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Flashcards in Quiz 12 Deck (151):
1

____ temperatures will stimulate thyroid hormone production to increase

Cold

2

Describe the hypothalamic pituitary thyroid negative feedback loop. What is stimulatory what is inhibitory?

Hypothalamus secretes TRH which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH which then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which then go to the target tissues. TSH will inhibit the hypothalamus from producing TRH. Thyroid hormones (T3/T4) will inhibit both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

3

True or false... the thymus is the largest gland in the body

False. The thyroid gland is the largest gland in the body

4

True or false... the thyroid gland is poorly vascularized

False, it is extremely well vascularized

5

What is the difference between inactive and active thyroid glands in regards to...
Colloid
Follicle size
Cells lining the follicles

Colloid in the inactive gland is more abundant

Follicles are larger in the inactive gland

Cells lining the follicles of inactive glands are flat (cuboid in active)

The edges of follicles of active glands are scalloped with many small resorption gaps resulting form the uptake of colloid

6

The follicular cells of the thyroid secrete ____ and ____. The parafollicular cells secrete ____

Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)

Calcitonin

7

Thyroid hormones stimulate enzymes involved with ____ thus increasing _____ rates and _____ production

Glucose oxidation

Basal metabolic

Heat

8

Calcitonin is released in response to..

High blood calcium levels

9

How does calcitonin lower blood calcium levels?

By inhibiting the resorption of bone by osteoclasts

10

Name the three key hormones in regulation of blood calcium levels and their effect on calcium levels

1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol - formed from vitamin D and increases calcium levels

Parathyroid hormone - secreted by chief cells of parathyroid glands - increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts

Calcitonin - decreases blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclasts - secreted from parafollicular cells of the thyroid

11

Thyroid hormones are synthesized from ____ and ____

Iodine and tyrosine

12

The thyroid gland produces small amounts of ____ but primarily secretes _____

T3

T4

13

T4 is converted to T3 in what extrathyroidal organs? What percent does each organ convert?

Liver - 60%
Intestines - 20%

The other 20% is inactivated by converting T3 to rT3 (most of this occurs in the liver)

14

What is rT3?

The inactive form of T3. It is an isomer of T3

15

Which is more potent, T3 or T4?

T3 (4x more potent)

16

What enzyme converts T4 to T3?

5' de-iodinase enzyme

17

How many iodine groups are on T4? How about T3? How about rT3?

4

3

3

18

True or false... feedback inhibition at the level of the hypothalamus is the most efficient way to inhibit TRH secretion

False... feedback inhibiton at the level of the ANTERIOR PITUITARY is the most efficient way to inhibit TRH secretion

19

Are thyroid hormones lipophillic or hydrophilic? This means that they target ____ receptors

Lipophilic.

Nuclear

20

Under stress or fasting, the body converts (more/less) T4 to T3 and more T4 to ____ to conserve energy

Less

RT3

21

Explain how insufficient iodine levels can result in a goiter

Without sufficient iodine levels, thyroid hormones are not released/produced and TSH builds up. The increased levels of TSH will cause the thyroid to experience oxidative stress

22

True or false... thyroid hormone precursors can be stored in vesicles

True. Although the hormones are lipophilic, the precursers can be stored in vesicles

23

Are the half lives of thyroid hormones long or short?

Long

24

What is thyroglobulin? Explain its role in hormone production

It is stored in the follicle cavities of thyroid glands. They contain four to eight molecules of T3, T4, or both. Thyroglobulin serves as a reservoir for receiving the dietary iodine. Thyroglobulin is endocysosed by follicular cells and digested by lysosomes to release the thyroid hormones

25

Thyroid hormones are moved through the blood by attaching to ____

Thyroid-binding globulins

26

What is the best stimulus for increasing the production of TSH by the anterior pituitary?

Exposure to cold

27

Thyroid hormones are calorigenic. Explain what this means

Thyroid hormones cause cells to consume more energy and produce heat as a byproduct

28

True or false.. thyroid hormones are lipophilic and can freely cross the cell membrane and form complexes which act as transcription factors for certain genes

Dis is twue

29

____ deiodination of T4 results in T3

_____ deiodination of T4 results in rT3

5'

5

(Yes, the ' matters)

30

True or false... thyroid cells are the only cells in the body that can absorb iodine

True

31

What enzyme converts T4 to rT3?

