Week 5 pt 2 highlights Flashcards

1
Q

Cautions in Hormone Therapy (HT):
A Randomized Clinical Trial in 2002 found:
1) ___________ risk of heart attack, stroke, thromboembolic disease, and breast cancer
2) __________ risk of colorectal cancer and hip fractures

A

1) Increased
2) Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Urgency Urinary Incontinence:
1) What causes this?
2) What are 3 Sx?
3) Who is it more common in?

A

1) Detrusor Overactivity
2) Urgency, frequency, nocturia
3) More common in older women and with comorbid neurologic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Overflow Incontinence:
1) Define this condition
2) What is the main Sx?

A

1) Bladder does not empty completely during voiding
2) May experience continuous bladder leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 3 key parts of incontinence eval?

A

1) History, PE, and direct observation of urine loss
2) Urodynamic testing
3) Cystourethroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List 3 Nonsurgical Treatment Options for incontinence

A

1) Lifestyle
2) Kegel Exercises
3) Pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Midurethral Sling is the most popular surgical Tx for what?

A

Incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI?

A

Fecal flora (E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1) What is a lower UTI called? What Sx is uncommon?
2) What is upper UTI called? What are 2 Sxs?

A

1) Acute Simple Cystitis: fever uncommon
2) Acute Pyelonephritis: Fever, chills,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the important parts of Diagnostic and Laboratory Eval for UTI

A

1) Hx
2) PE
3) Labs: urinalysis, & culture if no improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long is the course of abx typically for UTIs?

A

3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What abx do you use for UTIs in pregnancy?

A

1) Cephalexin 500 mg PO QID, Cefpodoxime 100mg BID, or
2) Amoxicillin 500 mg (or Augmentin) PO TID
x 5-7 days
-Both have low risk of teratogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for UTIs: Risks/benefits in pregnancy must be weighed especially during what 2 times?

A

1st and close to term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

UTIs in pregnancy: What is the DOC in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters?

A

Macrobid 100mg PO BID x 7d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

UTIs in pregnancy: When can you not give Macrobid?

A

1) Can be teratogenic at high doses and cause hemolytic anemia in the newborn if used in the mom in the last 2 weeks of the pregnancy
2) DO NOT GIVE TO MOM AFTER WEEK 37 (or in 1st trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ALL _________________________ are contraindicated in pregnancy and carries risk of spontaneous abortion and permanent teeth and bone discoloration.

A

tetracyclines (ex/doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What 2 things should you consider doing for treating recurrent UTIs?

A

Vaginal estrogen in postmenopausal women
Change contraception method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Asymptomatic Bacteriuria: Screening and treatment not recommended in what 2 groups?

A

Nonpregnant premenopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fecal Incontinence:
1) Is also called what?
2) What are 2 types?

A

1) Accidental bowel leakage
2) Sporadic or continual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1) Women who have breastfed their infants have a ______________ risk of breast cancer.
2) _______ minutes of exercise 5 times per week decreases breast cancer risk

A

1) decreased
2) 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1) Drinking _____ to _____ alcoholic drinks per day is associated with a 20% increased risk of breast cancer
2) Does smoking increase breast cancer risk?

A

1) 2 to 3
2) Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give the when, where, how, and why of breast self awareness

A

1) When? First week after your period
2) Where? In the shower, when your skin is wet and your hands
3) How? Everywhere and consistently.
4) Why? Because many women find their own cancers that have been missed by mammography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinical Breast Examination (CBE): Perform during _____________ phase of the menstrual cycle

A

follicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List some important symptoms concerning for malignancy of the breast

A

1) Rapid change
2) Enlargement of one breast
3) Discoloration
4) Warmth
5) Dimpling
6) Itching
7) Enlarged lymph nodes
8) Nipple inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

> /=40 y/o, the first-line study for breast cancer screening is what?

