Week 7 practice questions pt 1 Flashcards

Slides 1-87 (44 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is characterized by cleft lip, polydactyly, microcephaly, microphthalmia, and omphalocele?
a) Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
b) Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
c) Turner Syndrome (45, X)
d) Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
e) Turner Syndrome (45, X)
f) Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)
g) Deletion 5p (Cri du chat Syndrome)

A

b) Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)

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2
Q

Which of the following may cause microcephaly? Select all that apply.
a) Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
b) Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
c) Turner Syndrome (45, X)
d) Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
e) Turner Syndrome (45, X)
f) Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)
g) Deletion 5p (Cri du chat Syndrome)

A

a) Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
b) Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
g) Deletion 5p (Cri du chat Syndrome)

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3
Q

Hyperechogenic bowel, meconium peritonitis, bowel dilation, absent gallbladder, are all prenatal symptoms of what?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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4
Q

“Cell-free DNA” (cfDNA) is an example of what kind of testing?
a) NIPT testing
b) PAPP-A
c) Ultrasound Screening
d) Fetal cord blood testing

A

a) NIPT testing

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5
Q

Which of the following does cfDNA test for? Select all that apply
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 16
d) Trisomy 13
e) Fetal Sex
f) Sex chromosome aneuploidy

A

a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
d) Trisomy 13
e) Fetal Sex
f) Sex chromosome aneuploidy

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6
Q

High beta HCG may indicate what?

A

Trisomy 21

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7
Q

A woman has a husband with spina bifida, but no history of NTD herself. What amount of folic acid should she take?

A

4mg

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8
Q

How are multiples usually diagnosed?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Ultrasound
c) Serum hCG
d) Urine hCG

A

b) Ultrasound

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9
Q

The powerpoint said multiples increase maternal risk of ______________ postpartum
a) Depression
b) Mastitis
c) DVT
d) Hemorrhage

A

d) Hemorrhage

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10
Q

Define hydrops fetalis
a) Infant brain damage resulting from high levels of bilirubin in blood
b) Infant brain damage resulting from high levels of urea in blood
c) The development of fluid in at least 2 extravascular compartments
d) The development of fluid in the brain

A

c) The development of fluid in at least 2 extravascular compartments

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11
Q

Transcranial dopplers look at peak velocity of flow through the _____________ artery
a) Middle cerebral
b) Anterior cerebral
c) Vertebral
d) Umbilical

A

a) Middle cerebral

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12
Q

Which of the following is the predominant finding in gestational HTN/ preeclampsia?
a) Maternal vasospasm
b) Fetal vasospasm
c) Fetal death
d) Maternal seizures

A

a) Maternal vasospasm

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13
Q

Which of the following should be done when evaluating a pregnant patient with hypertension? Select all that apply
a) Ultrasound
b) Ultrasound with doppler
c) Stress test +/- Biophysical profile (BPP)
d) Nonstress test +/- Biophysical profile (BPP)

A

a) Ultrasound
c) Stress test +/- Biophysical profile (BPP)

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14
Q

Which are considered first line for chronic HTN in pregnancy? Select all that apply
a) Lisinopril
b) Nifedipine
c) Diltiazem
d) Amlodipine
e) Losartan

A

b) Nifedipine
d) Amlodipine

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15
Q

Which of the following patients is pregnancy NOT recommended for? Select all that apply:
a) Pulmonary HTN
b) Chronic HTN
c) Tetralogy of Fallot
d) Eisenmenger syndrome
e) Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilation
f) Dilated cardiomyopathy
g) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

a) Pulmonary HTN
c) Tetralogy of Fallot
d) Eisenmenger syndrome
e) Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilation
f) Dilated cardiomyopathy

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16
Q

What amount of glycosuria in pregnancy is considered to be normal?
a) 300mg/day
b) 400mg/day
c) 500mg/day
d) 600mg/day
e) 700mg/day

A

a) 300mg/day

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17
Q

Which of the following were NOT mentioned as a complication of DM in pregnancy? Select all that apply
a) Congenital anomalies
b) Spontaneous abortion and stillbirth
c) Macrosomia
d) Microsomia
e) Hypoglycemia
f) Hyperglycemia

A

b) Spontaneous abortion and stillbirth
d) Microsomia
f) Hyperglycemia

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18
Q

Jenna, 26 weeks pregnant, does her 1 hour glucose tolerance test (50g drink). Her glucose result is 150. What should you do next?
a) Nothing; her result was negative for GDM
b) 3-hour glucose tolerance test (100g drink)
c) 2-hour glucose tolerance test (75g drink)
d) Repeat 1 hour glucose tolerance test (50g drink)

A

b) 3-hour glucose tolerance test (100g drink)

19
Q

K has been diagnosed with GDM. It has been controlled with medication. What should you tell her to expect regarding her delivery?