5 de-iodinase enzyme

32

Goiters can result from chronic exposure to increased amounts of _____ and/or ____. Goiters can also result from ____ deficiency

TSH and/or HCG

Iodine

Goiters can also occur during pregnancy or the autoimmune hashimoto's disease

33

Describe some of the symptoms of iodine deficiency disorder

Goiter

Hoarseness, shortness of breath, cough, dysphasia

34

If the mother is deficient in iodine during pregnancy, the child may have ____. Its symptoms are....

Cretinism.

Growth retardation (dwarfism)

Delayed puberty
Dry brittle hair
Courseness of skin

35

How can hasimoto's disease result in hypothyroidism and production of a goiter?

Damages the thyroid and reduces thyroid hormone production

Reduced T4 and T3 causes anterior pituitary to overproduce TSH, causing the thyroid to enlarge

36

Explain how graves disease can result in hyperthyroidism and a goiter

Autoimmune disease that attacks the thyroid. Thyroid defensively overproduces thyroid hormones leading to a goiter

37

Hormones like CCK can act as ____, _____, and ____ hormones

Endocrine
Paracrine
Neurocrine

38

True or false... the GI system functions as a result of the balance between stimulatory and inhibitory hormonal events

True

39

Gastrin is released from ___ cells. And is released due to _____. It functions to____ (4 things)

G cells

Stimuli from consumption (stomach distention) and peptides in gastric lumen.

Stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl, and chief cells to secrete zymogens. Also controls pyloric region and increases motility for digestion.

40

CCK is released from ____ cells due to _____ and functions to _____

I cells

Presence of fats

Contract gall bladder to release bile

41

Secretin is released by ___ cells due to _____ and functions to _____

S cells

Acidic pH in lumen of small intestine stimulates secretin release

Stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate and water to neutralize the pH

42

Gastric inhibitory peptide is released from the ____ due to _____ and functions to ____

Mucosa of upper small intestine

Presence of fatty acids > amino acids> carbohydrates

Inhibits gastric secretions and motility as well as induce the pancreas to produce insulin

43

Glucagon is released from ____ and functions to_____. It is released due to ____ and inhibited by _____

Pancreatic alpha cells

Release glucose from cells to increase blood sugar. It is a counter regulatory assistance for insulin

Released due to low blood sugar and inhibited by high blood sugar

44

Insulin is released from ____ and functions to _____. It is released due to ____ and inhibited by _____

Pancreatic beta cells

Functions to increase cell adsorption of glucose to lower blood sugar (acts on liver cells, adipose cells, and muscle cells)

Released due to high blood sugar and inhibited by low blood sugar

45

Somatostatin is released by ____ and functions to ____. It is regulated by _____

Released by the pancreas

Functions to regulate GI hormones in pancreas and GI tract. It slows production of insulin, glucagon, gastrin, and other hormones

It is regulated by hormones

46

Name the five classes of pathogens

Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Protozoa
Parasites

47

What are the five roles of the immune system?

Kill or control pathogens
Control disease
Repair tissue damage
Organ development
Maintain organ integrity and function

48

What is variolation?

First practice to provide immunity. Involves inhaling pathogen or scratching skin and placing pathogen in wound

49

Describe herd immunity

If enough people in a population are vaccinated, these people will in a sense protect the nonvaccinated people from getting sick

50

Name three endogenous antimicrobial properties

Sebum (has antimicrobial products in it)

Low pH

Commensalism organisms

51

The immune system responds when ____ are compromised

Barriers

52

True or false... inflammation is always due to infection

False.. it may be due to dysfunctional body tissue or damaged body tissue

53

When a break of barrier occurs and bacteria is introduced, what is the first response?

The presence of bacteria activates resident effector cells to secrete cytokines

54

Name three common effector mechanisms that the immune system uses to destroy pathogens

Phagocytosis
Granule release
Targeted cell death

55

Typically, how long is the response for the innate immune system? What about the adaptive immune system?

Innate - hours

Adaptive - days to weeks

56

Which is worse, an ineffective innate immune system or an ineffective adaptive immune system?

