Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Puerperal sepsis is defined as an infection of the _______ occurring at any time between __________ or _______ and _____________\

A

genital tract

rupture of membrane

labour

42 days postpartum

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2
Q

Full meaning of CTTD

A

Closed tube Thoracostomy drainage

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3
Q

A chest tube is a surgical drain that is inserted through the _______ and into the _________ or the ________ in order to remove clinically undesired substances such as ______________ , excess fluid (__________ or __________), blood (hemothorax), chyle ( _________ ) or pus ( ____________ ) from the intrathoracic space.

A

chest wall; pleural space; mediastinum

air (pneumothorax)

pleural effusion or hydrothorax

chylothorax; empyema

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4
Q

Contraindications to chest tube placement include _____________ and presence of a _______________, as well as hepatic _________________.

Additional contraindications include ___________ in the pleural space (____________).

A

refractory coagulopathy

diaphragmatic hernia

hydrothorax

scarring; adhesions

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5
Q

Contraindications to chest tube placement include _____________ and presence of a _______________, as well as hepatic _________________.

Additional contraindications include ___________ in the pleural space (____________).

A

refractory coagulopathy

diaphragmatic hernia

hydrothorax

scarring; adhesions

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6
Q

Refractory coagulopathy, defined as ______________ from multiple sites despite ___________________

A

continued bleeding

ongoing blood component administration

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7
Q

Scaling of pain

0-
2-
4-
6-
8-
10-

A

No pain
Mild pain
Moderate pain
Severe pain
Very severe pain
Worst pain imaginable

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8
Q

Spondylosis is _____-related change of the bones (vertebrae) and discs of the spine. These changes are often called __________ disease and __________. When this condition is in the ________, it’s called lumbar spondylosis.

A

age

degenerative disc; osteoarthritis

lower back

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9
Q

Osteopenia is a loss of ________________ that weakens bones. It’s more common in people older than ______, especially _______

A

bone mineral density (BMD)

50; women

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10
Q

PRN medications: The acronym PRN ( ___________ ) refers to preparations that are prescribed to be administered on _____________ rather then at ___________

A

Pro re nata

an as needed basis

scheduled intervals.

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11
Q

Parts of a long bone?

A

Articular Cartilage
Proximal epiphysis
Epiphyseal line
Metaphysis
Diphysis
Metaphysis
Distal epiphysis
Articular cartilage

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12
Q

Ossification centers of the elbow!

A

Capitellum
Radial head
Internal(medial) epicondyle
Trochlea
Olecranon
External (lateral) epicondyle

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13
Q

Compartment syndrome is defined as a _______________ within a confined compartmental space.

A

critical pressure increase

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14
Q

Compartment syndrome typically occurs following _____-energy trauma, _____ injuries, or _______ that cause vascular injury.

Other causes include iatrogenic vascular injury, ————- or _________ , ___________, and post-reperfusion swelling.

A

high; crush; fractures

tight casts or splints

deep vein thrombosis

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15
Q

In compartment syndrome , the ______ are first compromised, followed by the ————- therefore leading to _______, and then the _________ are compromised and the limb becomes ________

A

Veins; traversing nerves

Paresthesia

Artery

Ischemic

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16
Q

Clinical Features of compartment syndrome

Symptoms tend to present within ______, although it can develop up to ________ post-insult.

A

hours; 48 hours

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17
Q

The most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is __________, disproportionate to the injury, which is not readily improved with initial measures and made worse by ________________________ traversing the affected fascial compartment.

_________ can occur, however whilst the patient may have had a neuropraxia at the time of the injury, it is the presence of evolving neurology that is most important

A

severe pain

passively stretching the muscle bellies

Parasthesia

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18
Q

In compartment syndrome

The affected compartment may feel ______ (compared to the contralateral side), but will not generally be _______ (as the fascial compartment is only ______).

A

tense; swollen

minimally distensible

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19
Q

Acute limb ischemia

often referred to as the ‘5 P’s’):

__________,__________, ____________, _________, __________

A

Pain ,Pallor , Perishingly cold, Paralysis, and Pulselessness.

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20
Q

Compartment syndrome is most common in the _______ limbs

A

lower

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21
Q

Compartment syndrome

Definitive treatment is with an emergency ___________

A

open fasciotomy

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22
Q

Fasciotomy, a procedure in which the __________ to __________ in the ________ compartment

A

fascia is cut

relieve pressure

muscle

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23
Q

A fracture is ‘open’ when there is a direct communication between _______________________.

This is most often through the _______ – however, pelvic fractures may be internally open, having penetrated in to the _________ or _________

A

the fracture site and the external environment

skin

vagina or rectum.

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24
Q

Radiological rule of 2??

