Pathology Final - Spring 2025 - Deck 4 Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
What does MS primarily involve?
A
Spinal cord, optic nerve and central white matter of the brain
2
Q
When are the peak incident of MS?
A
Between 20-40
3
Q
What is the modality of choice for demonstrating MS?
A
MRI since it shows scatter plaques of dymyelination
4
Q
How is normal aging evidenced on imaging?
A
Enlargement of the ventricular systems and sulci caused by gradual loss of neurons
5
Q
What are symtoms of normal aging?
A
Eye trouble, hearing loss, high blood pressure, decrease in mobility, agility and balance, decrease in muscle mass and stamina, high risk of accidents
6
Q
What is alzheimer’s disease?
A
A diffuse form of progressive cerebral atrophy that develops at an earlier age than the senial period
7
Q
What is alzheimer’s a form of?
A
Dementia
8
Q
What modalities show alzeimer’s disease?
A
CR and MRI that show cerebral atrophy
9
Q
What is Huntington’s disease?
A
An inherited condition primarily in men that presents in early to middle adult years causing dementia and jerky movements
10
Q
What is a pathologic hallmark of Huntington’s disease?
A
Atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen
11
Q
What is parkinson’s disease?
A
A progressive degenerative disease often called Shaking Palsy
12
Q
What is parkinson’s disease characterized by?
A
Stooped posture, stiffness and slowness of movement, fixed facial expressions, involvuntary rhythmic tremor of the lims
13
Q
When does parkinson’s disease usually show?
A
In middle or later life
14
Q
What is cerebellar atrophy?
A
An isolated atrophy of the cerebellum
15
Q
What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A
Lou Gehrig’s disease that is characterized by widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerve cells
16
Q
What does ALS result in?
A
Extensive paralysis and death from respiratory weakness
17
Q
What is hydrocephalus?
A
A dilation of the ventricular system that is usually associated with increased intracranial pressure
18
Q
What are the twp types of Hydrocephalus?
A
Non-communicating and communicating
19
Q
What is non-communicating hydrocephalus?
A
An obstructive process in which CSF flow is blocked somewhere in its normal path
20
Q
What is communicating hydrocephalus?
A
CSF flow into extraventricular subarachnoid space where it shouldn’t be cauing buildup and swelling
21
Q
What is arnold-chiari malformation?
A
Cerebellar tonsiles herniate into foramen magnum
22
Q
What are red blood cells called?
A
Erythrocytes
23
Q
What are platelets called?
A
Thrombocytes
24
Q
Where are erythrocytes and thrombocytes made?
A
In the red bone marrow
25
What are white blood cells called?
Leukocytes
26
Whre are leukocytes produced?
In red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue
27
What do erythrocytes contain?
Hemoglobin
28
What is hemoglobin?
An iron based protein that carries oxygen to the body's tissue
29
What does blood transport?
Nutrients, hormones, gases and wastes around the body
30
What are the immunological functions of blood?
Regulates pH, temperature and other internal conditions
31
What are the components of blood?
Plasma, platelets, leukocytes and erythrocytes
32
What are the types of leukocytes?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes and lymphocytes
33
What are diseases of red blood cells?
Anemia and polycythemia
34
What is anemia?
A decrease in the amout of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the peripheral blood
35
What are the types of anemia?
Iron deficiency
- Hemolytic
- Megaloblastic
- Aplastic
- Myelophthisic
36
What is the most common type of anemia?
Iron deficiency anemia
37
What is hemolytic anemia?
A blood disorder characterized by the destruction of red blood cells faster than they can be produced by the bone marrow
38
What is hemolytic anemia caused by?
Genetic conditions, autoimmune disorders, infections and certain medications
39
What are the symptoms of hemolytic anemia?
Fatigue, pale skin, shortness of breath and dark colored urine
40
What are the major hereditary forms of hemolytic anemia?
Spherocytosis
- Sickle cell anemia
- Thalassemia
41
What is spherocytosis characterized by?
Most spherical shaped blood cells without concavity
42
What is sickle cell anemia?
An inherited blood disorders where the blood cells become sickled and causes frequent infections, swelling, pain, severe tiredness and delayed growth
43
What is thalassemia?
An inherited blood disorder that affects the body's ability to produce hemoglobin and leading to reduced red blood cell production
44
What are the two main types of thalassemia?
