Progress Tests Flashcards
1
Q
On the OHP, what is signified by a blue light?
A
Normal, but temporary, use of a system.
2
Q
Regarding the lights on the OHP, what does a WHITE light signify?
A
Abnormal Switch Position
3
Q
Where in the cockpit are the Secondary Circuit Breakers installed?
A
Right rear corner
4
Q
What is a RED OEB?
A
Non-compliance with recommended procedures that may have a significant impact on safe operation. Operators shall provide all flight crews with these OEBs or their content without delay
5
Q
What is the maximum runway slope?
A
2%
6
Q
What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff?
A
10kts
*one rego VWT has 15kts.
7
Q
What is the maximum ground speed? (Tire)
A
195kt
8
Q
What is the maximum service ceiling for the A320?
A
39 800ft
9
Q
From which panel are the Water and Waste systems controlled?
A
FAP (Forward Attendant Panel)
10
Q
The red light on an entry/service door will flash if:
A
The cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides disarmed
11
Q
When are escape slides at the overwing exits armed?
A
Permanently armed
12
Q
What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cockpit window?
A
200kt
13
Q
What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cabin door?
A
65kt
14
Q
What is the altitude limitation if there is NO crack on cockpit side (inner ply) in event of Windshield crack?
A
No limitation.
If cracked FL230
15
Q
Which cockpit lighting is available when only the batteries are powering the aircraft?
A
Right-hand dome light (FO side)
16
Q
During the approach phase with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the L/G is extended?
A
-taxi and takeoff lights
-runway turnoff lights
17
Q
With the white strobe light switch at AUTO, when will the lights operate?
A
When the main gear strut is not compressed
18
Q
For aircraft equipped with electrical escape paths or electrical exit markers, internal batteries supply electrical power for?
A
At least 12 min
19
Q
Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?
A
By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.
20
Q
Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mix re-established?
A
By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.
21
Q
Where is the CREW pb switch situated that controls the oxygen supply solenoid valve?
A
On the overhead panel.
22
Q
At what cabin pressure altitude do the oxygen mask drop automatically?
A
14000ft
23
Q
What is the crew and what is the passenger oxygen provide by?
A
Crew- an oxygen cylinder.
Passenger- a chemical oxygen generator system.
24
Q
Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically supply overpressure regardless of the Emergency Pressure selector position?
A
Cabin Altitude exceeds 30000 ft
25
In column 4 of MEL, what is indicated by (O) and (M)?
(O)- The crew must perform an operational procedure.
(M)- A maintenance procedure must be performed.
26
After a single DMC failure, how would a crew member recover the display units?
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
27
On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?
Display suppressed warnings and cautions on the ECAM.
28
If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
ADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.
29
When is the STS SD called up automatically (other than during an ECAM drill)?
‐ The STATUS page is not empty, and the flight crew clears the last alert on the E/WD
-The STATUS page is not empty, and the flight crew selects the CONF1 for approach.
30
What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 (CFM) or EPR (IAE) gauges?
Both engines are at IDLE speed and the aircraft is in flight.
31
What is the significance of “T/O INHIBIT” being displayed in the MEMO’s
Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb to 1500ft.
32
What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?
The associated SD is automatically displayed.
33
During the Take OFF roll, which page is displayed on the S.D?
ENG
34
What indication follows a level 3 warning?
Continuous Repetitive Chime or specific sound or voice. Plus, Master Warning flashing red plus red warning message.
35
An excessive ILS deviation is indicated by?
LOC and G/S scale indications flash continually. Only half a symbol appears at the end of the scale.
36
What happens at N2>43% (IAE) during an automatic start?
The igniter(s) goes OFF and the Start Valve closes.
37
During a MAN ENG START, when does the start valve automatically close?
43% N2
38
During an autostart when does the highlighted gray box around the N2 indication disappear?
When the START sequence has ended.
39
During ENG START, when will the FADEC be powered?
MODE SEL to START
40
During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch on overhead panel do?
It opens the start valve only.
41
On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT light?