A

2 views( AP and L)
2 joints (one above and one below)
2 times
2 sides

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25
Cast is _______ Slab is __________
Hard Soft in some parts
26
POP is very _______, but _______ with time . It is (aerated or not aerated?) and affected by __________
Heavy; weakens Not aerated Moisture
27
Scotch VS POP scotch is made from ———-, POP is made from ________ Scotch is (lighter or heavier?) Scotch is (stronger or weaker?) Scotch is (cheaper or more expensive?) Scotch is (aerated or not aerated?) Scotch is affected by moisture (T/F?)
Fiberoptics; calcium gypsona Lighter; stronger; more expensive Aerated; F
28
Skin and skeletal traction are mostly indicated for _______- fracture and issue related with the ______
proximal femoral hip
29
Period of primary bone healing Children: ____ for UL; _____ for LL Adults : ____ for UL; _____ for LL
3weeks; 6 weeks 6weeks; 12weeks
30
Stages of fracture healing ????
Haematoma formation Inflammation Proliferation of osteoblasts, neocascularization Spongy callus Bony callus Remodelling
31
Ambulant means to??
Be mobile To walk around
32
Malunion: Delayed union : Non-union:
Healed in abnormal anatomic position Failure of primary bone healing to occur at 3 months Healing fails to occur after 9months
33
7 Ps of compartment syndrome???
Pain Paresthesias Pallor Poikilothermic Paralysis Pulselessness Putrefaction
34
In compartment syndrome, ensure elevation of the affected limb T/F
F Avoid elevation of the limb
35
In late treatment of lower limb injuries, it might be safer to __________, as dead muscle tends to produce ________ which leads to ________ with ______ blockage and _________
Amputate Myoglobin; myoglobinuria ; glomerular Renal failure
36
Indications for amputation?
Dead or dying limb Dangerous limb Dammed nuisance
37
How to know it’s a sequestrum?
You won’t be able to see the medullary cavity
38
A cloaca in bone is a ____________ of a bone affected by chronic osteomyelitis
gap in the cortex
39
Following healing , recurrence is common in _________ ulcers
Venous
40
Venous disease is responsible for _______% of all ulcers in the lower leg
60-70
41
Majority of ulcers develop in the _____ side of ulcers Venous Ulcers rarely extend into ________ or _______
Medial Foot or upper calf
42
Wagner grading of Ulcers 0- 1- 2- 3- 4- 5-
At risk; pre-ulcer Superficial ulcer: skin and subcut tissue Deeper to subcut, expose soft tissue, bone Abscess formation Gangrene of part Gangrene of whole area
43
Spurious hematuria is ???
False hematuria
44
causes of spurious hematuria include _____________ and ___________ in women.
urinary contamination from menstruation and sexual intercourse
45
A normal range of PCV In females, _______ to ____%. In males, ____% to _____%
35.5 to 44.9%. In males, 38.3% to 48.6%
46
The normal Hb level for males is _____ to _____/dl; that for females is _____ to _____ g/dl
14 to 18 g/dl 12 to 16 g/dl
47
A normal platelet count in adults ?? A normal wbc count in adults? A normal rbc count in adults?
150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood 4000-11000 wbc per microliter 4.5-5 million rbc per microliter
48
Normal PSA level?
0-4ng/ml
49
A trimodal distribution of trauma deaths describes three peaks of deaths following trauma: ———,_______, and _________ deaths.
immediate, early and late
50
Immediate death (Occurs within _______ of injury) Early death (Occurs within ___________) Late death (Occurs _________ after injury)
minutes hours of arrival into hospital day to week
51
Causes of immediate death ____________ injury ___________ from injuries
Irreversible brain Hemorrhage
52
Triage TAGS Red (________) – _____________ injury patients Yellow ( _________ )-_________ injured patients Green (__________ patient) – ________________ injury Black (_________) – _____________ patients
immediate; Most critical Delayed; Less critically ambulatory; No life or limb threatening expectant; dead or moribund
53
Factors used in TRIAGE Mnemonic?? Full thing??
SLUT Severity of injury Likelihood of survival Urgency of care
54
Deadly six fall under ??? Immediate or early or late causes of death?
Early
55
A crystalloid fluid is an ________ solution of ________ and other small, water-soluble molecules.
aqueous mineral salts
56
Other commercially available crystalloid fluids include: ____________ __________/__________ solution (lactate buffered solution) __________ solution. ________ and _________solution. Acetate and gluconate buffered solution. __________(hypotonic solution) ________ (hypertonic solution) ___________ in water.
Normal saline Lactated Ringer's/Hartman's Acetate buffered Acetate and lactate buffered 0.45% NaCl 3% NaCl 5% Dextrose
57
Assessment of airways? Assessment of breathing?
Voice, breath sounds Respiratory rate, chest wall movements,lung auscultation, pulse oximetry
58
Assessment of Circulation
Skin color, sweating , pulse rate, capillary refill time ,blood pressure, heart auscultation
59
