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Microbio > Unit 3: Practice Questions > Flashcards

Unit 3: Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Unlike cyanobacteria, green sulfur and green nonsulfur bacteria

A. are Gram- positive
B. are anoxygenic
C. lack a cell wall
D. are heterotrophic

A

B. are anoxygenic

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2
Q

The process of bacteria passing their genes to other microbes of the same generation is known as

A. Mitosis
B. Vertical gene transfer
C. Horizontal gene transfer
D. crossing over

A

C. Horizontal gene transfer

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3
Q

Which type of plasmids carry genes for sex pili and for the transfer of the plasmid to another cell?

A. Transposon
B. R plasmid
C. IS Element
D. Conjugative plasmids

A

D. Conjugative plasmids

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a member of the order Enterobacteriales?

A. Pseudomas
B. Escherichia
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella

A

A. Pseudomonas

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5
Q

In prokaryotic cells, energy generation (oxidative phosphorylation) are carried out in

A. plasma membrane
B. cytosol
C. mitochondria
D. ribosome
E. ER

A

A. plasma membrane

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6
Q

Dr. Kim is about to observe a fungal cell under a microscope, she is told that it is dikaryotic. She should expect the cell to have two ____________ .

A. haploid nuclei
B. hyphae
C. diploid nuclei
D. diploid nuclei and two hyphae

A

A. haploid nuclei

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7
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding viruses?

A. Virions contain both DNA and RNA.
B. They multiply by binary fission.
C. They are sensitive to antibiotics.
D. They are not composed of cells.

A

D. They are not composed of cells

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8
Q

___________ recombination occurs wherever there are long
regions of the same or similar nucleotide sequence in two DNA
molecules.

A

Homologous

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9
Q

How does homologous recombination difer from site specific recombination? STAR

A

Homologous recombination requires homologous sequence while site specific recombination does not

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10
Q

How does a transposon differ from an insertion sequence?

A

Transposons are more complicated including transposabel elements and genes

Insertion sequences are simplest transposable elements and short sequence of DNA

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11
Q

How do the simple (cut-and -paste) transposition and replicative
transposition differ?

A

Simple transposition the mobile genetic element is found at one site

Replicative transposition the mobile genetic element is found at two sites and remains at its original site

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12
Q

In simple transposition, the enzyme ___________ catalyzes excision of the transposable element, followed by cleavage of a new target site and ligation of the element into this site

A

Tranposase

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13
Q

Transposons can cause mutations by ___________ .

a) replacing specific nucleotides in the orginal DNA
b) “jumping” into a gene and disrupting its function
c) inducing uncontrolled binary fission

A

b) “jumping” into a gene and disrupting its function

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14
Q

Which of the following is (are) correct regarding plasmids?

a) small, double- stranded DNA molecules that can exist independently of host chromosomes.
b) have their own replication origins so that they replicate independently of the chromosome.
c) are stably inherited but is not required for the host cell’s growth and reproduction.
d) some plasmids carry genes that code for enzymes that destroy or modify drugs.
e) All of these

A

e) all of these

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15
Q

F+ × F− Mating =?

A

F+

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16
Q

____________ is a mode of DNA replication in which the
replication fork moves around a circular DNA molecule, displacing a
strand to give a 5’ tail that is also copied to produce new double-
stranded DNA

A

Rolling circle replication

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17
Q

Hfr x F− Mating =?

A

F-

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18
Q

F’ x F− Mating =?

A

F’

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19
Q

Describe how transformation occurs in S. pnemoniae. How does the
process differ in H.influenzae and B. subtilis

A

S. pneuomniae becomes competent during expotential phase of bacterial growth.

B. subtilis becomes competent during stationary phase of bacterial growth.

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20
Q

______________ transduction is made possible by an error in the lysogenic life cycle of phages that insert their genomes into a specific site in the host chromosome.

A

Specialized

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21
Q

Hospital-acquired infections are often caused by Acinetobacter baumanii. What characteristics allow it to flourish in a healthcare setting?