Alpha and beta
45
What are the treatment options for thalassemia?
Blood transfusions, iron chelation therapy and transplants
46
What is megaloblastic anemia?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
47
What is aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow failure
48
What is Myelophthisic anemia?
Infiltration of bone marrow with nonhematopoietic cells
49
What is polycythemia?
An increased production of erythrocytes, granulocytes and platelets
50
What is the primary form of hyperplasia?
Characterized by hyperplasia of the bone marrow
51
What is the secondary form of hyperplasia?
Is the result of long-term inadequate oxygen supply in patients with severe chronic pulmonary diseases
52
What is leukemia?
Neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells
53
What are the two major types of leukemia?
Myelocytic and lymphatic leukemia
54
What is myelocytic leukemia?
Cancer of the bone marrow
55
What is lymphatic leukemia?
A malignancy of the lymph node
56
What do the excessive WBCs of leukemia cause?
A decrease in circulating RBCs and platelets
57
What is lymphoma?
Neoplasm of the lymphoreticular systems, which includes lymph nodes, spleen and lymphoid tissues of parencymal organs
58
Where are lymphomas derived from?
B and T cells
59
What are the two major types of lymphoma?
Hodgkins and Non-hodgkins
60
What is hodgkins lymphoma?
Spread in a continuous manner to nearby lymph nodes but rarely involve extranodal sites
61
What is non-hodgkins lymphoma?
Can sometimes spread non-continuously and can involve extranodal sites
62
What is the most common radiographic finding in lymphoma?
Mediastinal lymph node enlargement
63
What are signs and symptoms of lymphoma?
Swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, weightloss, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, muscle weakness
64
What is infectious mononucleosis?
Commonly known as mono, is a contagious disease primarly caused by the Epstein Barr virus
65
How does infectious mono spread?
Through saliva
66
What are symptoms of infectious mononucleousis?
Fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes and fatigue with recovery in 2-4 weeks
67
What is hemophilia?
An inherited anomaly of blood coagulation typically in males
68
What is hemophilia characterized by?
A decreased or absent serum concentration of antihemophilic globulin (factor VIII) causing spontaneous hemorrhage or severe bleeding from minor injuries
69
What is Purpura?
A deficiency in the number of platelets
- decreased production
- increased destruction
- splenic sequestration
70
What does purpura result in?
Spontaneous hemorrhage in the skin, mucous membranes of the mouth and internal organs
71
What does multiple myeloma look like on radiographs?
Punched out lesions on skull/spine
72
What does sickle cell anemia look like on a radiograph?
Hair on end skull, H shaped vertebrae
73
How does Leukemia present on a radiograph?
Diffuse skeletal changes, osteopenia
74
How does Lymphoma present on a radiograph?
Enlarged nodes, splenomegaly
75
What do the endocrine glands secrete?
Hormones directly into the bloodstream
76
What are the major glands of the endocrine system?
Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroud, adrenal, pancreas and gonads
77
What is hyperpituitarism?
Excess secretion of growth hormone
78
What does hyperpituitarism result in?
Giagantism in children and acromegaly in adults
79
What does hyperpituitarism cause?
Excessive hair growth in women, large hands, feet and forehead, skin discoloration and tongue problems
80
What is hypopituitarism?
A disturbance in bone growth and maturation that causes in a type of dwarfism
81
What is hyperthyroidism?
An excessive production of thyroid hormones
82
What is an example of hyperthryoidism?
Grave's disease
83
What are symtoms of Grave's disease?
Bulging eyes and goiters
84
What is hypothyroidism?
A diminsmed production of thyroid hormones
85
What are two types of hypothyroidism?
Cretinism and Myxedema
86
What is Cretinism?
A congenital form of hypothyroidism characterized by short stature, protruding tongue, broad flat nose, protuberant abdomen
87
What is a goiter?
An enlargment of they thyroid gland that doesn't result from inflammation or neoplasm
88
What is thyroid carcinoma?
Cancer of the thyroid that can be papillary, follicular and medullary
89
What is papillary thryoid carcinoma?
Most common type of thyroid carcinoma that is slow growing and cystic
90
What is follicular thyroid carcinoma?
Most commonly occurs in women over 40 and undergoes hematogenous spread to lungs and bones
91
What is medullary thyroid carcinoma?
Rarest form of thyroid carcinoma which often appear as a component of a syndrome
92
What is hyperparathyroidism?
