SBG 2011 Army Mock tangent Questions Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in SBG 2011 Army Mock tangent Questions Deck (44):
0

What are the official objectives of ACLAM?

To encourage education, training, and research in laboratory animal medicine, to establish standards of training and experience for qualification of specialists, and to certify specialists by examination.

1

2. What is the mission of ASLAP?

To promote dissemination of knowledge about laboratory animal medicine, to foster research, and to serve as a spokesman for veterinarians in laboratory animal medicine.

2

3. When was the first Guide published and who wrote it, and who published it?

Published by NIH first in 1963, written by Standards Committee of the Animal Care Panel.

3

4. Who promulgated regulations known as the Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) regulations and when?

FDA in 1978

4

What does FASEB stand for?

Federation of American Societies for Experimental Biology

5

What does NMSR stand for, when was it founded, and by whom?

National Society for Medical Research, founded in 1946 by Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC)

6

What is the size of the spleen in male versus female mice?

Male mice spleens are about 50% larger than those of female mice.

7

Atypical mycobacterial infections in fish are most commonly caused by which species?

Mycobacterium marinum, M. fortiutum, M. chelonae

8

What are the typical clinical signs associated with mycobacterial infection in fish?

"Dropsy like" clinical signs of abdominal distension, scale edema, and petechiae around operculum and pectoral fin.

9

What are the typical gross and histologic lesions associate with mycobacterial infections in fish?

Grossly, numerous, well-developed granulomatous in liver, spleen, kidney, and reproductive organs.
Histologically, acid-fast positive, rod-shaped bacteria in affected tissues. Atypical aquatic mycobacterial species may display characteristics similar to those of gram-positive organisms.

10

Atypical mycobacteria are zoonotic. What are the typical clinical signs in people?

Known as "fish handler's granuloma" these infections are usually self limiting and result only in a localized area of erythema and swelling on affected extremity.

11

7. What is the normal hematocrit range in the male ferret?

47-59%

12

T/F. Proteinuria is normal in ferrets.

True. Low-grade: 0-32 mg/100 ml females; 7-33 mg/100 ml males

13

T/F. Bands are a normal finding in a ferret hematology.

True. 0-2 % bands is considered normal.

14

Ferrets are _________ ovulators and may remain in _____________ if not _________________ or _____________.

Induced ovulators, persistent estrus, bred or ovariohysterectomized or treated medically to terminate estrus 10 days after onset

15

Persistent estrus in ferrets can result in what?

If in estrus for more than a month, estrogen induced anemia can results, which can cause bone marrow hypoplasia of all cell lines. Anemia begins as normocytic, normochromic, but progresses to microcytic, hypochromic.

16

Describe Aleutian disease in ferrets.

A parvovirus with strains of varying virulence and immunogenicity. Mink-derived strains are more virulent to mink than are ferret-derived strains. Hypergammaglobulinemia greater than 20% of the total proteins is a hallmark.
Can be subclinical, or can manifest with ataxia, paralysis, tremors, convulsions. May have no lesions upon necropsy. Most consistent histologic finding is periportal lymphocytic infiltrates.

17

Describe canine distemper virus infection in ferrets.

A paramyxovirus of genus Morbillivirus, related to measles and rinderpest. Disease has a catarrhal phase, and a neurological phase. Catarrhal phase is 7-10 days post-infection and involved anorexia,pyrexia, photosensitivity, and serous nasal discharge. CNS phase, with ataxia, tremors, paralysis, and may or may not be preceded by catarrhal phase. Infection is uniformly fatal.

18

Death from canine distemper occurs in _____ days from ferret strains of CDV and up to _______ days with canine strains.

12-16; 35

19

Define a Type I error and alpha, and explain how alpha relates to Type I error.

Type I error is a rejection of the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually true.
Alpha is the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected when the null hypothesis is actually true. In other words, an alpha of 0.05 is a statement that the investigator is willing to accept a type I error 5% of the time.

20

What is the ICCVAM?

Interagency Coordinating Committee on the Validation of Alternative Methods

21

What is the bovine corneal opacity and permeability assay?