A. It has an outer capsule covering its LOS, which protects it from the host defenses, moreover the outer OmpA porin limits solute passage in, while efflux systems pump drugs out.
B. The thick peptidoglycan layer in its outer membrane is uniquely arranged to pump out any antibiotics used against it, allowing it to thrive in the hospital environment.
C. Acinetobacter are obligate anaerobes that ferment sugars in low-oxygen environments, such as hospital patients suffering from cardiac issues and gangrenous wounds.
D. The organism is a halophile and as such thrives on the NaCl on human skin, particularly those who are immunosuppressed.

A

A. It has an outer capsule covering its LOS, which protects it from the host defenses, moreover the outer OmpA porin limits solute passage in, while efflux systems pump drugs out.

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22
Q

Reproduction of chlamydial species begins with the attachment of a(n) _________ to the host cell surface.

A. reticulate body (RB)
B. endospore
C. sporangium
D. elementary body (EB)

A

D. Elementary body (EB)

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23
Q

Agrobacterium species _________.

A. form a nodule that creates an endosymbiotic relationship between the plant and bacterial cells
B. produce endospore structures during times of unfavorable environmental conditions
C. stimulate tumor-like growths in plants to obtain nutrients
D. stimulate tumor-like growths in animals to obtain nutrients
E. form a nodule that creates an endosymbiotic relationship between the animal and bacterial cells

A

C. stimulate tumor-like growths in plants to obtain nutrients

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24
Q

The cyanobacteria can be separated from other groups of Gram-negative photosynthetic bacteria because they _________.

A. are anoxygenic
B. are oxygenic phototrophs
C. are anaerobic
D. photoorganoheterotrophs
E. contain bacteriochlorophylls

A

B. are oxygenic phototrophs

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25
Q

A child is vaccinated for protection against whooping cough. This protects the child from this disease caused by a species of the genus _________.

A. Neisseria
B. Pseudomonas
C. Bordetella
D. Mycobacterium

A

C. Bordetella

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26
Q

What is the cause of peptic ulcers?

A. Infection by Helicobacter
B. Infection by Salmonella
C. Infection by Campylobacter
D. Stress from taking exams

A

A. Infection by Helicobacter

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27
Q

The rhizobia group of microbes _________.

A. form nodules that create an endosymbiotic relationship between a host plant and the rhizobia cells
B. stimulate tumor-like growths in plants to obtain nutrients
produce endospores during times of C. unfavorable environmental conditions
D. form nodules that create an endosymbiotic relationship between host animals and the rhizobia cells
E. stimulate tumor-like growths in animals to obtain nutrients

A

A. form nodules that create an endosymbiotic relationship between a host plant and the rhizobia cells

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28
Q

A microorganism that must grow and reproduce within host cells is known as a(n) _________.

A. facultative intracellular pathogen
B. extracellular pathogen
C. obligate intracellular pathogen
E. symbiotic pathogen

A

C. obligate intracellular

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29
Q

Examples of bacterial hyperthermophiles include ________.

A. Thermotoga and Chlamydia
B. Aquifex and Thermotoga
C. Aquifex and Mycoplasma
D. Aquifex and Prochlorococcus

A

B. Aquifex and Thermotoga

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30
Q

In the lytic cycle of phage replication:

a) phage genes integrate into the host cell genome and are not expressed
b) phage genes exist as prophage
c) phage DNA remains inside the protein coat
d) phage nucleic acid is replicated and phage genes are expressed, making new phage protein and lysing the host cell.

A

d) phage nucleic acid is replicated and phage genes are expressed, making new phage protein and lysing the host cell.

31
Q

A prophage is __________ .

a) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome
b) phage DNA being actively expressed
c) phage protein left outside the bacterium
d) toxic to the host bacterial cell.

A

a) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome

32
Q

Retroviruses have __________ .

a) one copy of single-stranded RNA
b) two copies of single-stranded RNA
c) one copy of double-stranded RNA
d) two copies of single-stranded DNA

A

b) two copies of single-stranded RNA

33
Q

Once the HBV genome enters the nucleus it is converted into a covalently-closed, circular DNA molecule by ______.

a) host enzymes that fill gaps and seal nicks
b) viral polymerase P
c) viral reverse transcriptase
d) host reverse transcriptase

A

a) host enzymes that fill gaps and seal nicks

34
Q

Which of the following organism groups can cause “red tide”?

a) Ciliophora
b) Apicomplexans
c) Dinoflagellates

A

c) Dinoflagellates

35
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the role of fungi?

a) Fungi are important decomposers; they are important pathogens of animals and plants; they also play an essential role in the cycling of nutrients in the world’s ecosystems.
b) Fungi are important decomposers; members of the fungi are strictly pathogens of plants; they also play an essential role in the cycling of nutrients in the world’s ecosystems.
c) Fungi are important decomposers; they are nonpathogenic, but play an essential role in the cycling of nutrients in the world’s ecosystems.
d) Fungi are important in the growth of plants, forming beneficial relationships called mycorrhizae; they are nonpathogenic, but play an essential role in the cycling of nutrients in the world’s ecosystems.

