Pathology Final - Spring 2025 - Deck 1 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What is pathology?
A
The study of disease processes in the body
2
Q
What is disease?
A
The body’s response to an injury causing deviation from normal conditions
3
Q
What is etiology?
A
The study of the cause of diseases
4
Q
What are the 5 causes of diseases?
A
Hereditary
- Trauma
- Infectious organisms
- Vascular processes
- Metabolic processes
5
Q
What are hereditary causes of diseases?
A
Genetic factors
6
Q
What are trauma causes of diseases?
A
Physical injuries
7
Q
What are infectious organism causes of diseases?
A
Bacteria, viruses
8
Q
What are vascular processes of diseases?
A
Stroke, ischemia
9
Q
What are metabolic processes of diseases?
A
Diabetes, thyroid imbalance
10
Q
What are the two categories of diseases?
A
Structural and Functional
11
Q
What are structural diseases?
A
Disease characteriszed by an observable, physical change in the structure of an organ or tissue
12
Q
What are structural diseases classified by?
A
Lesions
13
Q
What are examples of structural diseases?
A
Tumor, fracture or inflammation
14
Q
What do structural diseases result from?
A
Identifiable physical damage to the body’s anatomy
15
Q
What are functional diseases?
A
Diseases where there is no identifiable structural lesion, but the body still exhibits abnormal function
16
Q
What are functional diseases classified by?
A
No lesions
17
Q
What are examples of functional diseases?
A
Mental Illness/dementia
- Neurosis/psychoses
- Headache
18
Q
What two agents are structural changes initiated by?
A
Endogenous
- Exogenous
19
Q
What are endogenous agents?
A
Internal agents
- diseases caused by factors originating within the body
20
Q
What are exogenous agents?
A
External agents
- Diseases caused by factors originating outsie the body
21
Q
What is inflammation?
A
The body’s response to injury, involving swelling, heat and increased white blood cells
22
Q
What are the five clinical signs of inflammation?
A
Rubor (redness)
- Calor (heat)
- Tumor (swelling)
- Dolor (pain)
- Loss of function
23
Q
What are the two phases of inflammation?
A
Vascular Changes
- Formation of inflammatory exudate
24
Q
What is infection?
A
Invasion of the body by a microorganism or biologic agent
25
What is a pathogen?
Disease causing organism
26
What are the protective mechanisms against infection?
Action of WBC and development of antibodies
27
What is edema?
The accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body cavities
28
What are the two types of edema?
Pitting edema and non-pitting edema
29
What is pitting edema?
Indentation in the affected areas and contains excess fluid mainly composed of water
30
What is non-pitting edema?
Associated with conditions affecting the thyroid and lymphatic systems and contains fluid mostly composed of proteins, salts and water
31
What are the treatments for edema?
Mild cases- resolve on their own with elevation
Severe cases- resolve with diuretic
Chronic cases - compression socks to promote circulation
32
What are the common risk factors of edema?
medications
- obesity
- sitting/standing too long
- low protein levels
- pregnancy
33
What is anasarca?
Generalized edema that occurs with pronounced swelling of the subcutaneous tissue throughout the body
34
What is ischemia?
Reduced blood flow to tissues due to blockages
35
What is ischemia caused by?
Narrowing of an artery (artheroscleorsis)
- thrombotic occlusion
- embolic occlusion
36
What is an ischemic stroke?
Obstruction blocks blood flow to part of the brain
37
What is a hemorrhagic stroke?
Weakened vessle walls rupture and cause bleeding in the brain
38
What is an infarction?
Localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ
39
What is hemorrhage?
The rupture of a blood vessel that allows blood to escape externally or internally, within surrounding tissues or cavity
40
What does bleeding into a tissue result in?
Hematoma
41
What are the 3 classifications of hemorrhage?
Capillary
Venous
Arterial
42
What is capillary hemorrhage classified by?
Slow, even flow of blood that is bright red in color
43
What is venous hemorrhage classified by?
Stead, slow flow of blood that is dark red in color
44
What is arterial hemorrage classified by?
Spurting blood with a pulsating flow that's bright red in color
45
What does alterations of cell growth refer to?
The changes in the number and size of cells, their differentiation and their arrangement
46
What is neoplasia?
Is from the latin word for new growth and is defined as an abnormal proliferation of cells that are no longer controlled by the factors that govern the growth of normal cells
47
What are the two types of neoplasia?
Benign and malignant (cancer)
48
What is benign?
Growth which closely resembles its cells of origin in function and structure
49
What is malignant?
Neoplastic growth that invalides and destroys adjacent structures
50
What is metastasize?
Malignant neoplasm travel to distant sites
51
What do hereditary diseases result from?
