Pathology Final - Spring 2025 - Deck 3 Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
What is malrotation?
A
Rotation on the longitudinal or horizontal axis
2
Q
What is an ectopic kidney?
A
Kidney with an abnormal position, such as in the pelvis or near the diaphragm
3
Q
What is a kidney growing in the pelvis called?
A
Pelvic kidney
4
Q
What is a kidney near the diaphragm called?
A
Intrathoracic kidney
5
Q
What is crossed ectopia?
A
An ectopic kidney that lies on the same side as the normal kidney and is commonly fused
6
Q
What is a horseshoe fusion?
A
Kidneys that are fused at the lower poles
7
Q
What is a complete fusion?
A
A rare anomaly that produces a single irregular mass that has no resemblance to normal renal structure
8
Q
What are other names for complete fusion kidney?
A
Disk, cake, lump and doughnut kidney
9
Q
What is the most common type of kidney fusion?
A
Horseshoe fusion
10
Q
What is duplication (duplex kidney)?
A
A common anomaly that causes a duplication of ureters and ureterovesical orifaces
11
Q
What can duplication be complicated by?
A
Osbstruction or vesicouretral reflux with infection
12
Q
What is a ureterocele?
A
A cystic dilation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the bladder
13
Q
What are the two types of ureterocele?
A
Simple and Ectopic
14
Q
Where is a simple ureterocele usually found?
A
In adults
15
Q
Where is a ectopic ureterocele usually found?
A
Almost exclusively in infants and children
16
Q
What is ectopic ureterocele usually associated with?
A
Urethrea duplication
17
Q
What are posterior uretral valves?
A
Thin transverse membranes in the urethra that block urine flow in male infants
18
Q
What can posterior urethra valves cause?
A
Bladder outlet obstruction and can lead to severe hydronephrosis, hydroureter and renal damage
19
Q
What type of x-ray best demonstrates posterior urethral valves?
A
VCUG - voiding cystourethrogram
20
Q
What are inflammatory disorders of the urinary system?
A
Glomerulonephritis
- Pyelonephritis
- Renal Tuberculosis
- Papillary necrosis
- Cystitis
- Urinary calculi
21
Q
What is Glomerulonephritis?
A
Inflammation of the tiny filters in the kidneys that causes albumin and red blood cells to leak into the urine
22
Q
When does glomerulonephritis normally occur?
A
On its own or as part of another disease, such as lupus or diabetes but most commonly several weeks after an acute respiratory ear infection
23
Q
What does glomerulonephritis cause?
A
Oliguria, which is a smaller than normal amount of urine
24
Q
What is pyelonephritis?
A
An inflammation of the kidneys and renal pelvis caused by pyogenic (pus-forming) bacteria
25
What is acute pyelonephritis?
A sudden, severe kidney infection that causes the kidneys to swell and can permanently damage them
26
How is pyelonephritis usually treated?
With antibiotics and with surgery if severe enough
27
What are common features of pyelonephritis in imaging?
Patchy distribution that only affects one kidney
28
Where does pyelonephritis usualy originate in?
Bladder and ascends to the ureter to involve the kidneys
29
What patients is pyelonephritis most common in?
Women and children and patients with obstructions of the urinary tract
30
What are symptoms of pyelonephritis?
High fever, chills, sudden back pain that spreads to the abodome, dysuria (painful urination) and pyuria (pus in urine)
31
What is renal tuberculosis?
A secondary infection that usualy occurs 5-10 years after primary infection and can result in small granulomas in the cortical portion of the kidney
32
What is papillary necrosis?
A destructive process of the kidneys that decreases kidney function and can lead to failure
33
What are predisposing factors of papillary necrosis?
Diabetes, pyelonephritis, UTI, urinary tract obstruction, sickle cell disease and phenacetin abuse
34
What is Cystitis?
An inflammation of the urinary bladder that is caused by the spread of bacteria present in fecal matter
35
Who does cystitis most commonly affect?
Women, due to their shorter urethra
36
What are other causes of cystitis?
