Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LATG > Unit One Exam - Chapters 1 -7 > Flashcards

Unit One Exam - Chapters 1 -7 Flashcards

1
Q

Identify one way the LATG can contribute to the “planning” function.
A- By contributing an assessment of the caging and equipment needs
B- By determining what animals to house
C- By setting goals for the unit
D- By developing the animal health monitoring program

A

A- By contributing an assessment of the caging and equipment needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following best describes the skill of “organizing”?
A- Looking at the “whole picture”
B- Establishing a structure
C- Allocating resources
D- Assessing resources

A

B- Establishing a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a key element that can make workload allocation successful?
A- Organize the workload using good management principles
B- Communicate to the staff the reasons behind the workload allocation
C- monitor to determine how well the workload division meets the needs of the unit
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following skills allows managers to allocate a reasonable amount of time for the performance of tasks?
A- Technical skills
B- Conceptual skills
C- Communications skills
D- People skills

A

A- Technical skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which level of Maslov’s hierarchy of needs would you place giving an employee a plaque to recognize exceptional performance?
A- Belongingness and love needs
B- Esteem needs
C- Aesthetic needs
D- need to know and understand

A

B- Esteem needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a component of effective time management?
A- Helping employees set personal goals
B- Estimating the time and resources needed to meet the goals
C- Extending the employees work day
D- All of the above

A

B- Estimating the time and resources needed to meet the goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is generally the best way to ensure that the facility is staffed every day while keeping the budget in check?
A- Offer overtime pay to the regular facility’s staff
B- Hire part-time people for weekend and holiday work
C- Use a rotating weekend and holiday duty system
D- Limit the husbandry chores to five days a week

A

C- Use a rotating weekend and holiday system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the first step in developing training project using the ADDIE model for training?
A- Analyze
B- Assess
C- Andragogy
D- Arrange

A

A- Analyze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ability to perform a procedure to an acceptable standard is known as:
A- Accuracy
B- Competency
C- Proficiency
D- Adequacy

A

B- Competency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A good approach in inventory control is to:
A- order supplies on a regular schedule, such as on the first Monday of every month
B- Always buy in large quantities to get the best price
C- Keep a good balance between what is bought and what is used
D- Wait until the supplies are used up before reordering

A

C- Keep a good balance between what is bought and what us used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following pieces of equipment regularly found in an animal facility require regular recertification?
A- Washers and dryers used to clean surgical drapes
B- Refrigerators used to store samples for the veterinary diagnostic laboratory
C- Biosafety cabinets in the procedures area
D- The safe used to store controlled substances

A

C- Biosafety cabinets in the procedures area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are per diem rates set to recover costs associated with housing animals?
A- dividing the total units of service by the accumulated costs
B- dividing the accumulated costs by the total units of service
C- multiplying the total units of service by the accumulated costs
D- multiplying the accumulated costs by the total number of cost centers

A

B- dividing the accumulated costs but the total units of service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When preparing a budget, what is the most accurate starting point for planning expenses?
A- Reports from investigators for future needs
B- Projected cost increases from vendors
C- projected level of staff turnover
D- Expenses from the previous year

A

D- Expenses from the previous year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which option for adding animal housing space generally has the lowest construction cost?
A- Using a prefabricated modular facility
B- Renovating an animal facility
C- Building a new satellite facility
D- Converting a laboratory space to animal housing

A

A- Using a prefabricated modular facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In a large facility, who generally coordinates the purchase of animals?
A- The IACUC
B- The facility manager
C- The centralized veterinary service department
D- The investigator

A

C- The centralized veterinary service department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following costs is designated as a direct cost?
A- Protocol review expenditures
B- The cost of animal husbandry activities
C- General and administrative costs
D- All of the above

A

B- The cost of animal husbandry activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is an element of a facility evaluation to determine what types of disasters could affect the facility?
A- The facility location
B- The number of staff working in the facility
C- The amount of insurance necessary to cover losses
D- Staff notification procedures