Ineffective innate immune system because the adaptive system relies on the innate immune system

57

Complement is produced by ____

The liver

58

Immune cells function through direct and indirect interactions to eliminate pathogens. Describe the two types of direct interaction

Phagocytosis - pathogen internalization and destruction

Immune synapse - T Cell - mediated killing

59

Describe the four indirect methods in which immune cells can eliminate pathogens

Cytokines
Chemokinesis
Cytotoxins
Antibodies

60

Define cytokines. Which are inflammatory and which are anti-inflammatory? (3 each)

Molecules that activate and innactivate immune function through cell surface receptors

Inflammatory: IL1, IL8, TNF-a

Anti-inflammatory: IL4, IL10, TGF-b

61

What are chemokines?

Molecules that attract immune cells to a region in the body

62

What are cytotoxins? Name three examples

Molecules that interact with cells and pathogens to kill them.

Perforin
Granzyme
TNF-a (can act as a cytotoxin if the cells possess the proper receptors)

63

T cells are produced in the ____ but mature in the ____

Bone marrow

Thymus

64

Describe the 5 leukocyte distribution and their percentages

Neutrophils ~75%
Eosinophil ~ 6%
Basophil ~ >1%
Monocyte ~ 10%
Lymphocyte ~ 30%

65

True or false... natural killer cells kind of fall under both categories, innate and adaptive immune system

True

66

The common precursor cell for all immune cells and blood cells are ____ cells

Hematopoietic stem cells

67

The precursor for all innate immune system cells as well as red blood cells and platelets are ____

Common myeloid precursors

68

The common precursor cell for all of the adaptive immune system cells is the ___

Common lymphoid precursor

69

Name the common cell cell that gives rise to all innate immune cells but not red blood cells and platelets

Granulocytes macrophage progenitor cell

70

After birth all blood cell production (not maturation) takes place in the bone marrow. However in early fetal development, blood cell production occurs in the ____, mid fetal development it occurs in the ____, and late fetal development in occurs in the ____

Yolk sac

Liver and spleen

Bone marrow

71

What are the innate immune cell first responders?

Neutrophils

72

Large reserves of neutrophils are stored in the_____ and are released when needed to fight infection

Bone marrow

73

Monocytes give rise to the two antigen presenting cells which are the ___ cells and _____. Which is better at activating the adaptive immune system?

Dendritic cells and macrophages

Dendritic cells are best at activating the adaptive immune system

These both function to activate and inhibit inflammation as well as eat up pathogens and dead neutrophils

74

What three immune cells are involved in fighting off parasites?

Mast cells
Basophils
Eosinophils

75

True or false... mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils are all granulocytes

True

76

What are the two main types of T cells that we need to know?

T helper cells
T cytotixic cells

77

True or false... natural killer cells have a short half life

False. They have a very long half life

78

_____ drives B cell and T cell pathogen specificity

Colonial expansion

79

___ receptors bind antibodies

Fc

80

MHC class 1 and class 2 stimulate ____

T cell receptors

81

Name the five classes of antibodies

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE

82

Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?

IgG

83

Which is the first antibody produced and released?

IgM. This antibody can also make pentomeric structures to coaggregate the pathogen

84

which antibody is secreted from mucosal glands?

IgA

85

Which antibody is a B cell surface antibody?

IgD

86

Which antibody is a basophil and mast cell surface antibody?

IgE - these are released to defend against multicellular pathogens

87

True or false... all of the different classes of antibodies will differ in their Fc fragment

True. This will result in different responses with different cells for each antibody family. However the Fc fragment within a family of antibodies are all the same

88

Name the two things antibodies can do as part of an immune response

Neutralization or opsonization

89

Describe the two types of T cells

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) - Kill altered self cells

Helper T cells (CD40 - support the functions of the immune system and other organ systems
Several subtypes
Regulatory function for innate immune system

90

CD8 cells bind to MHC class ____ whereas CD4 cells bind to MHC class ____

1

2

91

Define primary lymphoid organs. What are the two primary lymphoid organs?

These are the organs in which immune cells develop

Bone marrow
Thymus

92

Define secondary lymphoid organs. Name the three secondary lymphoid organs.

This is where the adaptive immune system initiates.

Lymphoid system
Spleen
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) (tonsils, peyer's patches, etc.)

93

What is the difference between negative and positive selection?

