STEP2: Patient Communication Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What is patient counseling?

A

The process of providing information, advice, and assistance to patients to improve their health, treatment adherence, and quality of life.

See also ‘Treatment adherence’ in ‘Managing chronic conditions’.

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2
Q

What is a patient-centered approach?

A

An approach that facilitates open communication between the patient and provider, shared decision-making, and considers the patient’s individual preferences, concerns, and emotions.

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3
Q

What is the importance of the first visit in patient counseling?

A

It is critical for establishing trust in the patient-clinician relationship.

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4
Q

What are key principles of communication in patient counseling?

A
  • Open communication
  • Shared decision-making
  • Using understandable terms
  • Providing medical interpretation services if necessary.
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5
Q

Why is empathy important in patient counseling?

A

Patients value empathy, interest, and continuity of care.

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6
Q

What should be the focus during the introduction of a patient interview?

A

Introducing yourself, addressing patients by their preferred name, and ensuring active listening.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ model is a psychosocial model that aims to help caregivers express empathy and support emotions.

A

PEARLS

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8
Q

What are the components of the PEARLS model?

A
  • Partnership
  • Empathy
  • Apology
  • Respect
  • Legitimization
  • Support
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9
Q

What is psychosocial counseling?

A

Care related to the emotional and psychological well-being of the patient and their family members.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of motivational interviewing?

A

To strengthen a patient’s motivation to change behavior by exploring and resolving ambivalence.

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11
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change?

A
  • Precontemplation
  • Contemplation
  • Preparation
  • Action
  • Maintenance
  • Relapse
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12
Q

True or False: The 5 As model of behavior change is only applicable to smoking cessation.

A

False

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13
Q

What does the 5 As model stand for?

A
  • Assess
  • Advise
  • Agree
  • Assist
  • Arrange
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14
Q

What is directive counseling?

A

An approach where the clinician actively guides the therapeutic process in the best interests of the patient.

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15
Q

What are the general principles of addiction counseling?

A
  • Individual or group counseling
  • Patient education
  • Aims to help avoid triggers for substance use
  • May incorporate various psychotherapies
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16
Q

What is the SBIRT approach?

A

Screening, brief intervention, referral to treatment aimed at early intervention for substance use disorders.

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17
Q

What should be done if there is a language barrier during patient counseling?

A

Establish the patient’s preferred language and use a professionally trained medical interpreter.

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18
Q

What should be avoided when interpreting for patients?

A

Using family members or nonqualified individuals unless explicitly requested by the patient.

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19
Q

What is the main goal of motivational interviewing in the context of substance use disorders?

A

To increase insight and awareness regarding substance use and motivate behavioral change.

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20
Q

What is the significance of assessing a patient’s knowledge during counseling?

A

To ensure they understand the illness and treatment options.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ model emphasizes patient autonomy and shared decision-making.

A

5 As

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22
Q

What are some techniques for counseling on smoking cessation?

A
  • Inquire about tobacco use
  • Urge quitting
  • Assess willingness to quit
  • Provide resources
  • Schedule follow-ups
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23
Q

What should be included in counseling for alcohol use disorder?

A
  • Feedback on consumption
  • Informing about support groups
  • Discussing pharmacological treatment options
  • Assessing readiness to change
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24
Q

What is the role of the clinician in directive counseling?

A

To provide information objectively and ensure no coercion in guiding therapy.

