Week 7 pt 1 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Describe the base of the fetal skull

A

Large, ossified, united, noncompressible bones
Protects brain stem and spinal connections

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2
Q

Describe the fetal vault (cranium)

A

Thin, weakly ossified, compressible bones connected by membranes
Allows for molding
Overlapping under pressure and changing of shape to conform to maternal pelvis

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3
Q

1) What separates occipital bone from parietal bones?
2) What separates parietal and frontal bones?

A

1) Lamboid suture
2) Coronal sutrue

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4
Q

1) What separates frontal bones?
2) Describe the saggital suture

A

1) Frontal suture
2) Anteroposterior
Between parietal bones

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5
Q

Define fontanelles and describe the two

A

Intersection points of the sutures
1) Posterior fontanelle: 6 – 8 weeks of life
“lambda”
2) Anterior fontanelle: 18 months of life
“bregma”
Diamond shape

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6
Q

List the bones of the pelvis

A

1) Sacrum
2) Coccyx
3) 2 innominates (right and left hip bones)
-Ilium
-Pubis
-Ischium

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7
Q

What 3 things hold the pelvic bones together?

A

Sacroiliac joints
Sacrococcygeal joint
Pubic symphysis

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8
Q

Describe the coccyx

A

3-5 rudimentary vertebrae
Bones may articulate or may be fused

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9
Q

Describe the 2 divisions of the pelvis

A

False pelvis
Above the linea terminalis (edge of pelvic inlet)
Only obstetric function is to support the uterus
True pelvis
Below the linea terminalis
Bony canal with solid immobile borders
Area of concern because dimensions may not be adequate for safe vaginal delivery

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10
Q

List the 4 basic types of pelvic architecture

A

Gynecoid
Android
Anthropoid
Platypelloid

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11
Q

Pelvic shapes: The dashed lines indicate the widest ____________ diameter of the inlet.

A

transverse

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12
Q

Describe a gynecoid pelvis

A

Most common female pelvis type (50% of females)
Cylindrical, spacious shape that allows the fetal head to rotate
Little to no difficulty during birth (relative to other types)

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13
Q

Describe an android pelvis

A

1) Typical male pelvis (less then 30% of females)
2) Limited space at inlet and progressively less space as fetus moves down pelvis
3) Descent arrest is common

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14
Q

Describe an Anthropoid pelvis

A

Pelvis type of 20% of females
Fetal head can only engage in AP diameter
AP diameter is much larger than transverse diameter

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15
Q

Describe Platypelloid pelvis

A

Uncommon pelvis type (3% of females)
Fetal head has to engage in the transverse diameter
Higher risk of transverse arrest

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16
Q

List the S/Sx of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)

A

1) Hypotonia
2) Intellectual disability
3) Dysmorphic facial features
4) Bradycephaly with flat occiput
5) Short neck with loose skin on nape
6) Single transverse palmar crease
7) Atrioventricular Septal Defect

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17
Q

List the S/Sx of Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18)

A

1) Many die in womb; 50% survive the first week
2) Intellectual disability
3) Microcephaly
4) Heart defects
5) Omphalocele
6) Multiple joint contractures

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18
Q

List the S/Sx of Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)

A

1) Cleft lip
2) Polydactyly
3) Microcephaly
4) Microphthalmia
5) Omphalocele

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19
Q

List the S/Sx of Turner Syndrome (45, X)

A

1) Short stature
2) Streak ovaries
3) No secondary sex development
No menarche
4) Coarctation of the aorta
5) Webbed Neck

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20
Q

List the S/Sx of Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)

A

1) Infertility (often when/why the dz is discovered)
2) Androgen deficiency
-Decreased muscle tone
-Decreased bone mineral density
-Loss of Libido
3) Learning Disability

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21
Q

List 4 S/Sx of Deletion 5p (Cri du chat Syndrome)

A

1) Severe intellectual disability
2) Microcephaly
3) Distinctive facial features
4) Characteristic “cat’s cry” sound

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22
Q

Moderate-to-severe intellectual delay, characteristic facies; cardiac abnormalities; increased incidence of respiratory infections and leukemia; only 2% live beyond age 50 years

This describes what?

A

Down syndrome

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23
Q

Severe intellectual disability; multiple organic abnormalities; less than 10% survive 1 year

This describes what?

A

Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)

24
Q

Severe intellectual disability; neurologic, ophthalmologic and organic abnormalities; 5% survive 3 years

This describes what?

A

Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)

25
Lethal anomaly occurs frequently in first-trimester spontaneous abortions; no infants are known to have trisomy 16 This describes what?
Trisomy 16
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29
List some Risk Factors for Genetic Disorders
1) Advanced Maternal Age: >35yo 2) H/o early pregnancy loss 3) Advanced paternal age: >50yo 4) Ethnicity: Sickle cell, Tay-Sachs, β-Thalassemia
30
Cystic Fibrosis: 1) Prevalence? 2) Prenatal S/Sx?
1) In the US: 1: 3200 Caucasians 2) Hyperechogenic bowel, meconium peritonitis, bowel dilation, absent gallbladder
31
Describe the presentation of CF in infants
1) Meconium ileus 2) Failure to thrive 3) Respiratory symptoms 4) Edema with hypoproteinemia
32
Differentiate between a screening test and diagnostic test
1) Screening: Assess risk 2) Diagnostic: If screening is positive, confirms.
33
Describe the following in the first trimester: 1) PAPP-A 2) Serum Screening 3) Ultrasound Screening
1) PAPP-A (Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A) 2) Serum Screening (plasma hCG) 3) Ultrasound Screening Nuchal Transparency (NT) *70% detection rate for Down syndrome alone (82-87 with all 3 listed)
34
What looks for fetal DNA circulating in the mother’s blood?
“Cell-free DNA” (cfDNA)
35
First Trimester Screening: 1) List the 3 main components 2) What is the function of these?
1) PAPP-A, HCG, ultrasound (nuchal translucency) 2) Anticipates trisomy; helps diagnose spontaneous abortion
36
Second Trimester Screening (15-22) 1) Describe triple screening tests 2) Describe quadruple screening
1) Alpha fetal Protein (AFP) levels hCG Estriol 2) Triple in addition to… Inhibin A
37
Ultrasound screening in the second trimester 1) What is it testing for? 2) What can you take to prevent?
1) Major anomaly a) Cardiac defects b) Neural Tube Defects 2) Folic acid 0.4mg If history: 4mg High risk: Open neural tube defect (NTD) in any first degree relative of either parent or a personal history of open NTD in either parent Started 3months prior to conception
38
Differentiate between negative and positive by HCG
<5mIU= negative >25mIU = positive
39
1) Define zygotic 2) Define chorionic 3) Define amniotic
1) genetic makeup of the pregnancy relating to or characteristic of a zygote 2) Placental make-up (The outermost membrane surrounding an embryo which contributes to the formation of the placenta) 3) Amniotic sac makeup
40
Describe dizygotic (fraternal) twins
1) 2 separate eggs + 2 separate sperm (2/3 of all twin pregnancies) 2) As high as 1 in 20 pregnancies in some countries Can also be familial and follows the maternal lineage
41
Describe monozygotic (identical) twins
1) Division of a fertilized ovum after conception 2) Approximately 1 in every 250 pregnancies worldwide 3) Rate has stayed stable over time and does NOT run in families
42
Describe why it's difficult to tell if two fetuses are identical
"Blending” of the boundaries of the placentas can make it difficult to determine whether same sex babies are identical *Determination is best made in early gestation (8-10) weeks *Early determination of chorionicity is very important.
43
List and describe the 3 types of amniotic and chorionic identical twins can be
1) Diamniotic/Dichorionic (A&B): **Division occurs by day 3 of fertilization** -May have two separate placentas or one “fused” placenta 2) Diamniotic/monochorionic (C): **Day 4-8** 3) Monoamniotic/monochorionic (D): **Day 9-12**
44
List the complications of multiples
1) Preterm labor and birth 2) Gestational HTN 3) Increased risk of placental abruption 4) Anemia 5) Birth defects 6) Miscarriage Vanishing twin syndrome 7) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) 8) C-section 9) Postpartum hemorrhage
45
Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome: 1) Define this 2) What are the Sx in the donor twin?
1) AV anastomoses between the fetuses 2) Impaired growth, anemia, & decrease in amniotic fluid volume (oligohydramnios)
46
Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome: what can happen in the recipient twin?
1) Hypervolemia 2) Hypertension 3) Polycythemia 4) CHF 5) Increase in amniotic fluid volumes (hydramnios)
47
Triplets and Quadruplets can be what kind of zygosity?
Monozygotic Multizygotic Combination *Fully monozygotic quadruplets are extremely rare, occurring 1 in 15,000 pregnancies
48
Describe the diagnosis of large uterine size
Dx: usually ultrasound 4cm or more between weeks of gestation and measured fundal height
49
True or false: There's an increased perinatal morbidity in multiples
True
50
Antenatal mgmt for multiples: 1) What should you do early 1st trimester? 2) What abt end of 1st trimester?
1) Determine number, amnionicity, and chorionicity via ultrasound 2) Repeat ultrasound to check #, viability
51
Antenatal mgmt for multiples: Describe how often do to freq. ultrasound screening
1) Dichorionic: Q 4-6weeks after 20 weeks 2) Monochorionic: q 2 weeks (16-28wks) then q 3-4 weeks -More frequent due to risk of TTTS (can help detect vanishing twin syndrome)
52
Means of delivery of multiples are dependent upon what?
1) Parity of the mother 2) Presentation of the babies 3) Size of the babies 4) Position of the placenta(s) 5) Experience of the obstetrician (a big one) 6) Facilities available for care in an emergency
53
Define Alloimmunization
1) When any fetal blood group factor inherited from the father is not possessed by the mother, antepartum or intrapartum fetal-maternal bleeding may stimulate an immune reaction in the mother. a) Maternal immune reactions also can occur from blood product transfusion. b) Rh- female + Rh+ male  baby Rh – or +
54
Formation of maternal antibodies (alloimmunization) may cause what 3 things?
1) Hemolysis 2) Bilirubinemia 3) Anemia
55
Alloimmunization: Describe the effects of Fetal anemia
1) Extramedullary hematopoiesis > hepatosplenomegaly 2) Hemolysis > Increased bilirubin -Kernicterus: infant brain damage resulting from high levels of bilirubin in blood 3) Severe anemia can also lead to Hydrops fetalis: fluid accumulation in at least 2 extravascular compartments
56
Describe when to give Rhogam
1) Give at week 28 2) Give at any mixing event Delivery: vaginal or C-section Loss: Ectopic or Spontaneous/induced abortion Procedures: that allow fetal mixing Trauma: includes vaginal Bleeding after 20 weeks and abdominal trauma