The normal pulse for healthy adults ranges from ____ to _____ beats per minute. The normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is _____ to _____ breaths per minute Normal SPO2 is ???
60 to 100 12 to 20 97-100%
60
Tetanus antiserum provides (temporary or permanent ?) (active or passive?) immunity against tetanus for _______
Temporary Passive 2 weeks.
61
Anti Tetanus Serum I.P.(A T S) It is used for _______________ Tetanus. ATS is a solution of purified antibodies prepared from ___________
both preventing and curing Equine Blood.
62
Various interventions have been utilized for prophylaxis of ______________(VTE) . These include mechanical devices such as _________________ (GCS), _____________ (IPC) devices, and pharmacologic agents such as unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, and fondaparinux.
venous thromboembolism graduated compression stockings intermittent pneumatic compression
63
Remember that halving airway radius leads to a _____ fold increase in resistance ( ____________ law)
16; Poiseuille’s
64
A/An ___________ sample is key to appreciating the clinical state and subsequent efficacy of treatment in patients with respiratory compromise
arterial blood gas (ABG)
65
If you think your patient is not breathing effectively or at all but still has a pulse, then this is a _____________ and immediate help in the form of a cardiac arrest team should be sought while you and a colleague use a bag-valve-mask to oxygenate the patient.
respiratory arrest
66
When transfusing in a state of shock, Be careful not to run through bags with added ___________ ‘stat’, as rapid boluses of ________ can cause cardiac arrest.
potassium chloride; potassium
67
‘Pinpoint’ or bilaterally constricted pupils (miosis) may indicate __________ Anisocoria (a__________________ pupil) can occur with ___________________ , affecting ————-
opioid toxicity unilaterally dilated (mydriasis) rising intracranial pressure CN III
68
Myositis ossificans is a reaction to a ____________ that has been injured. During the healing of the bruise, _________ can become deposited in the bruise causing a ___________ within the ________.
bruise in a muscle calcium; hard bone like structure muscle
69
Infection vs Colonization Infection means that germs are in or on the body and __________, which results in _______ and _______ Colonization means germs are on the body but ____________. People who are colonized will have _____________
make you sick; signs and symptoms do not make you sick; no signs or symptoms.
70
Pathogenesis of osteomyelitis Blood stream invasion in children Infection starts in the vascular _________ of the long bone (due to arrangement of the blood vessels at that area) >- __________ Relative _________ and consequent lowered _________ favour the bacteria • Structure of the vessels in this area also allow bacteria to move more easily through and to adhere
metaphysis; hairpin loops vascular stasis; Oxygen tension
71
Pathogenesis of osteomyelitis In adult • Haematogenous spread account for only ______% • Affect mostly the ________
20 vertebrae
72
PATHOGENESIS • Progress of acute OM • _________ - __________ - Bone _________ - Reactive _____________ which could either lead to • _____________ or ____________
Inflammation Suppuration Bone necrosis new bone formation Resolution and healing Intractable chronicity
73
Differential diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis • ________ • Acute _____________ • Streptococal ______________ • ________________
Cellulitis • Acute suppurative arthritis • Streptococal necrotizing myositis • Sickle cell crisis
74
Complications of acute OM •________________ •____________ fracture •_________ infection • Suppurative ________ •___________ damage
Chronic osteomyelitis Pathological Metastatic arthritis Epiphyseal
75
Subacute osteomyelitis _________ than acute om organisms are (more or less?) virulent or patient (more or less ?) resistant
Milder Less; more
76
Subacute OM is a rare occurrence T/F
F No longer rare
77
Subacute OM haematogeneous Pathology - well defined _____ in __________- _______ abscess
cavity cancellous bone brodie's abscess
78
Clinical features of Subacute OM Pain near ______ for ________ __________ Slight _________, muscle ________, local ____________ Temperature is _______
Joint; several weeks Limping; swelling; wasting tenderness; normal
79
Diagnosing chronic osteomyelitis Recurrent ______________ Previously _______________ Occasional _________________
discharging sinus healed scars acute flare
80
Saucerization an operation in which ________ to form a saucer-like __________ Usually done when ______ is infected .
tissue is cut away from a wound depression Bone
81
management of chronic OM Antibiotics • Local treatment • Operations •Wound debridement:________,________ + _________ Management •_________
saucerizations sequestrectomy dead space amputation
82
Treatment of subacute OM - __________ and _________ •_______ may be necessary
immobilization and antibiotics Curretage
83
Bone curettage refers to the removal of bone through that act of _____________
scraping it with a curette.