An excessive secretion of parathormone, resulting in a generalized disorder of calcium
93
What does hyperparathyroidism cause?
Bone reaborption in the form of "brown tumors"
94
What is hypoparathyroidism?
A decrease of secretion of PTH caused by injury or removal of parathyrpid glands
95
What does hypoparathyroidism cause?
Sustained muscle contraction, hypocalcemia, neuromuscular irritability
96
What is Cushing's syndrome?
An excess production of glucocorticoid hormones (adrenaline)
97
What are the main symptoms of Cushing's syndrome?
Moon face, fat deporits on face and back of shoulders, hirsutism
98
What is aldosteronism?
Excess production of the aldosterone hormone which results in low renin levels and high BP
99
What is aldosteronism usually caused by?
Hyperplasia or tumors
100
What is Pheochromocytoma?
A tumor that most commonly arises in the anrenal medulla
101
What does Pheochromocytoma produce?
An excess of vasopressin substances (epinephrine/norepinephrine)
102
What does Pheochromocytoma cause?
Uncommon but curable hypertension
103
What is adrenal carcinoma?
Primary malignancy of the adrenal gland that are rare but grow rapidly
104
What is diabetes mellitus?
Common endocrine disorder where the pancrease fails to secrete insulin or target cells in it fail to respond to it
105
What is Type 1 diabetes?
Insulin dependency
106
What does type 1 diabetes result in?
Hyperglycemia
107
What are the complications of diabetes mellitus?
Artherosclorisis, retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy, vascular diseases
108
What are Insulinoma & Glucagonoma?
Islet cell tumors of the pancreas
109
What is the common site for pathology in elderly men?
Prostate Gland
110
What is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
Enlarged prostate, urinary obstruction
111
Who does BPH most commonly affect?
Men over 60
112
Where does prostate cancer usually occur?
Posterior lobe of the prostate
113
Where does prostate cancer usually metastasize?
To bone
114
What are the two types of testicular tumors?
Seminomas and Nonseminomas
115
What are types of nonseminomas?
Teratomas and other germ cell tumors
116
How are testicular tumors diagnosed?
Via ultrasound
117
What is a hydrocele?
Fluid in tunica vaginalis
118
What is hydrocele a complication of?
Epididymitis
119
What is cryptorchidism?
Also known as undescended testis which is most common in premature males
120
What is the risk of malignancy in crytorchidism?
40 times higher than that of descended testicles
121
What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Inflammation of pelvic reproductive organs like fallopian tubs or uterus
122
What is the most common cause of PID?
Usually the result of STD's in women of childbearing age
123
What is endometriosis?
Misplaced growth of the endometrial tissue on the outside of the uterus
124
What is endometriosis identified by?
Stages of lesion growth outside the uterus
125
What are the types of ovarian cysts?
Follicular and corpus luteum which are often benign.
126
How are follicular cysts identified?
Unrupture, enlarged follicles
127
When do corpus luteal cysts occur?
After continued hemorrage or lack of resolution of the corpus luteum
128
What characterizes Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?
Multiple cysts + hormonal imbalance
129
What is the most common genital disorder found in young women?
PCOS
130
What are the symptoms of PCOS?
Hair loss, hirsutism, pelvic pain, infertility, irregular periods, fatigue
131
What are uterine fibroids also known as?
Leiomyomas which are benign tumors that often occur in multiple numbers.
132
What are uterine fibroids stimulated by?
Estrogen
133
What is the most common postmenopausal malignancy?
Endometrial Carcinoma
134
What is the name of the predominent neoplasm of the uterine body?
Adenocardinoma of the endometrium
135
Who are most affected by endometrial carcinoma?
Postmenopausal women
136
What is the third most common form of cancer in women?
Cervical cancer
137
What virus is linked to cervical cancer?
HPV
138
How is cervical cancer detected?
Via pap smear
139
What types of tumors can ovarian tumors be?
Benign or malignant
140
What is an example of a malignant ovarian tumor?
Cystadenocarcinoma which appears as a large cystic mass with internal septa
141
What is the first-line imaging modality for pelvic pathology?
Ultrasound (US)
142
What imaging modalities are used for advanced staging and tumor visualization?
MRI and CT
143
What is the purpose of mammography?
Screening for breast cancer
144
What is hysterosalpingography (HSG) used for?
Evaluate uterus/fallopian tubes
145
What is fibroadenoma?
Most common benign breast tumor
146
What are fibrocystic changes?
Cyst formation, cyclic tenderness in the breast that are typically benign and change with the menstrual cycle
147
Where is breast cancer commonly located?
Upper outer quadrant and typically presents with irregular margins and spiculated mass
148
What is obesity?
Excessive body fat
149
What does obesity increase the risk of?
Several diseases including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and arthritis.
150
What is diabetes mellitus?
Impaired insulin production or use
151
What are the complications of diabetes mellitus?
Retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy.
152
What is gout?
Uric acid crystal deposition in joints, it commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
153
What is rickets?
Vitamin D deficiency in children characterized by bowing of legs and widened growth plates.
154
What is osteomalacia?
Adult form of rickets which results in softening of bones due to vitamin D deficiency.
155
What is scurvy?
Vitamin C deficiency with symptoms include bleeding gums and poor wound healing.
156
What is lupus (SLE)?
Autoimmune disease that is a type of connective tissue disorder that primarily affects women
157
What is lupus (SLE) characterized by?
Butterfly shaped rash over the nose and cheeks and extreme skin sensitivity to sun. Also causes painful joints, heart attacks, pleural effusion
158
What is rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Chronic inflammatory joint disease
159
What is scleroderma?
Skin and connective tissue fibrosis
160
What is sarcoidosis?
Granulomas in lungs, skin, lymph nodes
161
What is asbestosis?
Pulmonary fibrosis due to asbestos inhalation
162
What is silicosis?
Lung disease from silica exposure
163
What is Coal Worker’s Pneumoconiosis commonly known as?
Black lung disease
164
What are the symptoms of lead poisoning?
Anemia, abdominal pain, cognitive decline
165
What are the complications associated with alcoholism?
Liver cirrhosis, pancreatitis, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
166
What is anemia?
Low red cell count or hemoglobin
167
What is Wilson’s Disease?
Copper metabolism disorder that primarily affects the liver and brain.
168
What imaging modality is used for bone changes?
Radiographs specifically to diagnose conditions such as rickets, gout, and arthritis.
169
What imaging modalities are used for organ damage?
CT and MRI
170
What is ultrasound used for?
Soft tissue & organ screening
171
What condition comes from Vitamin D deficiency in adults?
Osteomyelitis
172
What are the classic signs of pnemothorax in x-ray?
Won't see lung markings nice and clear
173
What do elevated PSA levels indicated?
Prostate Cancer
174
What is a common cause of hydronephrosis?
Blockage of urethral tubes
175
What is the name of the fracture in C2 vertebrae?
Hangman's
176
What pathology prevents the lower esophageal sphincter from relaxing?
Achelasia
177
What does VCUG evaluate?
Urethra to check for obstruction
178
What pulmonary disease is linked to asbestos?
Asbestosis
179
What disease presents as a hair-like appearance on the skull?
Sickle cell anemia
180
Which modality is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism?
CT angiography
181
What is the typical location of a stroke due to middle cerebral artery occlusion?
Temporal or parietal lobes
182
If a patient has widened epiphysial plates or bowing of the legs what disease do they have?
Rickets
183
If you see a speculated mass on a mammogram what is it indicative of?
Breast cancer
184
Is fibroadenoma a cancer?
No it’s a benign tumor
185
Are breast cysts cancerous?
No they're typically benign
186
Which thyroid cancer is most common?
Papillary carcinoma
187
What hormone is deficient in Type 1 diabetes?
Insulin
188
If you see a sunburst on an X-ray on the limbs what disease is present?
Osteosarcoma
189
What is the most common dymelinating disorder?
MS
190
Which modality is best used to diagnose brain tumors?
MRI
191
What brain tumor is found on the 8th cranial nerve?
Acoustic neuroma
192
What is hashimoto's thyroidism?
A chronic autoimmune disease that damages the thyroid gland, often leading to hypothyroidism
193
What is Grave's disease?
A type of hyperthryoidism that results in bulging eyes and goiters
194
If someone has a buildup of uric acid what disease do they have?
Gout
195
What is a common sign for pulmonary edema on xray?
Kerley B lines
196
What test is done for a myocardial infarction?
Troponin
197
What condition causes left sided heart failure?
Mitral valve stenosis
198
What condition involves endometrial tissue outside the uterus?
Endometriosus