Negative selection - selection against binding to self antigens

Positive selection - selection for binding to the pathogen

94

True or false... swollen lymph nodes in the neck means that the infection could have occurred anywhere in the body

Most likely false. Because lymph nodes are mostly useful for that particular region of the body. This allows the immune response to stay more local

95

_____ are like immune sentry points where as the _____ filter blood borne antigens. _____ are points of pathogen susceptibility, kind of function in a reverse fashion compared to lymph nodes

Lymph nodes

The spleen

Mucosal tissues

96

Describe the 9 steps of the basic process of pathogen resolution

1)Injury/pathogen infiltration
2) REsident immune cells respond
3) inflammatory response
4) innate pathogen targeting
5) pathogenic antigens presented in the lymph nodes
6) adaptive immune system initiated
7) ongoing immune response
8) pathogen destroyed or sequestered
9) Memory cells formed

97

Name the three extranasal muscles. What are they innervated by? What is their blood supply?

Procerus
Nasalis (2 parts)
Levator labii superioris alaeque Nash

Innervated by facial nerve (CN7)

Blood supply from facial artery and opthalmic artery

98

Name the 6 different bone or cartilage structures that make up the nose

Nasal bone
Lateral cartilage
Septal cartilage
Alar cartilage
Fibroareolar tissue
External nares

99

What is the difference between the nasal conchae and nasal meatuses?

The superior middle and inferior conchae are the bony structures that are like shelves in the nasal cavity

The nasal meatuses are the spaces between the shelves

100

Name the major sources of blood to the lateral nasal cavity

ICA - opthalmic - ethmoidal arteries (anterior and posterior )

ECA - maxillary - sphenopalatine (lateral posterior nasal arteries)

101

Describe the major sources of blood for the nasal septum

ICA - opthalmic - ethmoidal arteries (anterior septal branch only)

ECA - maxillary - sphenopalatine (posterior septal branches only)
- Facial - septal branch of superior labial artery

102

What gives general sensory innervation to the nasal cavity and septum? What about special sensation?

V1 - anterior nasal septum and cavity (anterior ethmoidal nerve)

V2 - rest of nasal septum and cavity. (Sphenopalatine branch of V2 via the sphenopalatine foramen)

CN1 gives olfaction sensation to the nasal cavity

103

Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain?

In the nasal cavity

104

Name the four paranasal sinuses

Frontal sinus
Ethmoid sinus (air cels)
Maxillary sinus
Sphenoid sinus

105

The sphenoid sinus doesn't drain into the middle meatus, it drains into the ____

Sphenoidal recess, which then goes to the superior meatus

106

What sinuses drain into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity?

Frontal, maxillary, ethmoidal air cells

107

The hole in the middle meatus in which the sinuses drain through is called the ____

Semilunar hiatus

108

Name the five sites of drainage in the nasal cavity. What do they drain?

Semilunar hiatus
Maxillary hiatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess

(All those drain sinuses)

Lacrimal duct (drains the eye)

Pharyngeal orifice of eustacian tube (drains the ear)

109

The lacrimal duct drains into what meatus?

Inferior meatus

110

Why is it that children get more ear infections that adults?

Their eustacian tube is more horizontal whereas adults have a steeper eustacian tube

111

What is the tragus?

Triangular flap over the external auditory meatus on the auricle

112

The external ear sensory innervation is kinda scrambled. But describe the basic generalizations of what nerves innervate what portions of the ear. Helix, lobule, tragus

Helix - lesser occipital (C2)

Lobule - greater auricular (C2, C3)

Tragus/anterior portion of ear - V3 (Ariculotemporal branch)

113

What nerves do motor innervation in the ear?

Vagus and facial.

Vagus innervates closer to the external auditory meatus

114

What gives sensory innervation to the outer portion of the tympanic membrane? What about inner portion?

V3 and vagus

Glossopharyngeal does inner

115

What sinus connects with the middle ear?

Mastoid air cells

116

What muscles do you use to pop your ears?

Tensor veli palatini and levator veil palatini and salpingopharyngeous

117

What artery will supply the middle ear?

Branches of maxillary artery

118

What nerves are involved with the middle ear?

Glossopharyngeal

Facial

119

Name the three external ear muscles. What are they innervated by? What artery supplies them?

Auricularis anterior
Auricularis superior
Auricularis posterior

Facial nerve

Posterior auricular artery
Superficial temporal artery

120

What muscle causes your eyelid to close? What nerve innervates this muscle?

