Pathology Final - Spring 2025 - Deck 2 Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
What are some causes of pleural effusion?
A
congenital Heart failure
- pulmonary embolism
- infection (especially TB)
- pleurisy
- neoplastic disease
- Connective tissue disorder
- surgery
2
Q
What is empyema?
A
A rare accumulation of infected liquid or pus in the pleural space
3
Q
What is empyema caused by?
A
The spread of adjacent infection adter surgery, trauma or instrumentation of the pleural space
4
Q
What are the functions of the skeletal system?
A
provides structural support and protection for internal organs
- stores minerals such as calcium and phosphorus
- produces Blood cells in the bone marrow
5
Q
What are some congenital and hereditary disorders of the skeletal system?
A
spina bifida
- osteopetrosis
- osteogenesis imperfecta
- achondroplasia
- congenital hip dysplasia
6
Q
What is spina bifida?
A
A congenital condition where the spinal column doesn’t close completely during fetal development
7
Q
What are the 3 types of spina bifida?
A
Occulta
- Meningocele
- Meningomyelocele (open spina bifida)
8
Q
What is spina bifida occulta?
A
The mildest form of spina bifida, which results in a small gap in the vertebra without a visible sac
9
Q
What is spina bifida with meningocele?
A
When a sac of CSF protrudes through the spin cord opening, but the spinal cord remains unaffected
10
Q
What is spina bifida with miningomyelocele?
A
The most severe form of spina bifida when a sac of CSF, the spinal cord and meninges protrude through an opening in the spine
11
Q
What is osteopetrosis?
A
A rare hereditary bone dysplasia in which defective osteoclasts prevent the resorptive mechanism of bones making them very dense
12
Q
What is another name of osteopetrosis?
A
Marble bone since the bones are highly calcified
13
Q
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
A
A hereditary disorder of connective tissue that results in multiple bone fractures and blue color of the sclera of the eyes
14
Q
What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?
A
Brittle bone disease
15
Q
What is achondroplasia?
A
The most common form of dwarfism that results from impaired cartliage development
16
Q
What is achondroplasia characterized by?
A
Short limps with a normal acial skeleton
17
Q
What is congenital hip dysplasia/dislocation?
A
Incomplete formation of the acetabulum which leads to hip dislocation
18
Q
What are inflammatory/infectious disorders of the skeletal system?
A
Rheumatoid arthritis
- Osteomyelitis
- Bursitis
- Rotator cuff tears/meniscus tears
19
Q
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
A
A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the small joints
20
Q
What are the RA variants?
A
Ankylosing spondylitis
- Reactive arthritis
- Psoriatic arthritis
21
Q
What is ankylosing spondylitis?
A
A type of RA that primarily affects the spine, causing the joints between the vertebra and SI joints to be inflammed
22
Q
What is ankylosing spondylitis also known as?
A
Bamboo spine
23
Q
What is reactive arthritis?
A
A type of inflammatory arthritis that develops as a reaction to an infection elsewhere in the body
24
Q
What are the causes of Reactive arthritis?
A
Chlamydia and STI’s
25
What are the sumptoms of Reactive arthritis?
Joint pain and swelling, typically 2-6 weeks after the initial STI infection
26
What is reactive arthritis also known as?
Reiters syndrome
27
What is psoriatic arthritis?
A chronic inflammatory condition that affects the joints and the skin
28
What is Osteomyelitis?
Bone infection caused by bacteria that commonly affects the long bones
29
What are the two types of osteomyelitis?
bacterial Osteomyelitis
- Tuberculous Osteomyelitis
30
What is bacterial osteomyelitis?
Inflammation of the bone and marrow casued by infectious organisms, typically staph infections
31
What is tuberculous osteomyelitis?
Bone infections of the T and L spine also known as Pott's disease
32
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of the small fluid sacs located near the joints that reduce the friction caused by movement
33
What is bursitis usually caused by?
Repeated physical activity, trauma, rheumatoid arthritis, gout or infections
34
What are rotator cuff tears?
