Warning Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

What does EDS stand for? What are its main components

A
Electronic Display System, 
- 5 display units
- 1 guidance panel
- 2 cursor control devices (CCDs)
- 2 MCDUs
1 EICAS full button
2 reversionary panels
- MAU hardware
- Control I/O modules
- EDS application software on processor module
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2
Q

What info is displayed on the PFD?>

A
  • Airspeed
  • Altitude
  • ADI
  • HSI
  • VSI
  • FD
  • Radio alt
  • Radio aids
  • Autopilot
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3
Q

If info is mismatched between two PFDs what happens?

A

No info will be presented at all

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4
Q

Which display has the menu soft keys?

A

MFD

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5
Q

The MFD presents what 2 nav formats?

A

Map and plan

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6
Q

What is the third primary function of the MFD?

A

Display various system synoptic formats

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7
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

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8
Q

In addition to crew alerting, what else does the EICAS display?

A

Engine and various system parameters such as flaps, gear, spoilers, trim, fuel, APU and environmental

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9
Q

Which displays can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted?

A
  • MFDs can be reverted to EICAS or PFD

- PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted

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10
Q

What is the reversionary priority?

A
  1. PFD
  2. EICAS
  3. MFD
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11
Q

How many reversionary panel controls are in the airplane?

A

2

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12
Q

What does DU3 always display?

A

EICAS

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13
Q

Which display unites will always operate as PFDs?

A

DU 1 and 5

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14
Q

What happens with the DISPLAYS selector in AUTO?

A

EICAS Failure - Respective PFD will display on MFD
PFD failure - displays on associated MFD
MFD failure - no auto reversion

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15
Q

Explain the PFD, MFD and EICAS selections on the REVERSIONARY panel

A

PFD - Respective PFD will display on associated MFD
MFD - cannot be reverted
EICAS - displays on associated MFD
- Automatically reverts the MFD in case of display failure

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16
Q

How many ADSs are installed and how are they assigned?

A

5 installed

  • ADS 1: Captain
  • ADS 2: FO
  • ADS 3: STBY
  • ADS 4: IESS
  • ADS 5 Flight controls
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17
Q

How would you display the CA PFD on DU2?

A

On the Captain’s reversionary panel move the selector to PFD

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18
Q

What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?

A

ADS 3 automatically becomes the source, if ADS 3 fails then the respective x-side ADS is used (i.e.; ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2)

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19
Q

What happens if the ADS button is pushed?

A
  • The onside ADS reverts to ADS 3
  • The onside ADS reverts to x-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time
  • The onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed
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20
Q

What indication would you get when you push the ADS or IRS pushbutton?

A

A white striped bar illuminates on the button

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21
Q

How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button had been pushed?

A

An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD

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22
Q

Is there an associated ADS or IRS source flag displayed anywhere?

A

Yes, on the PFD

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23
Q

Briefly describe what a Modular Avionics Unit is.

A

Its a cabinet that house modules assigned to different function in an integrated architecture and also avionic- and non-avionic functions

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24
Q

Where are MAUs 1 and 2 located? MAU 3?