Orbicularis oculi

Innervated by facial nerve

121

What muscle is involved in keeping the eyelid elevated? What nerve innervates this muscle?
there is a second muscle that does the same thing but under the flight or fight response, what muscle is this, what is it innervated by?

Levator palpebrae supeiroris muscle innervated by oculomotor nerve (CN3)

Superior tarsal muscle innervated by sympathetics from t1 in the spinal cord

122

The sympathetics that arise from T1 to innervate the superior tarsal muscle synapses in the ____ and then follows the _____ to reach the muscle

Superior cervical ganglion

ICA ad opthalmic artery

123

The lacrimal gland is innervated by ___

Greater petrosal

124

True or false.... parasympathetic innervation input is what causes the lacrimal gland to tear

True

125

Describe the pathway of tears from the lacrimal gland to the nasal cavity

Lacrimal gland to eye to superior/inferior puncta to lacrimal caniculi to lacrimal sac to nasolacrimal duct to nasal cavity

126

What is the name for the white part of the eye?

Sclera

127

the cornea has sensory innervation from ___

V1

128

What is the function of the cornea?

Refracts light

129

When the ciliary muscles contract, do the suspensory ligaments tighten or loosen? What happens to the lens as a result?

Upon contraction, the suspensor ligaments loosen and the lens goes into a more spherical shape, allowing short distance focusing

130

Light traveling from a distance needs more or less refraction to focus on the retina

Less

131

The sphincter papillae muscle is innervated by ___ and functions to ____

Cranial nerve 3

Constrict the iris

132

The parasympathetics of CN 3 will innervate what muscles in the eye? They arise from what nucleus? Where do the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse?

Ciliary muscle

Sphincter pupillae

Accessory oculomotor nucleus

Ciliary ganglion

133

The sympathetics innervate what muscles in the eye?

Dilator pupillae muscle

Superior tarsal muscle

134

What causes Horner's syndrome? What are its symptoms?

Lack of sympathetic innervation to the head

Symptoms include ptosis (droopy eyelid), anhydrosis (decreased sweating), and miosis (constricted pupil)

135

What is the fovea centralis?

An area of the retina that has the highest concentration of cones

136

True or false... CN 2 has fibers that synapse in the ciliary ganglion.

False

137

Describe how shining light in one eye will cause both eyes to constrict their irises

The signal coming from the optic nerve will synapse in the pretectal nucleus. An inter neuron bifurcated goes from the pretectal nucleus to both the ipsilateral and contralateral edinger-westphal nuclei. Then fibers stay ipsilateral from there and go to the sphincter papillae muscles to constrict both irises

138

What direction does the inferior oblique muscle move the eye?

Superior laterally

139

What direction does the superior oblique move the eye?

Inferior laterally

140

What direction does the superior rectus move the eye?

Superior medially

141

What direction does the inferior rectus muscle move the eye?

Inferior medially

142

If you are looking down and to the right. Explain the muscle activity of each eye

Right eye is using the superior oblique

Left eye is using the inferior rectus

143

What is a secondary action of the superior oblique? What about inferior oblique?

Superior oblique - medial rotation

Inferior oblique - lateral rotation

144

What is a secondary action of the superior rectus? What about inferior rectus?

Superior rectus - Addiction and medial rotation

Inferior rectus - addiction and lateral rotation

145

the opthalmic artery arises from ____ and enters the orbit via the ____. Which branch of the opthalmic artery runs through the optic nerve to reach the retina?

ICA
Optic foramen
Central artery of the retina

146

Name the three superficial orbit muscles. What innervates these muscles? What arteries supply these muscles?

Orbicularis oculi
Corrugated supercilii
Depressor supercilii

Facial nerve

Facial artery
Opthalmic artery
Superficial temporal

147

The pharyngotympanic tube opens up in the...

Nasopharynx

148

What is the effect of the dose response curve if you add irreversible competitive inhibitor to the mix?

Lowers Emax, similar to a noncompetitive allosteric inhibitor

149

The pentose phosphate pathway will convert glucose 6 phosphate into ____ which are precursors for _____. It forms ___ in the process

Ribose 5 phosphate

Nucleotides

NADPH

150

What are three fates of acetyl coA?

Citric acid cycle

Ketone body formation

Conversion into cholesterol

151

Beta oxidation of fatty acids will produce what two products?

NADH

Acetyl coA