A

A- The facility location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following groups does NOT generally play a role in developing the animal facility’s security plan?
A- Health and safety office
B- Grants and programs office
C- Media office
D- Human relations office

A

B- Grants and programs office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following facilities is generally thought to be at a lower risk of being targeted by animal rights activists?
A- Facility where surgical procedures are done on infant animals
B- Facility housing nonhuman primates
C- Facility housing fish and amphibians
D- Facility where stem cell research is conducted

A

C- Facility housing fish and amphibians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a procedure for maintaining facility security?
A- Limit the number of entrances into the facility
B- Screen all prospective employees
C- Maintain surveillance on any employee who complains about an animal welfare issue
D- Avoid any media exposure

A

B- Screen all prospective employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Installing emergency equipment would be considered part of which of he disaster planning steps?
A- Prepare
B- Respond
C- Recover
D- Mitigate

A

A- Prepare

22
Q

What is the number one priority in an emergency?
A- The welfare of the animals
B- The safety of the staff
C- Backing up all the research
D- Maintaining the security of the facility

A

B- the safety of the staff

23
Q

All staff should be trained in ________ and ________ as part of a general disaster plan.
A- Securing all exits; preventing other personnel from entering the facility
B- The use of fire extinguishers; basic first aid
C- The method to quickly disarm the security system; the routes for animal evacuation
D- Information on contacting civil authorities; communication skills to deal with the media

A

B- The use of fire extinguishers; basic first aid

24
Q

Which of the following animals are covered under the Animal Welfare Act?
A- Mice of the genus Mus and rats of the genus Rattus bred for research
B- Farm animals intended for use in agricultural research
C- Rabbits
D- Fish used for research

A

C- Rabbits

25
Q

Which of the following are mandated by the Animal Welfare Act and its amendments?
A- Establishment of an IACUC
B- Training of all animal care personnel
C- Information on how to report deficiencies in animal care
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

26
Q

Which regulatory agencies codify GLPs for laboratory studies?
A- FDA
B- EPA
C- OECD
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

27
Q

How does the IACUC become aware of noncompliance?
A- The lab reports the incidents to the IACUC
B-Through the IACUC’s continuing review or Post Approval Monitoring program
C- through the report of a third party, including anonymous reports
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

28
Q

To be compliant with OLAW, how often should the IACUC review the institution’s program for the care and use of animals?
A- At every IACUC meeting
B- Every 6 months
C- Every year
D- Every 5 years

A

B- Every 6 months

29
Q

In facilities housing nonhuman primates, special considerations must be documented for which animals?
A- Animals involved in short-term studies
B- Animals whose activity is restricted
C- Group-housed animals
D- All of the above

A

B- Animals whose activity is restricted

30
Q

Which statement best describes AAALAC’s program status evaluation?
A- it is conducted every 2 years
B- It is a confidential peer review process
C- It is conducted by federal inspectors
D- Any deficiency is put in writing and provided to USDA

A

B- It is a confidential peer review process

31
Q

What best describes controlled substances?
A- Drugs that are highly toxic
B- Drugs that have limited therapeutic value
C- Drugs that have the potential of being addictive
D- Drugs that are only available in limited amounts

A

C- Drugs that have the potential of being addictive

32
Q

What documents provides standards for the humane transport of laboratory animals?
A- The AAALAC manual
B- The AWA Regulations
C- The GLPs
D- The USDA APHIS Annual Report

A

B- The AWA Regulations

33
Q

What is TRUE about post-approval monitoring (PAM)?
A- There are specific regulatory requirements for PAM
B- It can help researchers identify potential compliance issues
C- It evaluates time management of employees
D- The IACUC is not involved in PAM

A

B- It can help researchers identify potential compliance issues

34
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about feed?
A- Feed should be stored away from excessive heat
B- Feed bags should be checked for tears or water damage
C- Feed should be used before its expiration date
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

35
Q

Which organism can be detected by an anal tape test?
A- Syphacia
B- Aspiculuris
C- Brucella
D- Bacillus