A

Spontaneous delivery start of 39 to end of 39 (before week 40)

20
Q

Pregnancy is generally a _____________ state
a) Hypothyroid
b) Euthyroid
c) Hyperthyroid
d) Hypotrophic

21
Q

If a pt has Hasimoto’s or hypothyroidism and is pregnant, what do you do?
a) Increase their methimazole by 25-30%
b) Decrease their methimazole by 25-30%
c) Increase their Levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose by 25-30%
d) Decrease their Levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose by 25-30%

A

c) Increase their Levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose by 25-30%

22
Q

When should patients avoid methimazole?
a) During the 1st trimester
b) During the 2nd trimester
c) During the 3rd trimester
d) Postpartum

A

a) During the 1st trimester

23
Q

What is the first line treatment for nausea in pregnancy?
a) Doxylamine (Diclegis)
b) Zofran (Ondansetron)
c) Promethazine (Phenergan)
d) Vit B6 (pyridoxine)
e) Vit B 12 (cyanocobalamin)

A

d) Vit B6 (pyridoxine)

24
Q

When does nausea and vomiting peak in pregnancy?
a) Weeks 4-6
b) Weeks 7-12
c) Weeks 14-18
d) Weeks 20-24

A

b) Weeks 7-12

25
Which are NOT a complication of hyperemesis gravidarum? **Select all that apply** a) Hypokalemia/hyponatremia b) Hyperkalemia/ hyperkalemia c) Encephalopathy d) Vitamin B6/B12 deficiency e) Metabolic alkalosis f) Metabolic acidosis
b) Hyperkalemia/ hyperkalemia f) Metabolic acidosis
26
T/F: All dizygotic twins are dichorionic, diamniotic.
True
27
T/F: Alloimmunization does not increase risk of fetal anemia
False; it does increase the risk
28
T/F: Fetal anemia increases risk of hydrops fetalis
True
29
T/F: Portal/mesenteric Vein Thrombosis doesn’t always cause portal hypertension
True
30
T/F: The true pelvis is below the linea terminalis
True
31
What is true of the coronal suture? a) Anteroposterior between parietal bones b) Separates occipital bone from parietal bones c) Separates parietal and frontal bones d) Separates frontal bones
c) Separates parietal and frontal bones
32
Which fontanelle ossifies around 18 months of life & is diamond shaped? Choose the best answer. a) Posterior fontanelle/ “lambda” b) Anterior fontanelle/ “bregma” c) Posterior fontanelle/ “bregma” d) Anterior fontanelle/ “lambda”
b) Anterior fontanelle/ “bregma”
33
T/F: The platypelloid pelvis shape has a higher risk of transverse arrest
True
34
Fetal head can only engage in AP diameter with what pelvis type? a) Gynecoid b) Platypelloid c) Android d) Anthropoid
d) Anthropoid
35
“Cell-free DNA” (cfDNA) may be used as early as _________ weeks until term a) 5-6 b) 7-8 c) 9-10 d) 11-12
c) 9-10
36
When is PAPP-A very decreased?
Spontaneous abortion
37
When is AFP super elevated?
Neural tube defects
38
List the parts of quadruple screening
1) AFP 2) hCG 3) Estriol 4) Inhibin A
39
A patient has low AFP, high beta HCG, low estriol, high inhibin A, and decreased PAPP-A. Nuchal Lucency on US is elevated. What is the likely diagnosis?
Trisomy 21
40
HCG doubles every _______ hrs during first 30 days after implantation
72
41
T/F: Diamniotic/monochorionic can occur, but monoamniotic/ dichorionic cannot occur
True
42
What is the minimum threshold for mild/ moderate chronic HTN? (according to this class)
140/90
43
Define macrosomia
>4000-4500g
44
What is the prediabetes range for A1C?
>5.7 but <6.5