A

1 and 2 are in the forward E-Bay. 3 is in the central E-Bay

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25
What are the 2 power sources or MAU 1, 2 and 3?
MAU 1: DC1 and ESS 1 MAU 2: DC 2 and ESS 2 MAU 3 DC 2 and ESS 2
26
What does the SRC button do?
It alternates the CA and FO AFCS side as the data source
27
What does the green arrow on the FMA indicate?
The green arrow indicates the selected AFCS source
28
Is there an auto reversion for an IRS failure?
No, it must one manually reverted
29
When IRS 1 fails what must be done?
IRS 2 must be selected on the reversionary panel
30
What happens if the IRS button is pushed?
The respective IRS to the x-side IRS source
31
What is the primary flight instrument if both IRSs fail?
IESS
32
What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS
LOC BC
33
How does each pilot control the brightness of their EICAS, PFD and MFD display?
On their respective glare shield light control panel. The CA controls the EICAS
34
Where is the STBY/CLK brightness control located?
On the FO glare shield light control panel
35
How many aural warning controllers are installed?
2
36
What are the levels of aural alerts?
Emergency, level 3 Non-normal, level 2 Advisory, level 1 Information, level 0
37
What happens when the VSI exceeds 4,000ft/min?
The pointer parks ar the end of the scale and the digital display simply shows the actual vertical speed
38
The aircraft acceleration/deceleration is indicated how?
PFD, acceleration pointer
39
When does the EICAS automatic mode de-cluttering occur after takeoff
30 seconds gayer landing gear retraction and flap/slat retraction, if all parameters are displaying normal indications
40
Where do new EICAS messages appear?
Top of the EICAS list and flashes inverse video
41
What items are de-cluttered on the EICAS?
Oil pressure, oil temp, engine vibration, slat position, flap position, speed brake position, , landing gear position, pitch trim green band
42
After de-cluttering the EICAS, what info is displayed?
N1, ITT, Fuel, APU, Trim, Cabin
43
What does the EICAS FULL button do?
IN- inhibits auto declutter | OUT - enables auto declutter
44
When will the EICAS display all of its info?
- When the gear is down, flaps are extended, spoilers are deployed under normal conditions or APU is running - EICAS FULL button pushed - After EICAS auto declutter when a cautionary condition is detected on one of the decluttered indications
45
What color is course needle when using FMS, VOR/LOC and X-side data?
FMS: magenta VOR/LOC: green x-side info: yellow
46
The primary method of radio tuning is via the ___; the backup method is via the ___.
MCDU, CCD
47
The audio control panel display shows what?
VHF COM
48
EICAS can display how many messages> How can you scroll through additional messages?
15 messages, CCD knob by the user that selected the EICAS last
49
What happens when you operate the Master Volume Control Knob on the ACP?
The knob will adjust the volume on the most recently selected
50
Where is the weather radar tilt knob located?
The rotary knob on the CCD after radar selection is made
51
What does the tuning knob on the CCD do?
There is an outer and inner knob. They select values in the field enclosed by the cursor
52
When will the PREVIEW button show the correct ILS frequency and course?
- FMS is set to auto tune - Approach is set in the MCDU - Within 25 NM of the airport
53
Will the CCD ever go to a default position when not in use?
Yes, after 20 seconds provided there are not virtual control panels and pull-down menus opened
54
What 3 displays can be selected with the format location button on the CCD?
PFS, MFD, EICAS
55
What happens with a failure of an audio panel or both digital audio buses?
- Radio backup operation is available by pushing out the BKUP knob on the audio control panel - The BKUP switches will provide the CA VHF 1 capability and the FO VHF 2 capability
56
On the audio control panel ACP the oxygen mask microphone is activated by?
Removing the oxygen mask from stowage and pushing out the Auto/Mask switch to the mask position
57
Is communication still capable using the hand or headset microphone even if the oxygen mask stowage box doors are open?
No
58
Which audio warning are presented with no other voice message so the crew can clearly hear the information messages? What condition takes precedence over the 3 previous conditions?
- GPWS, TCAS and windshear | - Stall condition
59
What is the priority of multiple alerts?
EGPWS, TCAS, Overspeed, Fire Landing Gear
60
How many aural warning controllers are installed?
Two - one master, one slave
61
What are the aural warning priority levels?
Emergency (3), Non-normal (2), Advisory (1), Informational (0)
62
What are the 4 CAS message priority levels order of presentation?
Warning (red), Caution (amber), Advisory (Cyan), Status (white)
63
What happens when a new warning, caution, advisory or status are displayed?
They are displayed flashing in reverse video
64
What is the purpose of an aural warning?
Aural warnings are used when the pilot needs immediate knowledge of a condition without needing to look at a visual display or indicator
65
What is the indication of a suitable takeoff condition?
A voice message "TAKEOFF OK" is generated
66
What happens if the airplane is not set to the takeoff configuration?
An aural warning is generated that will refer to the associated takeoff configuration deviation
67
Depressing the EMER button on the audio control panel will ___?
- Sound a triple HI/LO chime through the PA system and... - Illuminate a red light at the ceiling of the flight attendant station and... - Cause a green bar to flash on the button until the call is answered
68
What is checked when the 'T/O CONFIG' button is pushed?
- Parking brake Off - Spoilers Stowed - Flaps Set for takeoff - Pitch trim set for takeoff
69
How does the takeoff config button test the takeoff config?
By simulating the power levers in the advanced position
70
In the event of a failure of both MFD's and EICAS where might some messages be displayed?
MCDU
71
If crew oxygen masks stowage doors are open ___ ?
Only the headset microphone is disabled
72
What happens when you push the RAMP button on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)
The ramp button bar will illuminate and you can use the mike on your headset to communicate with the ground assuming the headset is plugged in at the external power panel
73
The PTT position on the Control Wheel Communications Switch allows what?
VHF transmissions as well as voice communication with passengers
74
CBs on the captain side are numbered ___ and CBs on the FO side are numbered ___ ?
1-20 captain | 21-40 FO