A

a) Fungi are important decomposers; they are important pathogens of animals and plants; they also play an essential role in the cycling of nutrients in the world’s ecosystems.

35
Q

_________are spores that are not enclosed in a sac but produced at the tips or sides of the hypha.

A

Conidiospores

36
Q

Which of the following is found in common with protozoans, bacteria, and archaeons?

a) Ribosomes
b) Binary fission
c) Mitochondria
d) Cell wall

A

b) Binary fission

36
Q

For protists, which of the following nutritional strategies uses reduced organic molecules and CO2 as carbon sources?

a) Osmotrophy
b) Mixotrophy
c) Holozoic nutrition
d) Saprophytic nutrition

A

b) Mixotrophy

37
Q

Sexual reproduction in zygomycetes and ascomycetes requires the participation of opposite mating types. Which of the following best explains the evolution of sexual reproduction in these fungi?

a) Only fungi of opposite mating types ensure genetic diversity will be achieved
b) Only fungi of opposite mating types produce different pheromones
c) Only fungi of opposite mating types can fuse nuclei
d) Only fungi of opposite mating types can produce a zygote

A

a) Only fungi of opposite mating types ensure genetic diversity will be achieved

38
Q

Protist contractile vacuoles are used to _________.

a) modify the solution that the cell lives within
b) propel (move) in the environment
c) engulf large particles (food)
d) maintain osmotic balance within the cell

A

d) maintain osmotic balance within the cell

39
Q

Where could you find Giardia spp. from the group Metamonada in nature?

a) Gut of Triatominae, the “kissing bugs”
b) Contaminated streams
c) Gut of the tsetse fly
d) Termite gut

A

b) Contaminated streams

40
Q

Which of the following culture medium is mismatched with given organism?

A. Nutrient agar: Stalphylococus aureus
B. Chocolate Agar: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Blood Agar: Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Blood Agar: Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C. Blood Agar: Chlamydia trachomatis

Due to Chlamydia being obligate intracellular parasite

41
Q

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is an enzyme that acts as a _________ by catalyzing the synthesis of positive-strand RNA.

a) ligase
b) replicase
c) transcriptase
d) primase

A

b) replicase

42
Q

The HIV enzyme that makes a double-stranded DNA copy of the viral genome is _________.

a) RNA polymerase
b) gyrase
c) reverse transcriptase
d) DNA polymerase
e) endonuclease

A

c) reverse transcriptase

43
Q

In positive-sense strand RNA phage, the negative (–) sense strand of RNA _________.

a) plays no role
b) acts as mRNA to make viral proteins
c) makes RNA replicase
d) is used to synthesize more + strands

A

d) is used to synthesize more + strands

44
Q

Hemagglutinin found in the influenza virus functions to _________.

a) hydrolyze the mucus produced by epithelial cells
b) stimulate the budding of newly assembled viral particles
c) produce a new viral genome
d) control the binding of the virus to host cell receptors

A

d) control the binding of the virus to host cell receptors

45
Q

A prophage is _________.

a) phage DNA being actively expressed
b) phage protein left outside the bacterium
c) toxic to the host bacterial cell
d) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome

A

d) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome

46
Q

Once a phage becomes lysogenic, it will remain lysogenic and never be lytic again.