A

Mammography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_____________ carcinoma is more difficult to detect with routine screening mammography
Lobular
26
List some diagnostic imaging for breast cancer
1) Mammography 2) Ultrasonography 3) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
27
What is more commonly used in women <30 as initial modality for screening for breast cancer?
Ultrasonography
28
What screening for breast CA is limited due to cost?
MRI
29
What are 2 methods of diagnostic testing for breast CA?
1) Fine-Needle Aspiration 2) Core-Needle Aspiration
30
1) Sclerosing adenosis feel like what? 2) Is it cancerous? How do you Tx?
1) Small, firm, tender, palpable nodules 2) Benign condition and does not need treatment.
31
Radial scars (complex sclerosing lesions): Do they cause breast cancer?
No consensus on whether they increase risk of breast cancer
32
Most common benign tumor of the breast is what?
Fibroadenoma (No need to Tx usually)
33
Give the clinical features of fibroadenomas
Firm, smooth, rubbery and defined; highly mobile; painless
34
How do you Tx fat necrosis of the breast?
No treatment required once dx is confirmed
35
Breast abscesses are usually caused by what bacteria?
staph aureus
36
Lipoma: A _________ tumor of fat cells
benign
37
1) "Breast Pain” is also called what? 2) What are 3 types?
1) Mastalgia 2) Cyclical, noncyclical, and extramammary
38
List 2 medical therapies for mastalgia
1) Danazol 2) Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
39
List 2 meds that can Tx mastalgia
1) Danazol 2) SERMS (tamoxifen or raloxifene)
40
Mastitis: 1) What are the Sx? 2) Who does it occur in? What is it assoc. with?
1) Pain, swelling, redness, warmth, fatigue, malaise, fever 2) Lactating or recently lactating women -Associated with incomplete emptying of the breast (engorgement) or plugged duct(s)
41
Mastitis: 1) What causes it? 2) What are some important parts of Tx?
1) Bacteria 2) Cont. breastfeeding -Dicloxacillin is first line Tx -If MRSA risk factors: Bactrim
42
Is nipple discharge always a concern?
Can be benign or early sign of endocrine dysfunction or cancer
43
Define Ductal Ectasia
Dilation of the mammary ducts, walls thicken, and fluid builds up
44
Intraductal Papilloma: Are they benign?
Yes; Small, benign, usually in women 35-55
45
Bloody discharge of the nipple may be due to what?
Intraductal papilloma
46
List 3 groups of medications that may cause Galactorrhea
1) Anti-psychotics 2) H2-receptor blockers 3) OCPs
47
What is the single largest risk factor for breast cancer?
Age
48
Breast Cancer Risk Assessment Tool: The Gail Model uses what 7 risk factors? ("good to know these")
1) Age 2) Onset of menstruation 3) Age at the time of first live birth 4) Number of 1st degree relatives with breast CA 5) History of breast biopsy 6) History of atypia on biopsy 7) Race/ethnicity
49
70-80% of breast cancers are _________________ carcinomas
invasive ductal
50
1) What Sx suggests infection or inflammation? 2) What is it worrisome for in women who have not recently nursed a baby?
1) Redness 2) IBC (inflammatory breast cancer)
51
List some skin changes that can be present in the symptomatic PT coming in for a breast concern
1) Redness 2) "Peau d'orange" quality 3) Dimpling 4) Asymmetry 5) Nipple retraction
52
Define inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)
A rare type that develops rapidly, making the affected breast red, swollen and tender.
53
IBC: Most patients have signs of _______________ cancer at the time of diagnosis, including lymphadenopathy and metastasis.
advanced
54
Eczema-like appearance to the nipple is a Sx of what?
Paget’s Disease of the Breast
55
The seriousness of invasive breast cancer is strongly influenced by the _________ of the disease.
stage
56
Breast CA: Once the ____, ______, and ________ are determined, a stage of I,II, III, or IV is assigned
T, N, and M
57
Breast CA staging: Nodes (N)
NX: cannot be assessed N0: no spread or requires PCR testing N1: involves 1-3 nodes N2: involves 4-9 nodes N3: >10 nodes or more distant nodes involved
58
10-17% of breast cancers, including the majority of cancers in patients with BRCA1 mutations, are what?
Triple negative
59
Triple negative breast CA: 1) What does it respond well to? 2) What is triple positive?
1) Tend to respond well to chemo 2) Triple positive: ER+ and PR+ and HER2+
60
Receptor _____________ tumors (although fewer in #) have a poorer prognosis
NEGATIVE
61
Endocrine receptor positive make up _____% of breast CA
75%
62
Endocrine receptor positive : 65% of breast CAs are ______
PR+
63
Endocrine receptor positive: _________ (20-25% of breast cancers) tend to be very aggressive and fast-growing tumors
HER2 positive
64
List 2 drugs that are widely used to Tx hormone-receptor positive breast cancers
1) Tamoxifen 2) Raloxifene (Evista)
65
Treatment of ER+ patients: What should you begin after surgery, chemo, and radiation?
Anti-estrogen therapy
66
List 2 surgical treatments for breast CA
1) Lumpectomy 2) Mastectomy
67
Current ACOG recommendations say that HT (hormone therapy) should only be used for what?
short-term relief and individually tailored
68
List 2 alternatives to hormone therapy during menopause
1) Black cohosh 2) Evening primrose oil
69
Pelvic Organ Prolapse: 1) Organs have lost their __________ 2) Might descend through the ______________
1) support 2) urogenital hiatus
70
Pelvic organs are supported by a complex interaction of what 4 things?
1) Levator muscles 2) Connective tissue 3) Uterosacral ligaments 4) Cardinal ligaments
71
1) Urethrocele and cystoceles occur in which compartment? 2) Where do Rectoceles occur? 3) What is an Enterocele?
1) Anterior vaginal compartment 2) Posterior vaginal compartment 3) Displaced small bowel
72
What are 3 important Hx points to consider when evaluating POP?
1) Intra-abdominal pressure 2) Chronic cough or constipation 3) Neurologic process
73
Describe the first 3 stages of pelvic organ prolapse (POP-Q)
Stage 0: No prolapse Stage I: edge is >1 cm above the hymen. Stage II: edge is < 1cm above or below the hymen.
74
POP: 1) How do you Tx Asymptomatic or mild cases? 2) What are the types of surgeries?
1) Observation 2) Compartment-specific reconstruction vs obliterative
75
Stress Urinary Incontinence: 1) Define this condition 2) Who is it most common form of incontinence in?
1) Intra-abdominal pressures exceed urethral closure pressures 2) Young women