A tear in the musculotendinous structure of the shoulder
35
What is the modality of choice to diagnose bursitis?
MRI
36
What are metabolic bone diseases?
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia/rickets
- gout
- paget's disease
37
What is osteporosis?
Decreaed bone mass that causes the bone to become porous and break easily
38
What are the causes of osteoporosis?
Aging and postmenopausal hormonal changes
39
How should kVp be altered when imaging osteoporosis?
A lower kVp
40
What is osteomalacia?
Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton that causes softening of the bone and bowing
41
What is osteomalacia caused by?
An inadequate intake or absorption of calcium
42
What is rickets?
The childhood form of osteomylacia that causes the softening of bones due to vitamin deficiency
43
How are osteomalacia and rickets treated?
Through vitamin D therapy
44
What is gout?
A disorder in the metabolism of purine which increases the uric acid in the blood and leads to deposits of uric acid crystals on the joints
45
How does gout manifest?
As painful arthritis that attacks a single joint, 1st MSP joint
46
What is paget disease?
An abnormal bone remodeling also known as osteitis deformans
47
What is an associated risk of paget's disease?
Osteosarcoma later in life
48
What are the symptoms of paget's disease?
Bone pain, bone deformities, fractures, joint pain and hearing loss
49
What are types of benign bone tumors?
Osteochondroma
- Enchondroma
- Giant cell Tumor (osteclastoma)
- Osteoma
50
What is osteochondroma also known as?
Exostosis
51
What is Osteochondrom/Exostosis?
A benign projection of bone with a cartilagenous cap that arises in childhood
52
Where do osteochondroma/exostosis normally appear?
Near the knee
53
What are characteristics of osteochondroma?
long axis of the Tumor runs parallel to the bone shaft
- points away from the nearest joint
54
What is Enchondroma?
A low growing benign cartilaginous tumor that arises in the medullary canal
55
Where does Enchondroma usually present?
in small bones of the hands and feet
56
How are enchondroma found?
When imaging fractures that occur with minimal force
57
What are giant cell tumors (osteoclastoma)?
Tumors that arise athe ent end of the distal femur or proximal tibia of young adults
58
What is osteoma?
Tumors that arise in the outer table of the skull, paranasal sinus and the madible that are painful
59
What are types of malignant bone tumors?
- Osteosarcoma
- Chondrosarcoma
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Multiple myeloma
60
What is osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)?
A malignant tumor of osteoblasts that generally appear at the end of long bones in the metaphysis
61
What group of people do osteogenic sarcomas appear in?
Most common in people between the age of 10-25
62
What is Chrondrosarcoma?
A malignant tumor that originates from a pre-existing cartilaginous lesion (osteochondroma or enchondroma)
63
Where do chondrosarcoma typically originate?
In ribs, scapula or vertebra
64
When do chondrosarcoma develop?
Later in age and grow slowly/metastasize later
65
What is Ewing sarcoma?
A type of cancer that begins as a growth of cells in the bone and soft tissue around the bone
66
What is multiple myeloma?
A widespread malignancy of the plasma cells
67
What are multiple myeloma associated with?
Bone destruction, bone marrow failure, hypercalcemia, renal failure and recurrent infections
68
What group of people do multiple myeloma affect?
Persons between 40-70
69
What is bone metastases?
The most common malignant bone tumorH
70
How do bone metastases spread?
From primary tumors by means of the bloodstream or lymphatic vessels
71
What are typical sites of metastic spread?
Bones containing red bone marrow, spine, pelvis, ribs, skull and upper ends of humerus/femur
72
What are complete fractures?
Fracture that results in two bone fragments
73
What are incomplete fractures?
Fracture where one side is broken but the cortex is intact
74
What is an open fracture?
Compound fracture where there is an associated skin wound
75
What is a closed fracture?
Fracture with the skin intact
76
What are the types of bone fractures?
Transverse
- Oblique
- Spinral
- Communinuted
- Greenstick
- Stress
77
What is a transverse fracture?