A

A- Syphacia

36
Q

When monitoring the effectiveness of the autoclave cycle, where should the envelope containing paper strips or plastic vials of spores be placed?
A- In the front of the densest and largest load
B- In the middle of the densest and largest load
C- In the front of the sparest and smallest load
D- In the back of a midsized load

A

B- in the middle of the densest and largest load

37
Q

Levels of light phot intensity about 75 foot-candles can cause retinal damage in which laboratory animals?
A- Immundeficient rodents
B- Nude mice
C- Albino animals
D- Most laboratory species

A

C- Albino animals

38
Q

What is the main goal of maintaining sentinels in animal rooms?
A- To identify the pathogens present i newly received animals
B- To protect the colonies from pathogens
C- To allow the detection of pathogens affecting the colony
D- To provide animals that can be used as alternates in case of death of some of the experimental animals

A

C- To allow the detection of pathogens affecting the colony

39
Q

Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to sentinel animals?
A- They should be Immunocompetent
B- They should be at least 8 to 12 weeks old
C- They should be initially free of the garnet being tested
D- They should be housed using micro isolation caging

A

D- They should be housed using micro isolation caging

40
Q

Which factor does NOT increase a rodent’s susceptibility to infectious, toxic, and other harmful agents?
A- Environmental enrichment
B- Elevated temperature
C- Increased humidity
D- High ammonia concentrations

A

A- Environmental enrichment

41
Q

What is the first step in developing an occupational health and safety program?
A- Decide on a budget
B- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility
C- Choose a staff person who will be responsible for the program
D- Make a list of all existing safety equipment

A

B- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility

42
Q

Which of the following materials or chemicals does NOT represent a flammable hazard?
A- Alcohol
B- Diethyl ether
C- Electrical equipment
D- Liquid nitrogen

A

D- Liquid nitrogen

43
Q

Which of the following is the typical profile of someone who develops a laboratory animal allergy (LAA)?
A- An older worker who has worked in the field for 10 or more years without developing allergies
B- A worker in his/her twenties with less than 3 years of occupational contact and allergies to plants or foods
C- A woman in her second trimester of pregnancy
D- A worker who has an immunosuppressive disease

A

B- A worker in his/her twenties with less than 3 years of occupational contact and allergies to plants or foods

44
Q

Which of the following best describes zoonoses?
A- Diseases of exotic animals often found in zoos
B- A type of animal resistant that uses a ring inserted in the cartilage of the nose
C- Infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans
D- A group of infectious agents that affect multiple species of animals

A

C- Infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans

45
Q

Which of the following is used to represent an estimate of the reasonable level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without adverse effects?
A- Maximum allowable limit
B- Threshold limit value
C- Safe threshold level
D- Maximum exposure limit

A

B- Threshold limit value

46
Q

What ABSL level should be used when working with an agent whose risk of transmission is unknown?
A- 1
B- 2
C- 3
D- 4

A

D- 4

47
Q

What is the best way to protect the technician from exposure to aerosolized infectious agents?
A- Using a mask
B- Performing the work in a Class III BSC
C- Running all used supplies and instruments through two autoclave consecutive cycles
D- Incinerating all used supplies after disinfection

A

B- Performing the work in a Class III BSC

48
Q

“Heavy particles that travel only a few centimeters in the air” best describes which type of ionizing radiation?
A- Beta particles
B- Gamma radiation
C- X-rays
D- Alpha particles

A

D- Alpha particles

49
Q

What do the “N”, “R”, and “P” in the description of respirators refer to?
A- Air pressure under which it operates
B- The respirator’s filter resistance to oil in aerosol
C- The ability of the filter to remove particulate matter
D- None of the above

A

B- The respirator;s filter resistance to oil in aerosol

50
Q

If you originally have 10 grams of a radioisotope that has a half-life of 2 years, how much of the radioisotope will remain in 6 years?
A- 5 grams
B- 2.5 grams
C- 1.67 grams
D- 1.25 grams

A

D- 1.25 grams

LATG (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions