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Flashcards in RJ Wilson Flash cards Deck (50):
1

What are the steps of the budget process?

Plan, gather feedback, build consensus, present final plan, get approval, implement the plan, and evaluate the plan.

2

What should be included in a job description?

Title, who it reports to and supervises, responsibilities, skills, and qualifications/experience.

3

What are the four components of negligence?

Duty, Breach, Cause, Harm.

4

Any athlete showing signs of _______ can be treated with supplemental oxygen therapy.

Hypoxia

5

Nonrebreather masks can only be used as a method of supplemental oxygen delivery under what condition?

The athlete is breating normally

6

Hyponatremia is characterized by what?

Abnormally low blood sodium levels

7

What brain injury is characterized by symptoms supsiding rapidly creating an asymptomatic "lucid" period that can last for hours or days before signs of severe neurological dysfunction appear?

An Epidural Hematoma

8

Muscle weakness, swelling, pain, and darkened urine are symptoms of what syndrome? In Severe cases it can lead to sudden collapse, renal failure, and even death.

Rhabdomyolysis

9

Thirst but not hunger is a sign of _____, while hunger but not thirst is a sign of _____.

Diabetic Ketoacidosis, Hypoglycemia

10

Palpatations, anxiety, weakness, dizziness, fainting, sweating, shortness of breath, and chest pains are all symptoms of what?

A heart arrhythmia

11

Ahtletes who return to play too early from a traumatic brain injury are susceptible to what life threatening condition?

Second Impact Syndrome

12

For every pound of weight lost while practicing in the heat, an athlete should drink how much water?

20 oz

13

An athlete that performs constant repeated extension, has a palapble step-off deformity has pain in the lumbar spine that radiates down into the buttocks may have what condition?

Spondylolisthesis

14

An ischemic lesion of the femoral head that develops in the first decade of life is known as what?

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

15

Pain over the adductor tendon and pubic tubercle, pain during hip adduction may be indicative of what condition?

Athletic Pubalgia (Sports hernia)

16

A hip dislocation will usually present in what position?

Internal rotation and adduction.

17

What condition is similar to Osgood-Schlatter Disease, and what is the difference between the two?

Osgood-Schlatter Disease and Sinding-Larsen-Johannsson Disease are both an avulsion of the patellar tendon. In Osgood-Schlatter, the site of avulsion is the tibial tuberosity. In Sinding-Larsen-Johannsson, the site of avulsion is theInferior pole of the patella.

18

Motor testing for L2-L4 is done how?

L2 is done by trying to break hip flexion, L3 is done by breaking knee extension, and L4 is done by breaking dorsiflexion.

19

If a person has pain in the malleolar zone and bone tenderness on the tip of the lateral malleolus, should they be sent for an X-ray?

Yes, according to the Ottawa Ankle Rules, an X-ray is required if a person has pain in the Malleolar zone and bone tenderness on the tip of the lateral malleolous.

20

Hemarthrosis in the knee is most often associated with what injury?

ACL tear, though it is also seen in patellar dislocations, meniscal tears, and a few other injuries.

21

Tarsal tunnel syndrom is caused by the entrapment of what nerve?

Posterior tibial nerve.

22

What should a suction unit never be used to clear the airway of?

Large solid objects, such as teeth, foreign bodies, or large pieces of food.

23

Accute chest pain, hyperpnea, decreased or absent breath sounds, hyperressonance with percussion and contralateral tracheal shift are all symptoms of what?

A Pneumothorax

24

A spirometer measures peak expiratory flow. If a patient's peak expiratory flow measures less than _______% of the personal best medication should be used to control asthama. At what percentage should a patient be refered?

80, 50%

25

How many ascultation zones should a person listen to when evaluating the heart?

4 (Aortic, Pulmonary, Tricuspid, and Mitral zones)

26

What are terms used to identify skin lesions?

Vesicles, Bullae, Papules, Nodules, Pustules, Wheals, Scales, Plaques, and Macules.

27

A Bacterial infection that initially presents as a small pimple-like lesions, pustules or boils. It is easily mistaken for an insect bite.

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)

28

What contraindications always exclude a patient from being treated with modalities.

Pregnancy, Cancer

29

What is the name of the body's response when cryotherapy is used for too long of a time period?

Hunting Response

30

Ice massage, Hydrocollator packs, and cryo-cuffs are all examples of thermal modalities that transfer heat through what method?

Conduction

31

Conductive thermal energy modalities are best used for ______ effects because the energy can penetrate a depth of up to_________.

Superficial, 1cm.

32

What is the difference between a macronutrient and micronutrient?

Macro-nutrients are required in quantities of grams, while micro-nutrients are required in mil, or microgram quantities.

33

What are the 6 types of nutrient's and define which are micronutrients and which are macronutrients?

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and water are macronutrients. Vitamins and minerals are micronutrients.

34

Competitive, obsessive personality, high stress and high standards placed on an ahtlete by themselves or their parents are traits that make an athlete susceptible to what eating disorder?

Anorexia Nervosa

35

Hair loss, fainting or fatigue, low bone mass, muscle tears and stress fractures and iron deficiency anemia are all symptoms of what eating disorder?

Anorexia Nervosa

36

Swollen Salivary glands, irritation of esaphagous, dental decay, and iron deficiency anemia are all symptoms of what eating disorder

Bulimia Nervosa

37

What classes of drugs have been banned for use in all sports by the NCAA?

Stimulants, Anabolic Agents, Diuretics & masking agents, Street drugs, Peptide homones, Anti-Estrogens, and Beta-2 Agonists.

38

What is the portion of a drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation and has the opportunity to produce a biological effect?

Bioavailability

39

When the bioavailability of a drug is approximately the same as a different formulation of the same drug, the drugs are said to be _______.

Bioequivalent

40

What are the two types of drug solubility?

Water and lipid

41

What are some different routes that drugs can be absorbed?

Oral, Rectal, Topical, Intravenous, and Inhalation

42

What are common signs of a skull fracture

Battle Sign and Raccoon Eyes.

43

What are the types of skull fractures?

Linear, depressed, comminuted, and basilar

44

Trouble with Lateral and inferior eye movement would indicate injury to which cranial nerve?

IV Trochlear

45

The brachial plexus is broken down into what 5 segmental areas?

Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, Branches

46

The most common MOIs to the spine are what?

Axial loading; Excessive flexion, extension, or lateral bending; and rotation of the spinal column.

47

What are the three primary nerves of the forearm and what general areas do they innervate?

Median Nerve, anterior lateral aspect. Ulnar Nerve, anterior medial aspect. Radial Nerve, posterior aspect.

48

How many bands for the UCL?

3, anterior, posterior, and transverse.

49

What portion of the scaphoid heals poorly and why?

The proximal pole, because the blood supply is poor at this area of the scaphoid.

50

A Quad contusion can result in what condition?

Myositis Ossificans.