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25
True or False: Patients with decision-making capacity can refuse clinician recommendations.
True
26
What model is used to assess a patient's readiness to change regarding drug consumption?
Transtheoretical model ## Footnote This model helps in understanding the stages of change in behavior modification.
27
What should patients be informed about when counseling on prescription opioids?
Possibility of opioid intoxication, addiction, adverse effects, and opioid withdrawal ## Footnote Understanding these risks is crucial for safe opioid use.
28
What is a key recommendation for patients regarding opioid prescriptions?
Take opioids exactly as prescribed and do not use opioids prescribed for someone else ## Footnote This prevents misuse and potential overdose.
29
What are SMART goals in opioid therapy?
Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound goals ## Footnote These goals help in structured and effective treatment planning.
30
What percentage of deaths from cardiovascular diseases could be prevented by lifestyle modifications?
More than 25% ## Footnote Lifestyle changes can significantly impact heart health.
31
What is the recommended amount of physical activity for adults?
150–300 minutes/week of moderate aerobic activity or 75–150 minutes/week of vigorous aerobic activity ## Footnote Regular physical activity helps in reducing various health risks.
32
Fill in the blank: The prevalence of obesity in the US is approximately _______.
42% ## Footnote This statistic highlights the growing obesity epidemic in the country.
33
What are some recommended sleep hygiene practices?
Maintain a regular sleep schedule, exercise regularly, avoid stimulants in the evening ## Footnote These practices help improve sleep quality.
34
What types of emotional responses can patients experience following pregnancy loss?
Normal grief, bereavement-related major depressive disorder, prolonged grief disorder ## Footnote Understanding these responses is essential for providing appropriate support.
35
What should be avoided to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
Pillows, loose bedding, blankets, overheating the baby ## Footnote These recommendations are crucial for safe infant sleep practices.
36
What is caregiver burnout?
A type of burnout syndrome in long-term informal caregivers caused by stress from caretaking demands ## Footnote Recognizing and addressing caregiver burnout is important for caregiver well-being.
37
What is the 4 R's of trauma-informed care?
Realize, Recognize, Respond, Avoid Retraumatization ## Footnote These principles guide healthcare providers in supporting trauma-affected individuals.
38
What are cultural concepts of distress?
Cultural idioms, explanations, or conditions used by individuals to describe and contextualize symptoms ## Footnote Understanding these concepts helps avoid misdiagnosis.
39
What is the importance of using person-first language when communicating with patients with disabilities?
It emphasizes the person rather than the disability ## Footnote This approach fosters respect and dignity in communication.
40
True or False: Clinicians should encourage patients to leave an abusive relationship.
False ## Footnote Clinicians should support patients in their decisions without directly advising them to leave.
41
What are some signs of caregiver burnout?
Emotional exhaustion, anger, frustration, difficulty concentrating, social withdrawal ## Footnote Identifying these signs can help in providing necessary support.
42
What is a key consideration when counseling patients with cognitive impairment?
Evaluate emotional stability, safety risks, and adequacy of supervision ## Footnote These factors are crucial for ensuring patient safety and care.
43
What are cultural concepts of distress?
Cultural concepts of distress refer to idioms, explanations, or conditions used by individuals from a culture to describe and contextualize symptoms.
44
Why is it important for clinicians to be aware of a patient's cultural background?
Awareness helps avoid misdiagnosis and provides the best possible care.
45
What is a cultural formulation interview?
A set of questions in a mental health examination to assess a patient's perception of psychiatric symptoms within their cultural context.
46
Define cultural explanations/perceived causes of distress.
Culture-specific etiological models for symptoms, illness, or distress, often founded on traditional medicine and cultural manifestations.
47
What are cultural idioms of distress?
Culture-specific expressions for symptoms or states of distress.
48
What are cultural syndromes?
Clusters of psychiatric and/or somatic symptoms recognized as medical conditions within specific cultures.
49
What is 'Ataque de nervios'?
'Ataque de nervios' is an acute syndrome among individuals of Iberian origin characterized by intense emotional distress.
50
List symptoms of 'Ataque de nervios'.
* Uncontrollable screaming and crying * Trembling * Aggressive behavior * Palpitations * Chest tightness * Breathlessness * Sensation of heat * Sweating * Fainting * Dissociative experiences * Seizure-like episodes
51
What triggers 'Ataque de nervios'?
Typically precipitated by stressful family events or accumulated experience of suffering.
52
What is 'Khyal cap'?
'Khyal cap' is an acute syndrome among Cambodian individuals characterized by symptoms of panic attacks and autonomic arousal.
53
What is the attribution of 'Khyal cap'?
Attributed to disruptions of the flow of khyal, a form of inner 'wind' in the body.
54
Describe 'Taijin kyofusho'.
'Taijin kyofusho' is a syndrome among Japanese individuals characterized by social anxiety and avoidance of interpersonal relations.
55
What are common symptoms of 'Dhat syndrome'?
* Fatigue * Anxiety * Erectile dysfunction * Weight loss * Depressive mood
56
What is the cultural significance of 'dhatu' in Dhat syndrome?
'Dhatu' is one of the seven essential bodily humors in Ayurvedic medicine, equated with semen.
57
How can cultural background influence clinical care?
It may affect views on health and preferences regarding treatment, potentially conflicting with standard clinical practice.
58
What should clinicians do regarding cultural values of patients?
Respect cultural values and tailor clinical approaches accordingly.
59
What is the role of an interpreter in clinical settings?
Involvement is necessary when there is a language barrier between clinician and patient.
60
What should clinicians do if a patient refuses treatment based on cultural precepts?
Clinicians may not override the patient's wish but can offer education to reconsider.
61
What is the purpose of genetic counseling?
To provide information about genetic diseases, discuss risks and benefits of genetic testing, and support informed choices about reproductive options.
62
What are the two types of genetic counseling?
* Pre-test counseling * Post-test counseling
63
What does pre-test counseling involve?
Evaluating the need for a test, informing the patient about the test's purpose, and obtaining informed consent.
64
What does post-test counseling focus on?
Delivering test results, discussing management options, and providing psychological support.
65
What is the role of genetic counselors?
* Discussing risks and benefits of genetic testing * Screening for genetic conditions * Genetic risk assessment * Diagnostic testing * Interpretation of test results
66
What should be included in a genetic counseling session?
* Taking a history of the disorder * Pedigree analysis * Discussing appropriate genetic tests * Obtaining informed consent * Result disclosure
67
What should clinicians do when counseling on complementary and alternative medicine?
Explore the patient's reasons, discuss risks and benefits, and consider referral to appropriate providers.
68
How should clinicians approach counseling on clinical uncertainty?
Acknowledge uncertainty, convey seriousness, discuss differential diagnosis, and explain the need for further evaluation.
69
What should be done if a patient declines a recommended treatment?
Provide complete information on the procedure and a balanced assessment of the intervention.
70
What is the focus of counseling on vaccine hesitancy?
Addressing concerns and providing accurate information about vaccines.