Fracture line that is horizontal to the long axis of a bone
78
What is an Oblique fracture?
A fracture line that extends at an angle to the long axis of a bone
79
What is spiral fracture?
Fracture line that encircles the shaft of a bone
80
What is a communinuted fracture?
More than two bone fragments
81
What is a greenstick fracture?
Occurs in immature bone where one side of cortex remains intact
82
What is a stress fracture?
Response of bone to repeated streessors none of which alone would cause a fracture, but combined will
83
What are common fractures?
- Colles' (wrist)
- Boxer's (hand)
- Jones (foot)
- Monteggia (forearm)
- Galeazzi (radius/ulna)
84
What is a Colles fracture?
A transverse fracture through the distal radius (wrist)
85
What is a Boxer's fracture?
Transverse fracture of the neck of the 5th metacarpal oftne caused by hittin an object with a closed fist
86
What is a Monteggia fracture?
Fracture in the ulnar shaft (forearm) associated with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow
87
What is Galeazzi fracture?
A fracture of the radial shaft and rosal disloation of the ulna at the wrist
88
What is a Jones fracture?
Transverse fracture of the 5th metatarsal bone (foot)
89
What are the two classifications of spinal fractures?
Stable and unstable
90
What is a stable spine fracture?
Where one of the two major columns of the spine are intact
91
What is an unstable spine fracture?
Both major columns of the spine are disrupted
92
What are the types of spinal fractures?
- Jefferson
- Hangman's
- Odontoid
- Clay Shovler's
93
What is a Jefferson fracture?
Communited fracture of C1
94
What is an Odontoid fracture?
Fracture at the base of the dens
95
What is a Hangman's fracture?
Fracture of C2 arch with sublucation of C2-C3
96
What is a clay shoveler's fracture?
An avulsion fracture of a spinous process in the lower C spine or upper T spine
97
What is an avulsion fracture?
Where small fragments of are pulled away from bone by attached ligaments
98
What is spondylosis?
Defects or forward displacement of the vertebrae.
99
What site is spondylosis most common?
At L5
100
What is the basic function of the GI system?
To alter the chemical and physical composition of food so it can be absorbed and used by body cells (digestion, absorption, elimination)
101
What is the GI tract composed of?
Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, gall bladder and pancreas
102
What are pathologies of the esophagus?
Tracheoesophgeal fistula
- Esophageal atresia
- Esophagitis
- Esophogeal Cancer
- Hiatal hernia
- Achelasia
103
What is traceoesophageal fistula?
An abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachae that causes breathing and feeding issues
104
What are the two types of tracehoesophageal fistula?
Congenital and acquired
105
What is congenital form of traceoesophageal fistula?
Results from the failure of the esophageal lumen to develop completely separate from the trachea
106
What is acquired traceoesophageal fistula?
Caused by cancer, infection, trauma or performation
107
What is esophageal atresia?
A congenital medical condition that affects the aligmentary tract and is when the esophagus hasn't finished developing
108
What does esophageal atresia cause?
The esophagus to end in a blind pouch rather than connecting normally to the stomach
109
What is esophagitis?
Is the backflow of acid and stomach contents into the esophagus
110
What is acute esophagitis most commonly the result of?
GERD
111
What does chronic esophagitis result in?
Strictures or barrett esophagus
112
What is barrett esophagus?
A condition when the lining of the esophagus changes to me more like the tissue that lines the esophagus
113
What is esophageal cancer?
Cancer of the esophagus where most are the squamous cell type of the esophogastric junction
114
What is esophageal cancer associated with?
Excessive alcohol intake or smoking
115
What are esophageal varices?
Large, swollen blood vessels around the esophagus caused by high blood pressure in the vessels in/around the liver
116
What are the symtoms of esophageal varices?
Typically asymptomatic but can bleed spontaneously
117
What causes esophageal varices?
Portal hypertension which is caused by cirrhosis of the liver
118
What is a hiatal hernia?