An abnormality in the DNA
52
How are heredity diseases passed on?
They pass from one generation to the next through the genetic infomation contained in the nucleus of each cell
53
What are common hereditary diseases?
Cancer, down syndrome, autism, arthtities, alzheimers, trisomy, diabetes, turner symdrome
54
What are autosomes?
44 chromosomes other than X and Y
55
What are dominent genes?
Always produce an effect
56
What are recessive genes?
Manifest themselves when a person is homosygous for the trait
57
What is a mutation?
Alteration in the DNA structurea that may become permanent hereditary changes
58
If the father/mother are carries of a hereditary gene what is the probability it gets passed on?
25% healthy
50% carrier
25% sick
59
What is an example of a genetic mutation?
Polydactylt where a foot has too many toes
60
What are 3 types of immune reactions?
Anaphylactic
- Cytotoxic
- Delayed
61
What is a cytotoxic reaction?
An allergic reaction where antibodies bind to the surface of a cell, leading to the activation of the complement system and cell destruction
62
What are examples of cytotoxic reaction?
Hemolytic anemia, RH incompatibility or drug introduced cytotixicty
63
What are naturally acquired immunities?
Occurs through exposure to pathogens or maternal transfer, without medical intervention
64
What is an Active Naturally Acquired immunity?
Immunity developed after natural exposure to a pathogen
65
How do active naturally acquired immunities work?
The immune system response to the infection by producing antibodies and memory cells
66
What is an example of a active naturally acquired immunity?
Recovery from chickenpox leads to lifelone immunicty
67
What is a Passive Natural Acquired immunity?
Immunity provided by transferring antibodies from one person to another
68
How do passive naturally acquired immunities work?
No active participation by the recipient's immune system, immunity is temporary
69
What is an example of a passive naturally acquired immunity?
Antibodies passed from mother to baby through placenta or breastmilk
70
What is an artificially acquired immunity?
Accurs through medical intervention, such as vaccines or antibody administration
71
What is an active artificially acquired immunity?
Immunity developed after exposure to antigents introduced artificially
72
How do active artificially acquired immunities work?
The immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies and memory cells
73
What is an example of active artificially acquired immunities?
The MMR vaccine
74
What are passive artificailly acquired immunities?
Immunity conferred by administering pre-formed antibodies
75
How do passive artificially acquired immunities work?
No activation of the recipient's immune system- is short term
76
What is an example of passive artificially acquired immunity?
Receiving immunoglobins for tetanus or rabies after exposure
77
What are standard precautions?
Used to prevent infection transmission in healthcare settings
78
What is AIDS?
Caused by HIV, patients are susceptible to opportunistic infections
79
Which of the following are not types of immune reactions (Anaphylactic, Cytotoxic, Delayed and Septic)?
Septic
80
Which of the following are not causes of ischemia (Atheroscleoris, Thrombotic occlusion, Infection, Enbolic occlusion)
Infection
81
What are wounds?
Any injury that causes a break in the skin or other body membranes or in the underlying tissue
82
What are abrasions?
Superficial tearing of the skin
83
What are lacerations?
Tissues are torn rather than cut that can be irregular or deep
84
What are incisions?
Clean, surgical cuts that bleed freely
85
What are contusions or bruises?
Injuries that produce black and blue appearance at the site of injury caused by blunt force trauma
86
What are punctures?
Small surface opening with deep internal trauma
87
What is a first degree burn?
Superficial partial-thickness burn that affects the epidermis only
88
What is a second degree burn?
Deep partial-thickness burn that affects the epidermis and part of the dermis
89
What symptoms are associate with a second degree burn?
Red, blistered and painful
90
What is a third degree burn?
Full-thickness burn that destroys all skin layers and underlying tissue
91
What is a fourth degree burn?
Damage extends to underlying muscles and tissues
92
What is atrophy?
The reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ with a corresponding decrease in function
93
What is hypertrophy?
Increase in the size of the cells of a tissue in response to a demand for increased function
94
What is hyperplasia?
Increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ
95
What is Dysplasia?
Loss of uniformity of an individual cells
96
What is neoplasia?
Ungoverened abnormal proliferation of cell
97
What are benign tumors?
Slow growing, encapsulated growths that do not invade surrounding tissues
98
What are characteristics of Benign tumors?
They are slow growing and expand vs spread, do not reocur, are readily removable and only cause death if in a vital organ
99
What is a malignant tumor?
Radpid growing tumor that invades the surrounding tissues and can metastasize.
100
What are some other characteristics of malignant tumors?
Can reocur, can cause death of untreated and are non-encapsulated
101
What are the categories of tumors?
Carcinomas
Sarcomas
Lymphoma
Leukemia
102
What is a carcinoma?
Malignant neoplasm that arises from epithelial cells
103
What are examples of carcinomas?
Lung, breast, stomach tumors
104
What are categories of carcinomas?
Basal cell- skin, face, canthus
Adenocarcinoma - breast, GI tract
105
What is a sarcoma?
Malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue?
106
What are examples of sarcomas?
Bone, cartilage and muscle tumors
107
What are categories of sarcomas?
Osteosarcoma - long bone femur
Lipo- sarcoma - neck and shoulder
108
What are Leukemia and Lyphoma?
Blood and lymphatic system cancers
109
What is the TNM staging system for tumors?
T = size of primary
N = Regional lymph involvement
M= presense or absense on metastasis
110
What is aplasia?
Congenital absence of an organ
111
What is hypoplasia?
Failure of an organ to reach full adult size
112
What are the types of major body trauma?
Chest injury
Abdominal injury
Spinal Injury
Head injury
113
What is trauma?
Injural caused by extrinsic forces
114
What are the major effects of a chest trauma?
hemorrhage
- interference with breathing
- obstruction of tracheo-bronchial tree
- Fluid in pleural space
- multiple rib fractures
- pneumothorax
115
What is a pneumothorax?
Air in the pleural space causing the lung to collapse
116
What is the impact of rib fractures?
Can puncture the lungs and other organs
117
What is a hemothorax?
Blood in the pleural space that can cause the lung to collapse
118
What is a hemopneumothorax?
Blood and air in the pleural space that can cause the lung to collapse
119
What are the effects of abdominal trauma?
hemorrhage
- perforation
- rupture of bladder
- spleen laceration/rupture
- liver Trauma
- kidney Trauma
- GI rupture
120
What are the risks of a spleen or liver laceration?
Risk of hemorrhage
121
What is needed with a ruptured bladder?
Immediaate intervention
122
What are the effects of spinal trauma?
fractures
- dislocations
- paralysis
- shock
- pain
123
What is a Clay Shoveler's cervical fracture?
Fracture of the spinous process of C6-T2
124
What is a Hangman's cervical fracture?
Fracture througb the pedicle of C2 with or without subluxation on C3
125
What is a Jefferson's fracture?
Fracture of C1 where it bursts in 4 places
126
What is a concussion?
Temporary loss of brain function
127
What is an epidural hematoma?
Arterial bleeding between the skull and dura
128
What is subdural hematoma?
Venous bleeding under the dura
129
What are the radiographic finding of a chest x-ray?
Pnemothorax, hemothorax and rib fractures
130
What are the CT scan preferred for in trauma?
Preferred for detecting hemorrhages and skull fractures
131
What is MRI used for in trauma?
Used for soft tissue injuries and brain trauma
132
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
The intake of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood
133
What is the respiratoty system made up of?
Nasal cavity, pharynx, layrnx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, elveoli, lungs and diaphragm
134
What organs make up the upper respiratory tract?
Nose, pharynx, larynx
135
What organs make up the lowe respiratory tract?
Trachea, bronchi, lungs
136
What are two congenital diseases of the respiratory system?
Cystic fibrosis and Hyaline membrane disease
137
What is cystic fibrosis?
Characterized by excessive thick mucous by the exocrine glands that affects the lungs and digestive system
138
What is cystic fibrosis caused by?
A defective gene in middle of chromosome 7
139
What is hyaline membrane disease?
Affects premature inflants due to lack of surfactant, leading to respiratory distress
140
What is hyaline membrane disease also called?
Idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)
141
What is the treatment for Hyaline Membrane diease?
Providing artificial surfactant and supportive care to help the baby breathe
142
What are inflammatory disorders of the respiratory system?
Croup
- Epiglottitis
- Pneumonia
- Tuberculosis
- Lung Abscess
143
What is croup?
A viral infection of young children that produces inflammatory obstructuve swelling to the subglotic portion of the trachea
144
What is croup characterized by?
A barking cough and difficulty breathing
145
What is epiglottitis?
A swelling of the epigottic tissue that is caused by Haemophilius influenza in children
146
What is pneumonia?
An inflammation of the lung that is caused by a variety of organisms mostly bacterial or viral
147
What are the 3 radiographic patterns of pneumonia?
Alveolar, Bronchopneumonia or Interstitial Pneumonia
148
What is alveolar/air-space pneumonia?
An infection in the alveoli that fills it with exudate caused by streptococcus penumonia
149
What is an example of alveolar/air-space pneumonia?
Lobar pneumonia affecting a single lobe
150
What is bronchopneumonia?
Infection in the bronchi that spreads to the alveoli, often seen in bedridden patients
151
What is interstitial pneumonia?
Inflammation of the alveolar septa and interstital tissue, rather than alveoli
152
What causes interstitial pneumonia?
Viral infections like influenza, RSV and Covid
153
What is an example of interstitial pnemonia?
Atypical pneumonia, which is often milder but more diffuse
154
What is a lung abscess?
Necrotic area of lung tissue filled with pus often caused by aspiration
155
What is the most common cause of lung abscess?
Aspiration
156
What is tuberculosis?
A bacterial infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis
157
How is tuberculosis spread?
Via airborn droplests
158
What are chronic lung diseases?
COPD
- Pneumoconiosis
- Sarcoidosis
159
What is another term for chronic lung disease?
Interstial lung disease or Diffuse parenchymal lung disease (DPLD)
160
What is COPD?
A group of lung diseases that cause chronic obstruction of the airways and ineffective exchange of respiratory gases
161
What are 3 main types of COPD?
Chronic bronchitis
- Emphysema
- Asthma
162
What is emphysema?
A chronic lung disease that damages the air sacs in the lungs and makes it hard to breath
163
What is the leading cause of emphysema?
Smoking
164
What is asthma?
A chronic lung disease that is cause by inflamed airways that tighten and make it hard to breath
165
What are symptoms of asthma?
Coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath and chest tightness
166
What are triggers of ashtma?
Allergens like pollen, dust or other particles
167
What is sarcoidosis?
A inflammatory disease characterized by the formation of granulomas often detected in young agults
168
What is pneumoconiosis?
A sever lung disease caused by inhalation of irritating particles
169
What are the 3 types of pneumonconiosis?
Asbestosis
- Silicosis
- Antracosis
170
What is asbestosis?
A chronic lung disease caused by inhaling asbestos fibers
171
What impact do the asbestos fibers have on the lungs?
Cause damage that lead to scarring
172
What are the two types of asbestosis?
Mesothelioma which causes plaque
Asbestosis which causes scarring
173
What is silicosis?
A chronic lung disease caused by inhaling crystalline silica dust over long periods of time
174
What occupations cause silicosis?
Construction, mining, stone cutting, pottery and dlass manufacturing
175
What is anthracosis?
Coal worker's disease
176
What is neoplastic disease?
Tumors or abnormal growths of tissue that result from uncontrolled cell division
177
What is bronchogenic carcinoma?
A primary carcinoma of the lung that arises from the mucosa of the bronchia tree
178
What is bronchogenic carcinoma linked to?
Smoking and the inhalation of carcinogens (air pollution, exhaust, industrial flames)
179
What are the two types of bronchogenic carcinoma?
Non-small cell and small cell
180
What percentage of lung cancers are made up on non-small cell types?
80% of all lung cancers
181
What are 3 types of non-small cell type carcinoma?
Sqamous carcinoma
- Adenocarcinoma
- Bronchiolar carcinoma
182
What is the most common type of non-small cell carcinoma?
Squamous carcinoma
183
What is the least common type of non-small cell carcinoma?
Bronchiolar carcinoma
184
What is pulmonary metastases?
A secondary lung tumor that originates from other cancers (breast, colon, prostate)
185
What are vascular disorders of the lungs?
pulmonary embolism
- septic embolism
- atelectasis
- acute respiratory distress syndrome
- pneumothorax
- pleural effusion
- empyema
186
What is pulmonary embolism?
The most common lung pathology of hospitalized patients and is where a blood clot travels to the pulmonary artery and obstructs it
187
Where do pulmonary embolisms originate from?
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
188
What is septic embolism?
A bacterial emboli from infected heart valves or veins
189
Where do septic embolism primarily arise from?
Heart via bacterial endocarditits
- Peripheral veins via septic thrombophlebitis
190
Who is septic embolism most common in?
IV drug users
191
What is Atelectasis?
A condition in which there is diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume
192
What is Atelectasis caused by?
Bronchial obstruction from neoplasm, foreign bodies or mucous plug
193
What does Atelectasis result in?
Collapse lung
194
What is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A sever lung inflammation causing fluid buildup in alveoli
195
What is a main symtom of ARDS?
Hypoxia and sever respiratory impairment
196
What patients does ARDS develop in?
Those who have medical and surgical disorders but no major lung disease
197
What patiens is ARDS most common in?
Non-thoracic trauma patients who develop hypotension and shock (Shock lung)
198
What is pneumothorax?
The presence of air in the pleural cavity resulting in a collapsed lung
199
What are the causes of pneumothorax?
rupture of subpleural bullae
- spontaneous event/Trauma
- iatrogenic causes
- complications of neonatal hyaline membrane disorder
200
What is pleural effusion?
An accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