True/ False

A

False

47
Q

Select all of the following virus groups where the viruses use an enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to complete their life cycle.

dsDNA viruses
ss(-)RNA viruses
Retroviruses
ss(+)RNA viruses
dsRNA viruses

A

ss(-)RNA viruses
ss(+)RNA viruses
dsRNA viruses

48
Q

The provirus state exists when _________.

a) double-stranded DNA is present as a plasmid in the host cell
b) double-stranded viral RNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
c) double-stranded viral DNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
d) single-stranded viral RNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
e) single-stranded RNA is present as a plasmid in the host cell

A

c) double-stranded viral DNA is integrated into host cell chromosome

49
Q

Because a negative-strand RNA virus cannot function as mRNA, a(n) _________must accompany its entry into the host cell.

a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
d) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

A

b) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

50
Q

The phylogenetic relationship among proteobacteria is based on _______ studies

A

rRNA

51
Q

Protists include _______________ and _______________________.

A

algae and protozoans

52
Q

All protozoa are microscopic ____ eukaryotes found worldwide in most
habitats.

A

unicellular

53
Q

Algae are the ________ of oxygen and organic material

A

Major producers

54
Q

What protozoa is parasites of animals and plants?

A

Trypanosomes

55
Q

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A

Brewer’s yeast

56
Q

Protozoan and fungal infections are difficult to treat because
a) They replicate inside human cells
b) They don’t have ribosomes.
c) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
d) They don’t reproduce.

A

c) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

57
Q

Dimorphic fungi
a) can be either oval or square in shape.
b) cause many plant diseases.
c) can grow as a single-celled yeast and as a mycelium.
d) were discovered by Leeuwenhoek.

A

c) can grow as a single-celled yeast and as a mycelium.

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT an enteric bacterium?
a) Salmonella
b) Shigella
c) Escherichia
d) Enterobacter
e) Pseudomonas

A

e) Pseudomonas

59
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Bdellovibrio prey on other bacteria.
b) Thermus aquaticus - Source of Taq polymerase
c) Chlamydiae – Gram negative enteric bacterium
d) Agrobacterium – plant pathogens

A

c) Chlamydiae – Gram negative enteric bacterium

60
Q

What is a nosocomial infection (agenus acinetobacter)?
a) an infection contracted at one’s place of work, or at school
b) an infection contracted during a stay in the hospital
c) an infection contracted from an animal
d) an infection contracted from improperly prepared food

A

b) an infection contracted during a stay in the hospital

61
Q

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a) endospore — Clostridium
b) heterocyst — cyanobacteria
c) axial filaments — spirochaetes
d) Strict aerobe - E. coli

A

d) Strict aerobe - E. coli

62
Q

_______________ degrades more than 100 organic molecules.
a) Burkholderia
b) Sphaerotilus
c) Enterobacter
d) Bdellovibrio

A

a) Burkholderia

63
Q

________________is listed in the Guinness Book of World Records as “the world’s toughest bacterium.” This organism is more resistant to radiation than any other bacteria.
a) Bacillus megaterium
b) Thermus aquaticus
c) Deinococcus radiodurans
d) Myxobacteria

A

c) Deinococcus radiodurans

64
Q

Yeast infections are caused by
a) Aspergillus.
b) Candida albicans.
c) Penicillium.
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

A

b) Candida albicans.

65
Q

Streptomyces differ from fungi in that Streptomyces
a) require light
b) have mitochondria
c) lack a nucleus
d) are decomposer

A

c) lack a nucleus

66
Q

Which of the following is false?
a) Fungi are eukaryotic chemoheterotrophs
b) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.
c) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.
d) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

A

d) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

67
Q

_______ are asexual fungal spores that are produced with a spore-containing structure, and _________ are asexual fungal spores that are produced on the tip of a specialized structure.
a) sporangiospores, conidiospores.
b) conidiospores, sporangiospores.
c) basidiospores, conidiospores.
d) ascospores, sporangiospores.

A

a) sporangiospores, conidiospores.

68
Q

Members of the genus _______________are found in low- nutrient aquatic environments. They feature stalks that anchor the organisms to surfaces.
a) Acetobacter
b) Caulobacter
c) Sphaerotilus
d) Myxococcus

A

b) Caulobacter

69
Q

Which organism is able to grow at refrigerator temperatures and can cause foodborne illness?
a) Listeria
b) E. coli
c) Streptomyces
d) Streptococcus

A

a) Listeria

70
Q

DNA polymerase is in nucleus so DNA viruses need to enter _____ to use DNA polymerase

A

our nucleus

71
Q

RNA viruses stay in _____ in host cell

A

cytoplasm

Microbio (18 decks)

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