Protrusion of a portion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm
119
What does a hiatal hernia typically cause?
GERD
120
What is an inguinal hernia?
Intestines protrude the muscle wall of the groin
121
What is achalasia?
A functional obstruction of the distal esophagus with proximal dilation
122
What is achalasia caused by?
Incomplete relaxation of the lowe esophageal sphincter
123
What are disorders of the stomach?
Gastritis
- Peptic ulcer disease
- pyloric stenosis
- gastric Cancer
124
What is gastritis?
Inflammation of the stomach mucosa, often cause by alcohol, corrosive agents or infection
125
Which bacterial infection specifically causes gastritis?
H.pylori which is a bacteria caused by ulcers
126
What are the symptoms of gastritis?
Pain, reflux, nausea, vomiting and loss of appetite
127
What is pyloric stenosis?
A condition when the muscles around the pylorus become thicker than normal and narrow the passage into the small intestine
128
What are the symptoms of pyloric stenosis?
Forecful vomiting, dehydration and weight loss
129
What is pyloric stenosis often described as?
A mobile, hard "olive"
130
What does pyloric stenosis cause?
Obstruction preventing food from entering the duodenum
131
What is peptic ulcer disease?
Erosions (sores) in the stomach lining, common in the duidenal bulb
132
What is peptic ulcer disease caused by?
It is caused by action of acid and pepsin secreted by the stomach due to alcohol, food, medication, smoking or viruses
133
PUD is the most common cause of what symptom?
Upper gastrointestingal bleeding
134
Where is gastric cancer the most prevalent?
In Japan, Chile and parts of eastern europe
135
How is gastric cancer typically diagnosed?
In the late stages since it isn't symptomatic
136
What is the prognosis of stomach cancer?
Poor since its not detected until late stage
137
What are small bowel disorders?
- Crohn's disease
- Small Bowel Obstruction
- Adynamic Ileum
- Intussusception
- Malabsorption disorders
138
What is Crohn's disease?
Chronic inflammation that often infects the terminal area of the ileum
139
Who is most affected by Crohn's disease?
Young adults and brought on by stress
140
What is a small bowel obstruction caused by?
Most often caused by fibrous adhesions from surgery
141
What is the other causes of small bowel obstruction?
Hernia, liminal occlusion, intrinsic lesions
142
What are the different types of bowel obstruction?
Herniation, adhesions, intussesception and volvulus
143
What is adynamic ileus?
Also termed paralytic ileus and is when the intestines fail to perform peristalsis
144
What are the causes of adynamic ileus?
Foreigh object that was swallowed, impacted stool, tumors, twisted intestines, intissisception, scar tissue, hernia, gallstones
145
What is intussusception?
The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another because of peristalsis
146
What group does intussusception usually affect?
Children
147
What are malabsorption disorders?
A digestive disorder that prevents your body from effectively absorbing nutrients from food
148
What is the result of malabsorption disorders?
Steatorrhea, which a foul smelling stool that floats
149
What is teh cause of malabsorption disorders?
Damage to the mucuous lining of the small intestine
150
What is tropical sprue?
A malabsorption disease found in tropical regions that causes flattening of the villi and inflammation of the small intestine
151
What is whipple disease?
A rare bacterial infection cause by bacterium tropheryma whipplei that affects the joints and digestive system
152
What are large bowel disorders?
Appendicitis
- Diverticulosus and Diverticulitis
- Ulcerative colitis
- colon Cancer
- large bowel obstruction
- volvulus
153
What is appendicitis?
Inflammation of the appendix, due to obstruction with the risk of rupturing
154
What are the symptoms of appendicitis?
Mild cramping in the upper abdomen (belly button) that moves to the lower right quadrant
155
What are causes of appendicitis?
obstruction
- appendix stones, lymphoid hyperplasia, colitis, tumors, parasites and cystic fibrosis
156
What is Diverticulosis?
An outpuching of the intestinal layers through the bowel wall
157
Where does diverticulosis most commonly occur?