The BCOP test method is an approved alternative to the in vivo rabbit eye test (Draize rabbit eye test), to be used as the initial test in a battery of tests to evaluate the ocular irritancy of new substances. If a substance tests positive with the BCOP or the isolated chicken eye test, the substance is considered to cause irreversible or severe eye damage and no live animal testing will be required.

22

Hematopinus suis transmits what?

Swine pox and Mycoplasma suis (formerly Eperythrozoon)

23

Cause of mange in pigs?

Sarcoptes scabei var. suis. A very significant ectoparasite of swine.

Two clinical forms:
1) acute pruritic / allergic hypersensitive - affects younger, growing pigs with intense pruritic and erythematous papular dermatitis on ventral abdomen, flank and rump
2) chronic / hyperkeratotic - typically in mature sows and boars with thick, crusty scabs on pinnae spreading to neck and head. Scabs contain numerous mites easily detectable by skin scraping.

24

Vector for Mycoplasma coccoides in mice?

Polyplax serrata

25

What is the purpose of the Swan-Ganz catheter?

Pulmonary artery

26

Describe the thermodilution method for measuring cardiac output.

Measurement of temperature differences at various points in circulation to calculate cardiac output. The Swan Ganz catheter in the pulmonary artery utilizes this method.

27

What mouse strains have no Ig and no T cell responses?

SCID and Rag-1 and Rag-2

28

What mouse is a model for Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

Beige mouse

29

What is the phenotype for the Moth-eaten mouse?

Deficient humoral and cellular immunity
Lack cytotoxic T and NK cells
Moth eaten pelage secondary to folliculitis
Autoimmune syndromes
Hypergammaglobulinemia.

30

What does the XID mouse model?

Human X-linked agammaglobulinemia.

31

What is the phenotype of the XID mouse?

Decreased B cell numbers, low IgM
Impaired response to polysaccharide antigens

32

What is the specific mechanism of immunodeficiency with the Nude mouse?

Defective transcription factor gene controlling thymic epithelial cell differentiation.

33

What is the specific mechanism of immunodeficiency with the SCID mouse?

Defective DNA-dependent kinase that recombines gene segments coding at (TcR) and B (Ig) cell receptors

34

Name the genus and species of the zebra finch.

Taeniopygia guttata

35

Name the genus and species of the barn owl.

Tyto alba

36

What is the order and genus and species of budgerigars?

Order Psittaciformes, genus Melopsittacus undulatus

37

What is the etiologic agent of parrot fever?

Chlamydophila psittaci

38

What are 5 zoonotic agents of psittacine birds?

1) Salmonellosis
2) Psittacosis (Chlamidophila psittaci)
3) Yersiniosis (Y. pseudotuberculosis, Y. enterocolitica)
4) Tuberculosis
5) Ectoparasite - Dermanyssus gallinae

39

According to the AWA, only one live NHP may be transported in a primary enclosure. What are the exceptions to this rule?

1) a mother and her nursing infant
2) an established male-female pair or family group, except no male allowed if female is in estrus
3) compatible pair of juveniles of same species that have not reached puberty

40

Regarding ventilation of movable primary enclosures during transport for NHPs, the AWA states:

1) if the ventilation openings are located on TWO opposite walls, openings must be at least 16 percent of total surface area and be located above midline of enclosure
2) if ventilation openings are located on ALL FOUR walls, openings must each be at least 8 present of the total surface area and be located above midline of enclosure
3) projecting rims or similar devices must be located on the exterior of each wall having a ventilation opening, and be large enough to provide at least 0.75 inches between enclosure and anything placed against it

41

What genus of bacteria convert ammonia to nitrite?

Nitrosomonas spp.

42

What role does Nitrobacter spp play in biofilters of aquatic systems?

Conversion of nitrite to nitrate.

43

What other opportunistic heterotrophs may contribute to the conversion of nitrogenous wastes in an aquatic system?

Aeromonas spp and Pseudomonas spp. These bacteria are also integral components of the normal flora of fish and are constantly seeded into the biofilters through fish excretions.