Unit Three Exam: Chapters 12-17 Flashcards by Lori Akin

Which of the following cellular components play a role the body’s ability to recognize substances as “nonself”?
A- Antigens
B- Antibodies
C- Proteins of the major histocompatibility complex
D- Mucous membranes

C- Proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The immunity that functions if an animal has not been exposed to a foreign substance is called _______ immunity.
A- acquired
B- adaptive
C- innate
D- general

C- innate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?
A- B lymphocytes
B- Mast cells
C- Dendritic cells
D- Immunoglobulins

A- B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What best describes the cytokines?
A- They transmit information from the receptor to the other sites in the cell
B- They are enzymes that destroy foreign materials that enter the cell
C- They secrete antibodies against the invading substance
D- They serve as “memory molecules’ that can quickly mobilize if the same antigen invades the cell later

A- They transmit information from the receptor to the other sites in the cell

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Macrophages and ________________ have a similar role in presenting an antigen to other cells.
A- T cells
B- B cells
C- Dendritic cells
D- Helper T cells

C- Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the term used to describe an animal with a normal immune system?
A- Immunopositive
B- Immunocompetent
C- Immunoproductive
D- Immunoactive

B- Immunocompetent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?
A- IgG
B- IgA
C- IgM
D- IgY

A- IgG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A- The absence of infection fighting ability in immunosuppressed animals
B- The reaction that follows a second exposure to the same antigen
C- The protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal
D- The protection offered by endogenous polyclonal antibodies

C- The protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following treatments is commonly used in laboratory animals to prevent transplant rejection?
A- Heavy doses of antibiotics to prevent bacterial infections in the transplanted tissue
B- Long-term dietary supplements to boost rejection resistance
C- Blood transfusions to increase the level of B cells and T cells
D- Radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

D- Radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What best describes a xenograft?
A- A graft of tissue obtained from another part of the body of the recipient
B- A graft of tissue obtained from a recipient’s identical twin
C- A graft of tissue obtained from an animal of the same species
D- A graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

D- A graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When is the best time to schedule husbandry chores in rooms that house immunodeficient animals?
A- At the end of the day in order to avoid transmitting their pathogens to the general population
B- At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility
C- Outside of regular working hours when there are fewer people in the facility
D- Any time as long as the same schedule is followed every week

B- At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?
A- Poor nutrition
B- Radiation exposure
C- Inherited genetically
D- None of the above

A- Poor nutrition

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The structure of viruses usually consists of which of the following?
A- A strand of nucleic acid
B- A protein capsid
C- A lipid envelope
D- All of the above
E- None of the above

D- All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Some bacteria are encapsulated. What best describes a capsule?
A- A resistant outer covering of bacterial spores
B- The equivalent of the plasma membrane in bacteria
C- An exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material
D- An appendage for bacterial locomotion

C- An exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement best describes a bacterial spore?
A- It is an envelope that covers the bacterium and protects it from being digested by the host’s enzymes
B- It is a colony of bacteria enveloped in a thick protective coating
C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating
D- It is the infectious stage of a bacterium

C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bacteria that can grow in the absence of oxygen are called:
A- Normal
B- Anaerobic
C- Aerobic
D- Microaerophilic

B- Anaerobic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statement applies to viral reproduction?
A- Viruses reproduce by integrating pieces of the host’s DNA into their own DNA
B- Viruses reproduce in the fluids that surround the cells in the host’s tissues
C- Viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components
D- Agars are good media that allow virus reproduction and growth without the need for the virus to enter a host cell

C- Viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synesthesia e new viral components

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?
A- Viruses
B- Bacteria
C- Fungi
D- Prions

D- Prions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the shape of cocci bacteria?
A- Ovoid
B- Spherical
C- Rod-like
D- Curved

B- Spherical

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tapeworms belong to which class of helminths?
A- Trematodes
B- Cestodes
C- Nematodes
D- Acanthocephalids

B- Cestodes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How do hookworms generally enter the body?
A- Ingestion of an infected flea
B- Ingestion of the immediate host
C- Inhalation of its spores in aerosol suspension
D- Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

D- Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

Which of the following can be infected by ich?
A- Fish
B- Swine
C- Nonhuman Primates
D- Mice

A- Fish

Which of the following is TRUE about idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis (IUD)?
A- The exact cause is known and there is a standard treatment to cure it
B- The lesions primarily occur on the arms and neck
C- SCID mice are most likely to be affected
D- Mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

D- Mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

Which of the following statements apply to bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs?
A- It has distinctive clinical signs and is readily diagnosed
B- It typically causes mild disease in young animals and death in older animals
C- Routine administration of antibiotics is the primary method for maintaining disease-free guinea pig colonies
D- It is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptociccus pneumoniae