An AUTO START has been aborted.
42
Are crank actions shown on ECAM for Manual ENG Start Fault?
No- there is no crew awareness message to indicate the reason for the extended motoring.
43
How can the pilot carryout a manual Engine Crank procedure?
Turn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MAN START switch on overhead panel to OPEN the START valve.
44
When is maximum reverse permitted?
Not below 70kt. Idle reverse is permitted down to aircraft stop.
45
Thrust reversers are actuated by:
Hydraulic actuators: green for engine 1, yellow for engine 2
46
(IAE) What is the maximum continuous oil temperature?
155deg
47
(IAE) Maximum EGT during engine start is:
635 deg
48
The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?
If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, the APU keeps running for a cooling period of 60 to 120 s
49
In ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to?
25,000 feet or below.
50
When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:
Runs when inner wing tank pump pressure is not sufficient
51
What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff:
1500 Kg
52
Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when the slats are extended for takeoff:
To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff and landing.
53
Fuel transfer from the outer wing tank to the inner wing tank occurs when the inner tank quantity decreases to:
750 Kg
54
If both transfer valves on one side fail:
The outer tank quantity is boxed amber on the ECAM fuel page
55
Regarding fuel recirculation, When Wing Tank is underfull?
CTR Tank pumps restart.
56
When is the PTU inhibited?
-for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation.
-during first engine start.
-only one ENG master sw ON with parking brake ON.
57
When will a white squib light illuminate on the fire panel?
When the FIRE pb is released out. (Helps the crew identify the AGENT pb to be activated).
58
What is the difference between an APU fire in flight and on the ground?
Ground- APU automatically shuts down, and the extinguisher bottle discharges automatically.
Flight- flight crew controls the discharge of the fire extinguisher bottle from the FIRE panel in the cockpit.
59
How do you achieve a full test of the APU fire detection and extinguishing system on the ground?
Requires AC power.
If the fire test is performed on ground with only batteries to supply the electrical network, both of the following apply:
‐ The SQUIB light and DISCH light come on, without ECAM warnings
‐ The red APU FIRE pb-sw light partially comes on, as one of the sets of bulbs is not electrically available.
60
What does an Agent DISCH (amber) indicate?
Corresponding fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
61
Where are the engine fire detectors located?
On the pylon, fan and core
62
The ENG1 (2) FIRE Light remains illuminated until:
The fire is extinguished.
63
On the HYDRAULICS system, what happens automatically after 1st engine start?
The BLUE electrical pump runs
64
What is the normal operating pressure of the RAT?
2500psi
65
Which of the following systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?
Green and yellow.
* in its line upstream of its engine-driven pump. Close by pushing the ENG 1(2) FIRE pushbutton.
66
Where does the hydraulic reservoir pressurisation air come from?
ENG 1 dedicated bleed or any other available pneumatic source.
(HP bleed air from engine 1 pressurizes the hydraulic reservoirs automatically.
If the bleed air pressure is too low, the system takes bleed air pressure from the crossbleed duct.)
67
Prior to engine start it is possible to pressurise the green hydraulic system by:
Use of the yellow electric pump and the PTU
68
The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the GREEN and the YELLOW systems is greater than ...............PSI:
500psi
69
Following TR1 failure, which TR supplies which bus?
ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS.
70
What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?
Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.
71
What happens when the Gen 1 line P/B is selected to off?
AC Bus 1 is powered by Gen 2 because Gen 1 line contactor is open
72
If AC bus 1 fails, the AC ESS bus is supplied by the:
AC BUS 2
*auto switching (if equipped) or by setting the AC ESS FEED pb-sw to ALTN
73
Which spoilers deploy if takeoff rejected above 72kts?
All 10 plus aileron droop.
74
Which protections are available in NORMAL LAW?
All 5:
-pitch attitude protection
-load factor protection
-high speed protection
-high angle of attack protection
-bank angle protection
75
In alternate law, what is the lowest speed achievable?
Less than VSW (will stall)
76
Can high and low speed stability be overridden by the sidestick?
Yes
77
The aircraft is at 5000ft, 250kts, straight and level, autopilot off, hands and feet off.
If TOGA is applied, at what speed will the aircraft eventually stabilise?
VMO
78
What causes reversion to mechanical backup? How is the aircraft now flown?
Used to manage a temporary and total electrical loss, the temporary loss of five fly-by-wire computers, the loss of both elevators, or the total loss of ailerons and spoilers.
Flown using the THS and RUDDER.
79
Following selection of FLAP 1 during the acceleration following a go around, what is the resulting config?
CONFIG 1+F
80
In flight, with Config 1 selected, what is represented by amber = on the speed strip?
The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
81
The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining, a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again?
By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
82
What is the maximum bank angle when High Speed Protection is active? (Hands on and hands off)
40 deg (full sidestick deflection) and 0 deg (side stick neutral)
83
What is signified by MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on the FMA?
The aircraft is in Mechanical Back-Up.
84
A-LOCK (green) is pulsing above the Flap/Slat indicator on the EWD: what does this signify?
Slats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them, reduce the alpha.
85
In NORMAL LAW, what occurs prior to the flare?
At 50 feet the stabiliser freezes: at 30 feet, a nose down order is introduced.
86
Regarding WTB, do flaps and slats have seperate systems?
Yes
87
Roll control is achieved using which flight control surfaces?
2 ailerons and 8 spoilers
88
Where does the side stick priority red arrow illuminate?
In front of the pilot losing authority
89
How are the flight control surfaces activated and controlled?
Hydraulically actuated and electrically controlled
90
Which protection is available in Alternate Law?
Load Factor Protection
91
What happens to flaps and slats when SFCC 1 fails?
Flaps and slats operate at half speed
92
In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:
Landing gear down
93
How is auto braking activated?
LO or MED: The command for ground spoilers extension is detected
MAX: The command for ground spoilers extension is detected, and the wheel speed is above 40 kt,
94
After GRAVITY EXTENSION, do the gear doors close?
Can emergency extension system be reset in flight?
No- gear doors remain open.
The flight crew can reset the emergency extension system in flight after using it for training (if green hydraulic pressure is available).
95
When is auto braking activated?
MAX: aborted takeoff, max pressure to brakes, as soon as system generates the ground spoiler deployment order
MED: progressive pressure to the brakes 2 s after the ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at 3 m/s² (LO same but 2 m/s²)
96
What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?
Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
97
What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?
Cutoff valve closes, then the doors unlock, then the gear unlocks.
98
The Landing Gear Indicator Panel (on the Center Instrument Panel) is connected to which LGCIU?
LGCIU1 only- the lights on the LDG GEAR indicator panel come on as long as the LGCIU1 is electrically supplied.
99
Which hydraulic power system operates the alternate braking system?
Yellow system and Yellow hydraulic accumulator
100
During landing, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down…what are the correct initial actions?
Reverse MAX
brake pedals release
A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
101
What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a Rejected Take Off at 100kts?
Call “STOP”: REVERSE – MAX: monitor braking
102
An EMERGENCY CALL, from the cabin to the flight deck will trigger on the flight deck?
Three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL and ON/ATT lights.
103
Which air supplies can be used simultaneously?
Engines 1 & 2
104
What normally provides bleed leak detection for the APU bleed system?
BMC1
105
Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200ºC?
A FAN AIR VALVE and a PRECOOLER.
106
With the Cross-Bleed Selector in AUTO, what happens to X Bleed Valve and Eng Bleed Valve when APU bleed valve is open?
X bleed valve opens and the ENG bleed valves close.
107
Is WAI allowed if Only One Bleed system is operating and both PACKs are ON?
NO, at least one pack must be off
108
In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:
RMP 1 and 2 only
109
Which information is used in order to produce the EGPWS display?
An EGPWS database and FM1 position.
110
What does the Terrain Clearance Floor use in order to generate a “TOO LOW TERRAIN” message?
A database dedicated to a particular runway.
111
If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?
