answer 39

anterior

Question 40

what are the types of shoulder dislocations?

Answer 40

anteiror posterior luxatio erecta

Question 41

what are the 3 subcategories of anteiror shoulder dislocations?

Answer 41

subcoracoid subglenoid intrathoracic

Question 42

what are the mechanisms of anterior shoulder dislocations?

Answer 42

forceful extension or abduction of the arm forceful elevation and external rotation direct blow to the arm FOOSH

Question 43

assocated finsings with anterior shoulder dislocations

Answer 43

bankart lesion hill-sacks flap fracture

Question 44

bankart lesion

Answer 44

avulsion of the inferior glenoid rim

Question 45

hill-sacks

Answer 45

impaction fracture of the humeral head with a glenoid fossa

Question 46

flap fracture

Answer 46

avusion fracture of the greater tuberosity

Question 47

hill-sacks is also known as?

Answer 47

hatchet defect

Question 48

mechanism of posteior shoulder defect

Answer 48

direct blow to the arm elecrical shock convulsive seizures

Question 49

signs that make us think of a posterior shoulder dislocation

Answer 49

rim sign trough line sign tennis racquet of humeral head fixed in internal rotation

Question 50

luxatio erecta

Answer 50

inferior dislocation of the humerus

Question 51

what are the different rotator cuff injuries?

Answer 51

supraspinatus infraspinatus teres minor subscapularis

Question 52

radiology of rotator cuff tears

Answer 52

narrowing of the AC joint (<6mm) erosion of the inferior aspect of the acromion process flattening and atrophy of the greater tuberosity

Question 53

rotator cuff tears are susally from what?

Answer 53

acute or repetitve trauma

Question 54

what is the test of choice for a rotator cuff tear?

Answer 54

MRI

Question 55

where is a rotator cuff tear usually seen?

Answer 55

``` critical zone (area of decreased vascularity) 1 cm from supraspinatus tendon ```