D- it is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the following is TRUE about rabies? A- All mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus B- The disease is easily cured by appropriate treatment C- Wild-caught animals are assumed to be free of rabies D- It is mainly transmitted from scratches from infected animals

A- All mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus

Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of: A- Rabies B- Canine distemper C- Canine parvovirus D- Heartworm disease

D- Heartworm disease

What are the stones in the bladder of cats called? A- Uroliths B- Otitis C- Orf D- Bloat

A- Uroliths

In which animal is rumen stasis a problem? A- Amphibian B- Sheep C- Nonhuman primate D- Ferret

B- Sheep

Red leg is caused by what type of pathogen? A- Bacteria B- Virus C- Parasite D- None of the above

A- Bacteria

Examination of the Buffy coat provides information about: A- The amount of circulating lipids in the blood B- The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood C- The level of hydration of the animal D- The relative amount of platelets in the blood

B- The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood.

Elevated concentrations of _____________________ may be a sign of an allergic reaction or of the presence of parasites. A- Eosinophils B- Basophils C- Neutrophils D- Monocytes

A- Eosinophils

Which of the following best describes blood serum? A- Whole blood B- Unclotted blood C- The liquid portion of anticoagulated blood D- The liquid portion of clotted blood

D- The liquid portion of clotted blood

If an animal’s antibody titer for a specific antigen is 10, what does that number represent? A- The amount of antibodies (mg) per ml of blood B- The lowest concentration of antigen needed to cause an allergic reaction C- The most dilute solution of blood that gives a positive reaction in the test for antibody D- The concentration of antibody that is needed to combat the infection

C- The most dilute solution of blood that gives reaction in the test for antibody

Determining the specific gravity of urine provides a measure of: A- The amount of blood in the urine B- The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine C- The kidney’s blood circulation D- The kidney’s ability to eliminate glucose from the body

B- The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine

Viruses can be grown in: A- Liquid nutrient media B- Solid media such as agar plates C- Blood serum D- Embryonated chicken eggs

D- Embryonated chicken eggs

Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule? A- Gadolinium B- Cadmium C- Fluorescein D- Luciferin

D- Luciferin

Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography? A- Glycogen B- Glucose C- Glycine D- Glutaraldehyde

B- Glucose

In which technique is the X-ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise location of lesions? A- Computed tomography B- Fluoroscopy C- Magnetic resonance imaging D- None of the above

A- Computed tomography

Which of the following is an example of an adverse drug effect? A- Tremors B- Shallow/labored breathing C- Vomiting/diarrhea D- All of the above

D- All of the above

A nonhuman primate has diarrhea, which diagnostic testing has determined is caused by the Protozoa parasite Giardia. What kind of antibiotic would be effective to kill this parasite? A- Penicillin B- Aminoglycoside C- Nitroimidazole D- Cephalosporin

C- Nitroimidazole

Which species is safe to treat with a pyrethrin or pyrethroid based insecticide? A- Dogs B- Cats C- Xenopus D- Zarbrafish

A- Dogs

The drug Carprofen was prescribed by a veterinarian to be given once daily by mouth for 3 days. Which piece of dosage information is missing? A- Route of administration B- Treatment frequency C- Duration of treatment D- Drug storage conditions E- Dose rate

E- Dose rate

Which stage of anesthesia is characterized by the loss of consciousness? A- Stage 1 B- Stage 2 C- Stage 3 D- Stage 4

B- Stage 2

Surgical anesthesia often causes which of the following conditions? A- A lower susceptibility to dehydration B- A drop in body temperature C- An increase in the amount of blood reaching the extremities D- An increase in heart rate

B- A drop in body temperature

What is the normal capillary refill time for most laboratory animals? A- About 1-2 seconds B- About 3-4 seconds C- About 5-6 seconds D- Up to 10 seconds

A- About 1-2 seconds

Xylazine has which of the following effects? A- Sedation B- Analgesia C- Blood pressure lowering D- All of the above

D- All of the above

What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank? A- Keep a log of the amount used B- Check the pressure C- Weigh the tank D- None of the above

C- Weigh the tank

In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs the: A- Water vapor B- Anesthetic vapor C- Waste gases D- Carbon dioxide

D- Carbon dioxide

In rebreathing systems, where is the concentration of anesthetic gas set? A- At the pressure reducing valve B- At the flow meter C- At the dial on the vaporizer D- At the pop-off valve

C- At the dial on the vaporizer

What is a characteristic of the respiratory pattern of surgical anesthesia? A- Rapid shallow breathing B- Deep breaths alternating with shallow breaths C- Breathing initiated int he thoracic-abdominal area D- The need for mechanical ventilation

C- Breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area