Catheterization of the bladder and retrograde flow from a urine bag and sexual intercourse
37
What are symptoms of cystitis?
Frequent urination, urgency and burning sensation, bloody urine, bad smell of urine
38
What is the most common nosocomial urinary infection?
Cystitis
39
What is urinary calculi?
Kidney stones that most commonly form in the kidneys
40
What are the causes of kidney stones?
Underlying metabolic abnormlaity (hypercalcemia), any cause of increased calcium excretion in the urine, urinary stasis and infection
41
When do kidney stones produce issues?
When they are lodged in the ureter and cause partial obstruction
42
What are types of Cysts and tumors of the urinary system?
renal cysts
- Polycystic kidney disease
- renal carcinoma
- Wilms Tumor
- carcinoma of the bladder
43
What are renal cysts?
The most common unifocal mass of the kidney that are fluid filled and usually unilocular
44
What is polycystic kidney disease?
An inherited disorder in which multiple cysts cause enlargement of the kidneys and progressive impairment
45
What do 1/3 of patients with polycystic kidney disease also have?
Liver cysts
46
What do 10% of people with polycystic kidney disease have?
One or more saccular (berry) aneurysms of cerebral arteries that can rupture
47
What other conditions usually affect patients with polycystic kidney disease?
Hypertension
48
What is renal carcinoma?
Also known as Hypernephroma and is the most common renal neoplasm
49
What patients is hypernephroma common in?
Patients older than 40 years old
50
Where does hypernephroma originate in?
In tubercular epithelia of the renal cortex
51
What is the classic symptom triad of hypernephroma?
Hematuria
- Flank pain
- Palpable abdominal mass
52
What are the stages of renal carcinoma?
Stage 1: Less than 7 cm
Stage 2: Greater than 7 cm
Stage 3: Spread to Gerota's fascia
Stage 4: Spread to lymph nodes and other organs
53
What is a Wilms tumor?
Nephroblastoma and is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infants and childhood
54
Where does a wilms tumor arise from?
Embryonic renal tissue
55
What is carcinoma of the bladder?
The 4th most common cancer in men over the age of 50 that originates in the epithelium
56
What are predisposing factors of carcinoma of the bladder?
Industrial chemicals and cigarette smoking
57
What is a common symptom of Bladder carcinoma?
Hamaturia
58
What is a KUB?
Kidney-ureter-bladder radiograph
59
What is IVP?
Intravenous pyelogram
60
What is Ultrasound useful for in urinary system diseases?
First line for hydronephrosis and cysts
61
What is CT useful for in urinary system diseases?
Preferred for stones and trauma
62
What is VCUG useful for in urinary system diseases?
For detecting reflux
63
What is the function of the cardiovascular system?
To maintain an adequate supply of blood to all the tissues of the body
64
How does the cardiovascular system work?
Through the rhythmic contractions of the heart
65
What is heart rate controlled by?
Autonomic nervous system
66
What are the 4 chambers of the heart?
2 atria and 2 ventricles
67
What are the major vessels of the heart?
Aorta, pulmonary arteries/veins, vena cavae
68
What are the major valves of the heart?
tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral and aortic
69
What are the two types of circulation in the heart?
Pulmonary and systemic
70
What are congenital heart diseases?
Left to Right shunt
- Tetrology of fallot
- Coarction of the aorta
71
What are left to right shunts?
The most common congenital cardiac lesions that permit mixing of blood in systemic and pulmonary circulation
72
What happens when patients have left to right shunts?
The lungs become overlaoded with blood because they move from a high pressure circulation to low pressure pulmonary ciculation
73
What re the 3 types of left to right shunts?
Atrial septal defects
- Ventricular septal defects
- Patent ductus arteriosus
74
What is atrial septal defect?
The most common left to right shunt disorder that is characterized by a hole in the wall that separates the upper chambers of the heart
75
What does ASD cause?
Allows for abnormal blood flow between the two atria, which mixes oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
76
What is ventricular septal defect?
A hole in the heart that is present at birth between the lower chambers of the heart (left/right ventricle)
77
What does a VSD cause?
Causes oxygen-rich blood to move back into the lungs instead of being pumped to the rest of the body
78
What is patent ductus arteriousus?
A persistance of fetal ductus arteriosus
79
What is tetrology of fallout?
The most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease that impacts the flow of blood through the heart
80
What is Tetrology of fallot characterized by?
Four specific defects including VSD with pulmonary stenosis, with the aorta overriding the VSD and with RV Hypertrophy
81
How does tetrology of fallot show on an x-ray?
Heart is boot shaped due to RVH
82
What does the obstruction of blood flow from Tetrology of Fallot lead to?
Blood being diverted through the VSD to the aorta, reducing flow in the lung circulation and causing the child to appear blue (cyanosed)
83
What is coarction of the aorta?
The narrowing or constriction of the aorta
84
Where does coarction of the aorta most commonly occur?
Just beyond the branching of the blood vessels to the head and arms
85
What is a classic sign of coarction of the aorta?
Normal blood pressure in the arms but very low pressure in the legs
86
What is coarction of the aorta the most frequent cause of in children?
Hypertension
87
What are the treatment options of coarction of the aorta?
Surgery or catheterization to repair the narrowing and restore normal blood flow
88
What modality best diagnosis coarction of aorta?
MRI
89
What are Acquired Vascular diseases?
Coronary artery disease
- Congestive Heart failure
- pulmonary edema
- Hypertension
- Aneurysm
- aortic dissection
- Atherosclerosis
90
What is coronary artery disease?
Narrowing of the lumen of one or more of the coronary arteries that results in oxygen deprivation of the myocardio and ischemic heart disease
91
What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?
Athersclorosis which is the deposit of fatty material on the inner arterial wall
92
What are predisposing factors to coronary artery disease?
Hypertension, obesity, smoking, high cholesterol diet, lack of exercise
93
What is congestive heart failure?
The inability of the heart to propel blood at a rate and volume sufficient to provide adequate supply to the tissues
94
What is pulmonary edema?
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the extravascular pulmonary tissue
95
What is another term for pulmonary edema?
Wet lung
96
What is pulmonary edema secondary to?
Left sided heart failure
97
What is hypertension?
High blood pressure, which is the leading cause of strokes and CHF
98
What is an aneurysm?
A localized dilation of an artery that mostly involves the aorta
99
What are the two types of aneurysms?
Saccular and fusiform
100
What is a saccular aneurysm?
Involves only one side of the arterial wall
101
What is a fusiform aneurysm?
Is a bulging of the entire circumference of the vessel wall
102
What are aneurysm treatments?
Open repair, stenting, coiling and clipping
103
What is an aortic dissection?
A potentially life-threatening condition in which disruption of the intima permits blood to enter the wall of the aorta and separate its layers
104
What does an aortic dissection create?
True and false lumen in the aorta
105
What patients are aortic disection most common in?
Patients with arterial hypertension
106
What are other causes of aortic dissection?
Trauma and congenital defects like Marfan syndrome
107
What is the term used to distinguish location and types of aortic dissection?
Stanfor DeBakey
108
What is artherosclerosis?
A condition where the arteries become narrowed and hardened due to the buildup of plaque in the artery wall
109
What is artherosclerosis characterized by?
Thickening, hardning and loss of elasticiy in the arterial walls
110
What is artherosclerosis the major cause of?
Vascular diseases
111
What is a thrombus?
An intravascular clot
112
What causes a thrombus?
Stasis, endothelium injury or inflammation, blood changes
113
What is an embolism?
Part or all of a thrombus that becomes detached from the vessel wall and enters the bloodstream
114
What are types of emboli?
Fat, Septic and air
115
What is an acute embolic occulsion?
A thrombus that becomes detached from the lt atrium in cardiac arrhythmia
116
What is a thromboembolism?
Blood clot breaks loose and causes an embolus
117
What is atheroembolism?
Cholesterol crystals break loose and enter circulation
118
What is pericardial effusion?
The accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space surrounding the heart that interferes with cardiac function
119
What does pericardial effusion result from?
Bacteria, viruses, neoplastic involvement or idiopathic pericardial effusion
120
What is deep vein thrombosis?
A condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg
121
What are the precipitating factors of DVT?
Trauma, bacterial infection, prolonged bed rest and oral contraceptives
122
What is DVT the earliest symptom of?
Unsuspected malignancy of the pancreas, lung or gastrointestinal system
123
What are varicose veins?
Dilated, elongate and torturous vessels that most commonly involve superficial veins of the leg
124
What does a chest x-ray help diagnose in the cardiovascular system?
Cardiomegaly, pulmonary congestion
125
What does echocardiography diagnose?
Valve function and wall motion
126
What do CT/MRI help view in the cardiovascular system?
Vessel and chamber anatomy
127
What is cardiac catheterization?
Coronary artery visualization
128
What systems make up the central nervous system?
The central and peripheral nervous systems
129
What makes up the central nervous system?
Brain and spinal cord
130
What makes up the peripheral nervous system?
12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, autonomic nerves and ganglia
131
What type of neurons make up the PNS?
Afferent (sensory) and Efferent (motor) neurons
132
What are afferent neurons?
Neurons that conduct impulses from peripheral receptors to the CNS
133
What are efferent neurons?
Neurons that conduct impulses away from the CNS to peripheral effectors
134
What is the somatic nervous system?
Nerves that supplies the striated skeletal muscles
135
What is the autonomic nervous system?
Nerves that supply smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glandular epithelial tissues
136
What is CT best for in the nervous system?
Best for trauma and hemorrhage
137
What is MRI best for in the nervous system?
Best for soft tissue, tumors and MS
138
What is angiography best for in the nervous system?
Used for vascular pathology
139
What is Myelography best used for in the nervous system?
Spinal cord compression
140
What are types of CNS infections?
Meningitis
- Encephalitis
- Brain Abscess
141
What is meningitis?
An acute inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord (meninges) - pia mater and arachnoid
142
What are the most common symptoms of meningitis?
Fever, intense headaches, vomiting and neck stiffness and occasional photophobia
143
How do infecting organisms of meningitis reach the meninges?
Infection in the middle ear, upper respiratory tract or frontal sinus, spread through the bloodstream or infection in the lungs
144
What is meningitis caused by?
Bacteria and viruses
145
What is the most common type of meningitis?
Bacterial meningitis (pyogenic)
146
What is encephalitis?
Viral inflammation of the brain and meninges
147
What are the symptoms of encephalitis?
Ranges from mild headaches and fever to severe cerebral dysfunction, seizures and coma
148
What is one of the causes of encephalitis?
Herpes simplex virus
149
What is a brain abscess?
Usually a result of chronic infections of the middle ear, paranasal sinus or mastoid air cells or systemic infections (pneumonia, bacterial endocarditis, osteomyelitis)
150
What are CNS tumors?
Glioma
- Meningioma
- Acoustic Neuroma
- Pituitary Adenoma
151
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
Glioma
152
What are glioma composed of?
Glial cells (supporting connective tissues in the CNS
153
What is the peak incidence of glioma?
Middle age adults, infrequent under 30 years
154
What are the types of gliomas?
Glioblastoma
- Astrocytoma
- Oligodendeoglioma
- Ependymoma
- Medulloblastoma
155
What are the most common types of Glioma?
Glioblastoma and Astrocytoma
156
What is glioblastoma?
A highly agressive cancerous tumor that develops in the brain and forms in the shape of star shaped cells
157
What is astrocytoma?
The most common type of tumor that forms in your brain that can develop randomly
158
What is Oligodendrocytoma?
A CNS tumor that mostly affects the brain
159
What is ependymoma?
A growth of cells that form in the brain and spinal cords that form a tumor from ependymal cells
160
What are the ependymal cells responsible for?
Line the passageways that carry CSF
161
What is medulloblastoma?
A type of brain tumor that primarily affects children that originates in the cerebellum (responsible for coordination and balance)
162
What are the symtoms of medulloblastoma?
Headaches, nausea and problems with balance and coordination
163
What is glioblastoma multiforme?
A grade 4 glioma brain tumor that arises from glial cells
164
What is a tumors grade based on?
How likely the tumor is to grow and spread
165
What is the most aggressive and serious type of tumor
Grade 4
166
What is meningioma?
Tumor that grows from the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord (meninges)
167
Why is a meningioma not classified as a brain tumor?
It forms in the head and not on the brain, but it can press on the brain, nerves and vessels
168
What is acoutic neuroma?
A slowly growing bening tumor that arises from Schwann cells in the vestibular portion of the auditory nerve
169
Where do acoustic neuroma usually originate?
In the internal auditory canal and entend into the cerebellopontine angle cistern
170
What is a pituitary adenoma?
A benign tumor that develops in the pituitary gland and affects pituitary hormone secretions
171
What is the most common type of pituitary adenoma?
Non-secreting chromophobe adenoma
172
What effect does non-secreting chromophobe adenoma have?
Mass effect tumor that supresses pituitary hormone secretions
173
What is hormone secreting pituitary adenoma?
Produce excess hormones causing gigantism in adults or acromegaly in children
174
What are the types of skull fractures?
Linear, diastatic, and depressed
175
What are linear fractures?
Appear on plain radiographs as a sharp lucent line that is often irregular/jagged and occassionally branches
176
What are diastatic fractures?
A linear fracture that intersects a suture and couses along it, causing sutural separation
177
What is a depressed fracture?
Often stellate (start shaped) fracture lines that radiate outward from a central point
178
What is an epidural hematoma?
A collection of blood that forms between the skull and dura mater usually caused by acute arterial bleeding from a laceration
179
How do epidural hematomas usally appear?
As a biconvex peripheral, high density lesion
180
What is a subdural hematoma?
A collection of blood between the dura and other meninges usually caused by venous bleeding
181
How does a subdural hematoma usually appear?
On CT scans as a crescent shaped, peripheral zone of increase density
182
What is a cerebtal contusion?
An injury to the brain tissue caused by movement of the brain within the calvaria after blunt trauma to the skull
183
When do cerebral contusions occur?
When the brain contacts the rough skull surface
184
What are the types of traumatic brain injuries?
Direct impact injury
Acceleration-deceleration injury
Blast injury
185
What is a subarachnoid hemorrage (SAH)
Bleeding into the ventricular systems due to injuries to surface veins, cerebral parenchyma or cortical arteries
186
What is the primary cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
Caused by a ruptured berry aneuysm
187
Where do subarachnoid hemorrhage tend to occur?
Contralateral to the site of direct impact
188
What is a concussion?
Transient loss of consciousness
189
What is stroke syndrome?
A sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurological deficit (acute brain infarction)
190
How do stroke syndromes usually vary?
Vary from dense hemiplegia and coma to only trivial neurological disorders
191
What are the two main types of strokes?
Hemorrhagic and Ischemic strokes
192
What is a hemorrhagic stroke?
Caused by a blockage of one of the cerebral blood vessels
193
What is an ischemic stroke?
Caused by a blood vessel rupture and characterized by bleeding in the brain
194
What is a middle cerebral artery infarct?
A stoke that happens when there is a blockage to the middle cerebral artery in the brain
195
What is a transient ischemic attack (mini stroke)?
Focal neurological deficits that resolve within 24 hours
196
What do TIA's result from?
A brief blockage of blood flow to the brain and typically only lasts a few minutes and does not cause long-term damage
197
How many people who have a TIA will have a full stroke?
1 in 3
198
What is multiple sclerosis?
The most common demyelinating disorder that shows as recurrent attaches of focal neurologic deficits
199
What are the symptoms of MS?
Tremors, coordination issues, speech issues, vertigo, numbness, fatigue and weakness