75
What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?
All hard surface runways > 3500'
76
What do the colors presented by the EGPWS represent?
Solid red: Warning terrain (30 secs) Solid yellow: Caution terrain (60 secs) High density red dots: >2000' above aircraft alt High density yellow dots: 1000-2000' above aircraft alt Solid green: Highest terrain not with 500' (or 250' when gear is down) of aircraft alt. May appear with yellow dot terrain when aircraft alt is within 500' (250' gear down) of terrain High density green dots: terrain that is the middle elevation band when there is no red or yellow Low density green dots: Terrain that is the lower elevation band Light density cyan dots: Terrain elevation = 0' MSL
77
What powers the EGPWS?
DC ESS BUS 2, so it will only on batteries
78
The EGPWS receives info from what main systems?
EGPWS, Air data, FMS, radar altimeter, ILS or glideslope receiver, AHRS, VG (attitude), Landing gear, stall warning or AOA (windshear only), weather radar, EFIS, or a dedicated terrain display
79
How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?
SOLID RED: 30 secs | SOLID YELLOW: 60 secs
80
When should the 'GND PROX TERR INHIBIT' button be pushed?
Inhibits EGPWS and avoids unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not the EGPWS database
81
What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?
Caution: Increasing heading and updrafts Warning: Firewall thrust and climb in current config until warning ceases
82
What is our policy for windshear encounters?
Caution: captain/aircrew discretion Warning: firewall thrust and climb in current config until warning ceases
83
How is the pilot alerted during a windshear?
Caution: Amber windshear flag on PFD and aural "CAUTION WINDSHEAR" Warning: Red windshear flag on PFD and aural "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR"
84
WIndshear detection is activated between what altitudes
10 and 1500' radar altitude
85
Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?
Yes
86
What activates windshear guidance?
- Manually: pressing the GO AROUND button while is windshear encounter is detected - Automatically: operating in go-around or takeoff mode and a windshear condition is detected - Automatically: when TL position > 78 deg and a warning windshear condition is detected
87
How long will windshear alerting last?
Until 1500' AGL
88
Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and/or EGPWS are ions?
No
89
What happens to the previously engaged vertical mode when the windshear protection is automatically activated?
The vertical mode will remain armed (white) and will become active again when the windshear protection is no longer necessary
90
What flap setting should you plan on using when windshear alerts are in effect?
5
91
What does an ATT or HDG flag on a PFD indicate?
Attitude or heading reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS
92
What does a red 'X' on the ASI, altimeter or VSI indicate?
Airspeed, altitude or VS cannot be determined by the ADS
93
What are some items you are checking for on the PFD?
EHSI and compass no flags and same headings, EADIs level and flag-free
94
MFD what are you checking for?
- Hydraulic fluid quantity and the pressure on the hydraulic synoptic page - Verify hydraulic brake accumulator pressure, oil quantities and oxygen quantity
95
The IESS can display what?
Attitude, altitude, IAS, mach, VMO/MMO, slip, VSI, ILS Barometric pressure altitude in meters
96
What happens when the BANK button is pressed?
The bank is limited to 17 deg used by the FGCS. A white arc is automatically displayed on the PFD when above 25,000
97
The IESS takes how long to align?
90 seconds
98
When is the IESS powered?
When the batteries are switched to AUTO
99
How is the IESS powered in an electrical emergency?
The IESS is powered by the RAT and batteries
100
When is the GND PROX GS INHIB switch used?
To manually cancel glideslope alerts. Anytime below 2,000' radar alt and will automatically reset by climbing above 2,000' or descending below 30'
101
The air data system comprises of what components?
4 ADSP's, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADA;s and the BARO set on the GP
102
What do the TATs and ADSPs provide?
Total and static pressure, AOA, TAT
103
What are the 3 lights that are not buttons?
Parking brake, (doors) UNLOCKED, (oxygen) Mask Deployed
104
Which IRS is the primary source for the Captain PFD?
IRS 1
105
When would you use the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch?
To inhibit triggering flap alerts in case of landings where flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration
106
What does selecting SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?
Reduces the sweep angle to -30 degrees and increases the sweep
107
During the captain's and FO's panel prep flow after a power up, an expired navigation database will be indicated on the MCDU NAV IDENT page by?
Both database effective dates displayed in yellow text and scratch pad message: DATABASE OUT OF DATE
108
What is the max straight ahead taxi speed?
30 knots
109
TCAS establishes an alert zone based on what?
Separation and speeds of both airplanes
110
TCAS alert zone is based on time. How long until a conflict is expected to occur if no action is taken for a warning and caution
Warning: 20-30 secs Caution: 35-40 secs
111
TCAS recommends a vertical or horizontal maneuver to avoid conflicting traffic?
Vertical
112
A traffic alert (TA) is generated when?
An intruder aircraft enters the caution zone
113
What should a pilot do when a TA is generated?
- Visually locate the intruder so preventative action can be taken - Do not maneuver based on TA alone
114
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
- If the warning area is penetrated | - Corrective action is generated to permit greatest possible separation at the closest point of approach (CPA)
115
What airplane transponders allow for an RA? Which for a TA?
RA: Mode S or C TA: Mode S, C, or A
116
TCAS interfaces with which aircraft systems?
- Radar altimeter, Mode S XPDR, CMC, Display Bus (MAU and EDS), Modular Radio Cabinet (MRC), DVDR,Discretes: Weight on wheels, Landing gear down, warning inhibits
117
At the upper right of the PFD altitude tape, an amber ALT appears (vertically) in an amber box. What does this mean?
Displays whenever altitude miscompare is detected
118
On the ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist what are some items you're checking on the MFD?
Green indications (no amber) - HYD page: Fluid quantity, had pressure - Status page: Hyd brake accumulator pressures, oil quantities, oxygen quantity (842PSI for 2 and 1150 for 3)