In the sigmoid portion of the large intestine
158
What is diverticulitis?
A complication of diverticulosis that leads to necrosing inflammation in the diverticula
159
What are the risks of diverticulosis/diverticulitis?
Infection, performation, abscesses and fistulas
160
What are the risk factors of diverticulitis?
Aging, obesity, fatty diet, straining during bowel movements, smoking and medicine
161
What is ulcerative colitis?
A chronic inflammatory disease of the bowel that is characterized by alternating periods of remission and relapse
162
What type of cancer is the 3rd leading cause of cancer in the US?
Colon cancer
163
At what age does colon cancer peak?
50-70
164
What are predisposing factors to colon cancer?
Long term ulcerative colitis or familial polyposis
165
What do most large bowel obstructions result from?
colon cancer
166
What is volvulus of the colon/
Twisting of the bowel on itself that can cause an obstruction
167
What are the most common sites of volvulus?
Cecum and sigmoid
168
What are hepatobiliary and pancreatic disorders?
gallstones
- cholecystitis
- cirrhosis
- hepatitis
- pancreatitis
- pancreatic Cancer
169
What are gallstones?
Hardened deposits in the gallbladder
170
What are the two major types of gallstones?
Cholesterol and pigment gallstones
171
What are cholesterol gallstones?
The predominent type of gallstones that are yellow in color and mostly composed of undissolved cholesterol
172
What are pigment gallstones?
Dark brown or black stones from when the bile contains too much bilirubin
173
What are predispositions of gallstones?
Family history, age over 40, overweight and female
174
What is the modality of choice to diagnose gallstones?
Ultrasound
175
What is acute cholecystitis?
An acute inflammation of the gallbladder caused by cystic duct obstruction
176
What is emphsematous cholecystitis?
A rare condition when gas forming organisms grow in the gallbladder
177
Who doe emphysematous cholecystitis usually affect?
Elderly men or people with poorly controlled diabetes
178
What is hepatitis?
The most prevalent inflammatory disease of the liver which is caused by viruses
179
What are the viral types of hepatitis?
- Hepatitis A (HAV)
- Hepatitis B (HBV)
- Hepatits C (HCV)
- Hepatitis E (HEV)
180
Which type of Hepatitis are healthcare workers at risk of exposure?
HBV
181
What is cirrhosis?
The chronic destruction of liver cells and structure with nodular regeneration of the liver
182
What is the major cause of cirrhosis?
Chronic alcoholism
183
What is the most common symptom of cirrhosis?
Ascities, which is fluid accumulation in the abdomen
184
What is acute pancreatitis?
An inflammatory process in which digestive enzymes start to digest the pancreas itself
185
What are symptoms of acute pancreatitis?
Severe pain in the upper abdomen, nausea and vomiting
186
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Excessive alcohol consumption
187
What is chronic pancreatitis?
Inflammation of the pancrease due to frequent injury and scar tissue
188
What are the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis?
Pain, malabsorption and diabetes
189
What is the most common type of cancer of the pancreas?
Adenocarcinoma
190
What is the most common site of pancreatic cancer?
The head of pancreas
191
What dictates the stages of pancreatic cancer?
The resectability
192
What is a nephron?
Functional unit of the kidney
193
What is the function of the urinary system?
Filter waste produces from the blood, reabsorb water and nutrients from the tubular fluid and secrete excess substances in the form of urine
194
What are the organs of the urinary systems?
Kidneys, ureters bladder and urethra
195
What are the hormones of the urinary system?
ADH (water retention) and Aldosterone (sodium reabsorption)
196
What are congenital diseases of the urinary system?
Anomalies of number and size
- Anomalies of rotation, position and fusion
- Anomalies of renal pelvis and ureter
197
What is unilateral renal agenesis?
A rare congenital anomaly in which only one kidney forms
198
What is supernumerary kidney?
A rare anomaly in which a small, third kidney forms
199
What is hypoplastic kidney?
Appears as a miniature replica of normal kidney, with good function