PFD 1 and ND 2
112
What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing on ADIRS panel?
-The IR alignment fault
‐ No present position entry after 10 min
-difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 ° of latitude or longitude.
113
What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
Landing capability down grading warning
114
If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or caution is generated?
The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards.
115
What are the correct initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR” warning after V1 during take-off?
TOGA thrust: Reaching VR - Rotate : SRS – follow.
116
Following a GPWS “TOO LOW GEAR” warning, what are the correct initial actions?
Perform a go-around
117
What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications above THRUST RED ALT at FL 80?
10º / CLB
118
What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS “CLIMB” message?
A/P OFF: Both FD’s OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
119
What are immediate actions for STALL RECOVERY?
NOSE DOWN : WINGS LEVEL
120
In even of STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF, what will be the correct initial actions?
TOGA : PITCH ATTITUDE - 15: WINGS LEVEL
121
On which MCDU page, can aircraft position accuracy be checked?
PROG
122
Where does ISIS receives its information?
ADIRU 1 or 3.
123
If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:
Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to F/O 3
124
Selection of the NAV key(on RMP) engage the radio navigation back up mode. If RMP 1 NAV key is pressed can navaids be tuned from RMP2?
No- Setting one RMP to NAV backup mode removes navaids tuning from both FMGCs.
125
What is meant by CHECK ATT (amber) on the PFD’s?
Both PFD’s show different attitudes: check ISIS in order to identify failed system.
126
In “ELEC-EMER CONFIG”, which navaids can be tuned?
All number 1 (vor1 etc)
127
How long does a normal and fast IRS Alignment take?
Normal- 10 minutes
Fast- 30 seconds
128
When does the amber ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminate?
Batteries supply at least one ADIRU. Also comes on for a few seconds at the beginning of a complete IRS alignment. Does not come on in the case of a fast alignment.
129
If both lanes of ACSC 1 have failed, is PACK 2 affected?
Yes- as hot air valve is lost all trim valves are inoperative.
130
When the Ram Air switch is selected to ON, when will the Ram Air Valve open?
It will open only when pressure differential is less than 1.0 psi.
131
In the event of sudden depressurisation at FL 300 due to structural failure, what will be the correct initial actions?
Emer Descent – Initiate, if A/THR is off THR LEVERS - IDLE
132
What happens to pack flow if the APU is supplying both PACK's?
Both PACK's go to HI flow irrespective of the selected rate.
133
Which computers modulate the Trim Air Valves?
ACSC 1 and 2.
134
Are RAM AIR inlet flaps closed or open on takeoff or landing?
Closed during T/O and open on landing below 70 kts
135
What is the Normal Max Cabin altitude?
8000 ft
136
What is the Max negative differential pressure for the cabin?
-1 PSI
137
What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start (Eng Mode selector to ING/START)?
They automatically close.
138
When will the LDG ELEV Fault trigger?
When the LDG ELEV selector is set to AUTO and the landing field elevation of the FMGS is not available.
139
Cabin pressurisation begins:
With application of take-off power
140
What happens when the BLOWER is selected to OVERRIDE?
Blower Fan stops + Close config + air conditioning air added
141
What happens when the Extract is selected to OVERRIDE?
Extract Fan keeps running + Close config + air conditioning air added
142
What happens when the Extract and Blower is selected to OVERRIDE?
Extract Fan keeps running + Blower Fan Stops + Intermediate config + air
conditioning air added
143
Whilst in flight, at HIGH SKIN AIR temperature. In which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be in
INTERMEDIATE
144
What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off, the valves will re-open.
145
If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, what do valves do?
WING valves fail CLOSE
ENG valves fail OPEN
146
Following landing, in heavy rain, what is (are) the first action(s) to protect the avionics vent. system from water entry?
EXTRACT valve to OVRD.
147
Is the rain repellent system available with engines shutdown?
No- inhibited with a/c on the ground and both engines shutdown
148
What constitutes “icing conditions”?
OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10 °C and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 sm (1 600 m) or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals).
